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UGC-NET Economics 2025

2025 · 139 questions · First 10 Solutions Free
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Q1 mcq 2 marks
Study the table given below and answer the question: The table gives attendance of employees (number of employees present) on five week days in five offices, namely, A, B, C, D and E: $$\begin{array}{|l|c|c|c|c|c|}\hline \text{Days} & \text{A} & \text{B} & \text{C} & \text{D} & \text{E} \\\hline \text{Monday} & 139 & 147 & 211 & 141 & 184 \\\hline \text{Tuesday} & 141 & 189 & 164 & 189 & 151 \\\hline \text{Wednesday} & 115 & 141 & 159 & 156 & 136 \\\hline \text{Thursday} & 89 & 223 & 120 & 147 & 113 \\\hline \text{Friday} & 187 & 93 & 257 & 160 & 124 \\\hline\end{array}$$ What is the difference between total number of employees present in offices C and D together on Tuesday and total number of employees present in offices A and E together on Thursday?
a.
147
b.
271
c.
151 Correct Answer
d.
171
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Total employees in C and D together on Tuesday = $164 + 189 = 353$. Total employees in A and E together on Thursday = $89 + 113 = 202$. Difference = $353 - 202 = 151$.
Q2 mcq 2 marks
Match List - I with List - II : $$\begin{array}{ll}\hline \textbf{List - I} & \textbf{List - II} \\\hline \text{A. Mann Whitney} & \text{I. Product Moment method of correlation} \\ \text{B. Kendall} & \text{II. Test of homogeneity of variances} \\ \text{C. Bartlett} & \text{III. U Test} \\ \text{D. Karl Pearson} & \text{IV. Tau Test} \\\hline\end{array}$$ Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a.
A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
b.
A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
c.
A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I Correct Answer
d.
A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
- Mann-Whitney test is the U Test (A-III). - Kendall is associated with the Tau correlation coefficient (B-IV). - Bartlett's test is for the homogeneity of variances (C-II). - Karl Pearson developed the product-moment correlation coefficient (D-I).
Q3 mcq 2 marks
Match List - I with List - II : $$\begin{array}{ll}\hline \textbf{List - I (Four Independent Verticals of HECI)} & \textbf{List - II (Major Function)} \\\hline \text{A. HEGC} & \text{I. Frame graduate attributes} \\ \text{B. GEC} & \text{II. Common Single Point Regulator} \\ \text{C. NAC} & \text{III. Funding and Financing of Higher Education} \\ \text{D. NHERC} & \text{IV. Accreditation of Institutions} \\\hline\end{array}$$ Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a.
A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
b.
A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
c.
A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
d.
A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II Correct Answer
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
According to NEP 2020, HECI will have four independent verticals: - HEGC (Higher Education Grants Council): Funding and financing (A-III) - GEC (General Education Council): Framing graduate attributes / learning outcomes (B-I) - NAC (National Accreditation Council): Accreditation of institutions (C-IV) - NHERC (National Higher Education Regulatory Council): Common single point regulator (D-II).
Q4 mcq 2 marks
Match List - I with List - II : $$\begin{array}{ll}\hline \textbf{List - I} & \textbf{List - II} \\\hline \text{A. Public Communication} & \text{I. Communicating with oneself} \\ \text{B. Group Communication} & \text{II. face to face Communication with another person} \\ \text{C. Intrapersonal Communication} & \text{III. when many people participate in communication with each other} \\ \text{D. Interpersonal Communication} & \text{IV. one person speaking to a large number of people} \\\hline\end{array}$$ Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a.
A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
b.
A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II Correct Answer
c.
A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
d.
A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
- Public Communication: One person addressing a large audience (A-IV) - Group Communication: Multiple people interacting with one another (B-III) - Intrapersonal Communication: Communicating with oneself (C-I) - Interpersonal Communication: Face-to-face interaction between persons (D-II).
Q5 mcq 2 marks
Match List - I with List - II : $$\begin{array}{ll}\hline \textbf{List - I} & \textbf{List - II} \\\hline \text{A. } (343)^{1/3} - (81)^{1/4} \text{ is equal to } \underline{\quad\quad} & \text{I. } \frac{1}{100} \\ \text{B. If } 2^8 \times 4^3 \times 8^3 = 2^x \text{ the } x \text{ is equal to} & \text{II. } 200 \\ \text{C. } \frac{(1.01)^2 - (1)^2}{(1.01 + 1)} \text{ is equal to } \underline{\quad\quad} & \text{III. } 4 \\ \text{D. A train moving with speed of } 90\text{ km/hour crosses a platform of length } 100\text{ m in } 12\text{ second. The length (m) of the train is } \underline{\quad\quad} & \text{IV. } 23 \\\hline\end{array}$$ Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a.
A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II Correct Answer
b.
A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
c.
A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
d.
A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
- A: $7 - 3 = 4$ (A-III) - B: $2^8 \times 2^6 \times 2^9 = 2^{23} \implies x = 23$ (B-IV) - C: $\frac{(1.01-1)(1.01+1)}{(1.01+1)} = 0.01 = \frac{1}{100}$ (C-I) - D: Total distance $= 90 \times \frac{5}{18} \times 12 = 25 \times 12 = 300\text{ m}$. Length of train $= 300 - 100 = 200\text{ m}$ (D-II).
Q6 mcq 2 marks
Match List - I with List - II : $$\begin{array}{ll}\hline \textbf{List - I} & \textbf{List - II} \\\hline \text{A. Ad hominem} & \text{I. Mistaking correlation for causation} \\ \text{B. Straw man} & \text{II. Attacking the person instead of issue} \\ \text{C. False cause} & \text{III. Misrepresenting someone's argument} \\ \text{D. Red Herring} & \text{IV. Diverting attention to another issue} \\\hline\end{array}$$ Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a.
A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
b.
A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV Correct Answer
c.
A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
d.
A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
- Ad hominem: Attacking the person instead of the argument (A-II) - Straw man: Misrepresenting/oversimplifying opponent's argument (B-III) - False cause: Confusing correlation with causation (C-I) - Red Herring: Diverting attention from the real issue (D-IV).
Q7 mcq 2 marks
Match List - I with List - II : $$\begin{array}{ll}\hline \textbf{List - I (Mental approaches)} & \textbf{List - II (Objectives related with)} \\\hline \text{A. Recall} & \text{I. Understanding} \\ \text{B. Discrimination} & \text{II. Knowledge} \\ \text{C. Hypothesis establishment} & \text{III. Creativity} \\ \text{D. Evaluation} & \text{IV. Application} \\\hline\end{array}$$ Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a.
A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
b.
A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III Correct Answer
c.
A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
d.
A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
- Recall relates to Knowledge (A-II) - Discrimination/Differentiation relates to Understanding (B-I) - Hypothesis establishment relates to Application/Scientific process (C-IV) - Evaluation/Synthesis relates to Higher order/Creativity (D-III).
Q8 mcq 2 marks
Match List - I with List - II : $$\begin{array}{ll}\hline \textbf{List - I (Type of Processor)} & \textbf{List - II (Characteristics)} \\\hline \text{A. CISC Processors} & \text{I. Operating system controls overall assignment of tasks} \\ \text{B. RISC Processors} & \text{II. Use explicit parallelism} \\ \text{C. EPIC Processors} & \text{III. These possess so many processing features, making the job of machine language programmers easier} \\ \text{D. Multicore Processors} & \text{IV. Have a small instruction set} \\\hline\end{array}$$ Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a.
A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
b.
A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I Correct Answer
c.
A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
d.
A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
- CISC (Complex Instruction Set Computer) has rich instructions simplifying assembly/machine programming (A-III). - RISC (Reduced Instruction Set Computer) uses a small instruction set (B-IV). - EPIC (Explicitly Parallel Instruction Computing) uses explicit parallelism (C-II). - Multicore Processors rely on the OS to schedule/assign tasks across cores (D-I).
Q9 mcq 2 marks
Match List - I with List - II : $$\begin{array}{ll}\hline \textbf{List - I (Waste Disposal Method)} & \textbf{List - II (Characteristics)} \\\hline \text{A. Modern Landfilling} & \text{I. Reduced waste volume} \\ \text{B. Open land dumping} & \text{II. Well engineered and managed facility} \\ \text{C. Incineration} & \text{III. Ecofriendly process} \\ \text{D. Bioconversion into compost} & \text{IV. Low cost of dumping} \\\hline\end{array}$$ Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a.
A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
b.
A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
c.
A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III Correct Answer
d.
A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
- Modern Landfilling: Well-engineered and managed facility with liner systems (A-II) - Open land dumping: Low direct cost of dumping without safeguards (B-IV) - Incineration: Thermal combustion that significantly reduces waste volume (C-I) - Bioconversion into compost: Ecofriendly biological decomposition (D-III).
Q1 mcq 2 marks
Study the table given in the image and answer the question: What is the difference between total number of employees present in offices C and D together on Tuesday and total number of employees present in offices A and E together on Thursday ?
Question 10 image
a.
147
b.
271
c.
151 Correct Answer
d.
171
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Total number of employees present in offices C and D together on Tuesday $= 164 + 189 = 353$. Total number of employees present in offices A and E together on Thursday $= 89 + 113 = 202$. Difference $= 353 - 202 = 151$.
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Q2 mcq 2 marks
Study the table given in the image and answer the question: What is the respective ratio between total number of employees present in office B on Wednesday and Thursday together and total number of employees present in office C on Monday and Friday together ?
Question 11 image
a.
11 : 13
b.
9 : 11
c.
7 : 9
d.
7 : 11
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Q3 mcq 2 marks
Study the table given in the image and answer the question: The number of employees present in office E on Monday is what precent more than the number of employees present in office C on Thursday ?
Question 12 image
a.
34.78%
b.
21.05%
c.
55.25%
d.
53.33%
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Q4 mcq 2 marks
Study the table given in the image and answer the question: What is the average number of employees present in office B on Monday, Tuesday and Friday ?
Question 13 image
a.
143
b.
159
c.
153
d.
173
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Q6 mcq 2 marks
In the experiment of determining better 'Yoga Exercise' out of two that can reduce the fat of urban people of different age groups, which of the following is an intervening variable ?
a.
Area
b.
Yoga Exercise
c.
Food habit
d.
Fat of the people
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Q7 mcq 2 marks
Arrange the following from higher level to lower level of scales of measurement involved in them : A. Researcher divides the sample in two groups based on area of residence like 'Urban' and 'Rural' Area. B. A student has got 50 marks out of 60 marks in English language test. C. A cricketer is given tenth rank as an allrounder. D. The height of a particular building is double than all other buildings in a street. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a.
D, C, B, A
b.
A, B, D, C
c.
C, B, A, D
d.
D, B, C, A
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Q8 mcq 2 marks
Which of the following factors affect the internal validity of an experimental research ? A. Placebo effect B. Instrument Decay C. Contemporary events D. Hawthorne effect E. Bias in selecting subjects in sample Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
a.
B, C and E Only
b.
B, C and D Only
c.
A, C and D Only
d.
C, D and E Only
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Q9 mcq 2 marks
Which of the following programmes/software can be used for quantitative data analysis ? A. MS WORD B. MS POWER POINT C. MS EXCEL D. MS ACCESS E. SPSS Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
a.
A, C, D and B Only
b.
A, D and E Only
c.
C, D and E Only
d.
B, D and E Only
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Q10 mcq 2 marks
Match List - I with List - II : List - I A. Mann Whiteny B. Kendall C. Bartlett D. Karl Pearson List - II I. Product Moment method of correlation II. Test of homogeneity of variances III. U Test IV. Tau Test Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a.
A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
b.
A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
c.
A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
d.
A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
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Q11 mcq 2 marks
Which of the following programmes of UGC is not related to promotion of value and ethical practices ?
a.
Jeevan Kaushal
b.
CARE
c.
Mulya Pravah
d.
National Resource Centre for Value Education (NRCVE)
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Q12 mcq 2 marks
For the purpose of systematically fostering the culture of innovation in all HEIs, when did ministry of Education establish 'Innovation Cell' ?
a.
2016
b.
2018
c.
2019
d.
2020
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Q13 mcq 2 marks
Arrange the following commissions/committees (in field of education) in chronological order : A. GNANAM Committee B. Kothari Commission C. National Knowledge Commission D. MUDALIAR Commission E. Yashpal Committe (Advice on Renovation and Rejuvenation of Higher Education) Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a.
D, A, C, E, B
b.
B, D, C, E, A
c.
B, D, A, C, E
d.
D, B, A, C, E
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Q14 mcq 2 marks
Which of the following institutions are among Top Ten institutions in the category of research institutions in India Ranking : 2024 released by NIRF ? A. Indian Institute of Technology, Delhi B. Tata Institute of Fundamental Research C. Indian Institute of Technology, Kanpur D. Indian Institute of Technology, Indore E. Indian Institute of Technology, Madras Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a.
A, C and D Only
b.
B, D and E Only
c.
B, C and D Only
d.
A, C and E Only
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Q15 mcq 2 marks
Match List - I with List - II : List - I (Four Independent Verticals of HECI) A. HEGC B. GEC C. NAC D. NHERC List - II (Major Function) I. Frame graduate attributes II. Common Single Point Regulator III. Funding and Financing of Higher Education IV. Accreditation of Institutions Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a.
A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
b.
A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
c.
A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
d.
A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
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Q16 mcq 2 marks
Which Model depicts communication as a process by which communicators send messages/feedback simultaneously to one another ?
a.
Socio-cultural
b.
Socio-psychological
c.
Interactional
d.
Transactional
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Q17 mcq 2 marks
Which one is not a type of communication modality ?
a.
Proxemics
b.
Heptics
c.
Chronotoxics
d.
Crestures
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Q18 mcq 2 marks
Arrange the following chronologically on the basis of their launch year : A. Swayamprabha B. Krishi darshan C. Gyandarshan D. PM_eVidya Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a.
C, A, B, D
b.
A, C, D, B
c.
B, C, A, D
d.
A, B, D, C
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Q19 mcq 2 marks
Which of the following are required to become a good listener ? A. Keep quite while listening B. Listen with negative attitude towards the speaker C. Show interest in the speaker D. Focus on the dress and appearance of the speaker E. Keep your mind open to every subject and speaker Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a.
A, B and C Only
b.
B, C and D Only
c.
A, C and E Only
d.
C, D and E Only
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Q20 mcq 2 marks
Match List - I with List - II : List - I A. Public Communication B. Group Communication C. Intrapersonal Communication D. Interpersonal Communication List - II I. Communicating with oneself II. face to face Communication with another person III. when many people participate in communication with each other IV. one person speaking to a large number of people Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a.
A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
b.
A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
c.
A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
d.
A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
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Q20 mcq 2 marks
Match List - I with List - II : | List - I | List - II | | :--- | :--- | | A. Public Communication | I. Communicating with oneself | | B. Group Communication | II. face to face Communication with another person | | C. Intrapersonal Communication | III. when many people participate in communication with each other | | D. Interpersonal Communication | IV. one person speaking to a large number of people | Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a.
A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
b.
A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
c.
A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
d.
A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
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Q21 mcq 2 marks
A boat takes an hour to cover a certain distance downstream in a river. It takes $1\frac{1}{2}$ hour to cover the same distance upstream. Assuming that the speed of boat is same in both downstream and upstream directions, what is the ratio of speed of boat to that of stream in the river ?
a.
2 : 3
b.
5 : 1
c.
3 : 2
d.
5 : 2
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Q22 mcq 2 marks
Two persons A and B finish a work in 10 days. A is twice as efficient than B. How many days A will take to finish the work, if he has to do it alone ?
a.
8 days
b.
12 days
c.
15 days
d.
18 days
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Q23 mcq 2 marks
Arrange the following in increasing order of their values : A. $(0.1)^3$ B. $\left(\frac{1}{100}\right)^{1/2}$ C. $(0.005)^{1/2}$ D. $(0.04)^{1/2}$ Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a.
A, C, D, B
b.
A, C, B, D
c.
D, B, C, A
d.
C, B, D, A
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Q24 mcq 2 marks
Identify the correct statements : A. $(216)^{1/3} > (169)^{1/2}$ B. The next term in the series 2, 7, 28, 63, 126, ....... is 217 C. The area of equilateral triangle of side 10 cm is $25\sqrt{3}$ D. The average of the following observations -2, -1, 0, +1, +2, +3 is $\frac{1}{2}$ Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a.
C and D Only
b.
B, C and D Only
c.
A and D Only
d.
A, C and D Only
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Q25 mcq 2 marks
Match List - I with List - II : | List - I | List - II | | :--- | :--- | | A. $(343)^{1/3} - (81)^{1/4}$ is equal to ______ | I. $\frac{1}{100}$ | | B. If $2^8 \times 4^3 \times 8^3 = 2^x$ the $x$ is equal to ______ | II. 200 | | C. $\frac{(1.01)^2 - (1)^2}{(1.01 + 1)}$ is equal to ______ | III. 4 | | D. A train moving with speed of 90 km/hour crosses a platform of length 100 m in 12 second. The length (m) of the train is ______ | IV. 23 | Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a.
A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
b.
A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
c.
A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
d.
A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
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Q26 mcq 2 marks
In a group of 40 people, 25 people speak Hindi and 20 people speak both Hindi and Urdu. All the people speak atleast one of the two languages. How many people speak Urdu ?
a.
65
b.
15
c.
45
d.
20
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Q27 mcq 2 marks
The fallacy where the conclusion does not logically follow from the premises is called :
a.
Adhominem
b.
Straw man
c.
Non-sequitur
d.
Red herring
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Q28 mcq 2 marks
Arrange the four noble truths of Buddhism in the chronological order : A. Nirodha B. Marga/Magga C. Dukha D. Samudaya Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a.
B, A, C, D
b.
C, D, A, B
c.
D, C, B, A
d.
A, C, B, D
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Q29 mcq 2 marks
Which of the following are valid deductive forms of reasoning ? A. Modus Ponens B. Modus Tollens C. Hypothetical syllogism D. Argument from analogy Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
a.
A and B Only
b.
A, B and C Only
c.
A, B and D Only
d.
C and D Only
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Q30 mcq 2 marks
Match List - I with List - II : | List - I | List - II | | :--- | :--- | | A. Ad hominem | I. Mistaking correlation for causation | | B. Straw man | II. Attacking the person instead of issue | | C. False cause | III. Misrepresenting someone's argument | | D. Red Herring | IV. Diverting attention to another issue | Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a.
A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
b.
A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
c.
A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
d.
A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
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Q31 mcq 2 marks
According to Bloom's CAP Classification of Educational Objectives, ___________ is an example of Psychomotor Domain.
a.
Organizing
b.
Application
c.
Manipulation
d.
Comprehension
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Q32 mcq 2 marks
'Verbal Association Learning' was proposed by :
a.
Melton
b.
Thorndike
c.
Cronbach
d.
Gagne
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Q33 mcq 2 marks
Arrange the important events according to the Erickson's Eight Stages of Psychosocial development sequentially : A. Toilet training B. Feeding C. Reflections and acceptance on one's life D. Love relation E. Peer relationships Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a.
A, C, B, D, E
b.
C, A, B, D, E
c.
B, A, E, D, C
d.
A, D, E, C, B
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Q34 mcq 2 marks
Some statements are given below. Mark the 'Right' combination : A. Teaching is included in learning - True B. Post active stage of teaching provides a corrective and remedial scope of teaching - False C. Teaching is included in learning - False D. Post active stage of teaching provides a corrective and remedial scope of teaching - True Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a.
A and D Only
b.
C and B Only
c.
A and B Only
d.
C and D Only
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Q35 mcq 2 marks
Match List - I with List - II : | List - I (Mental approaches) | List - II (Objectives related with) | | :--- | :--- | | A. Recall | I. Understanding | | B. Discrimination | II. Knowledge | | C. Hypothesis establishment | III. Creativity | | D. Evaluation | IV. Application | Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a.
A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
b.
A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
c.
A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
d.
A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
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Q36 mcq 2 marks
PSTN stands for :
a.
Public Service for Technical Networks
b.
Public Switched Telephone Network
c.
Public Satellite Television Network
d.
Public Safety Trademark Network
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Q37 mcq 2 marks
The decimal number equivalent to binary digit 110 is _________.
a.
4
b.
5
c.
6
d.
7
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Q38 mcq 2 marks
Choose the 'RIGHT' statements : A. CISCO is a Hockey manufacturer B. VLC is Visible Light Communication C. SDN is System of Digital Network D. HyperCat is an Open JSON based Catalog format E. SoC is Sequence of Choice Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a.
A and B Only
b.
B and C Only
c.
C and E Only
d.
B and D Only
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Q39 mcq 2 marks
Choose the 'RIGHT' statements : A. IoT term was first used by Ashton in context to supply chain management with RFID-tags B. Bluetooth 4.0 is working on the frequency range of 2.4 MHz C. Gyroscope is normally related to the motion sensors D. IPv6 is related to the coding of vaccines protocol E. GSM is global sequence of Mechanics Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a.
A and B Only
b.
D and E Only
c.
A and C Only
d.
B and D Only
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Q40 mcq 2 marks
Match List - I with List - II : | List - I (Type of Processor) | List - II (Characteristics) | | :--- | :--- | | A. CISC Processors | I. Operating system controls overall assignment of tasks | | B. RISC Processors | II. Use explicit parallelism | | C. EPIC Processors | III. These possess so many processing features, making the job of machine language programmers easier | | D. Multicore Processors | IV. Have a small instruction set | Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a.
A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
b.
A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
c.
A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
d.
A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
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Q41 mcq 2 marks
As per Noise Pollution (Regulation and control) Act (2000), the permissible noise level (Leq) during the day for silence zones is :
a.
55 dB(A)
b.
50 dB(A)
c.
45 dB(A)
d.
65 dB(A)
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Q42 mcq 2 marks
Which of the following pertains to Clean Development Mechanism (CDM) under Kyoto Protocol ?
a.
Getting Certified Emission Reductions (CER) credits for industrialised countries
b.
Reducing noise pollution
c.
Decreasing amount of chlorofloro carbons
d.
Maintaining ozone layer
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Q43 mcq 2 marks
Arrange the phases of modern approach to disaster management in order (from initial to final) : A. Recovery B. Preparedness C. Response D. Mitigation Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a.
C, B, A, D
b.
D, B, C, A
c.
A, B, C, D
d.
B, C, A, D
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Q44 mcq 2 marks
Choose the correct statements regarding environmental incidents from the following : A. Bhopal accident was due to methyl isocyanate B. Hiroshima and Nagasaki incident was due to radioactivity C. Bhuj incident occurred due to poison gas D. Fukushima nuclear power plant incident was due to earthquake E. Chernobyl accident in Soviet Union occurred due to volcano Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a.
A, B and C Only
b.
A, B and D Only
c.
A, C, and E Only
d.
C, D and E Only
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Q45 mcq 2 marks
Match List - I with List - II : List - I (Waste Disposal Method) A. Modern Landfilling B. Open land dumping C. Incineration D. Bioconversion into compost List - II (Characteristics) I. Reduced waste volume II. Well engineered and managed facility III. Ecofriendly process IV. Low cost of dumping Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a.
A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
b.
A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
c.
A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
d.
A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
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Q46 mcq 2 marks
Read the following passage and answer the question: "The first step is for us to realise that a city need not be a frustrater of life; it can be among other things, a mechanism for enhancing life, for producing possibilities of living which are not to be realized except through cities. But, for that to happen, deliberate and drastic planning is needed. Towns as much as animals, must have their systems of organs-those for transport and circulation are an obvious example. What we need now are organ systems for recreation, leisure, culture, community expression. This means abundance of open space, easy access to unspoilt nature, beauty in parks and in fine buildings, gymnasia and swimming baths and recreation grounds in plenty, central spaces for celebrations and demonstrations, halls for citizens' meetings, concert halls and theatres and cinemas that belong to the city. And the buildings must not be built anyhow or dumped down anywhere; both they and their grouping should mean something important to the people of the place." Cities can be made more worth-living if they :
a.
are vigorously planned to serve the needs of the people
b.
have only good transportation facility
c.
have many hospitals
d.
have only more cinemas and sources of entertainment
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Q47 mcq 2 marks
What could be the most suitable title for the passage ?
a.
Towns versus Animals
b.
The need for planned cities
c.
Modern cities : Benefits and Shortcomings
d.
How to develop a Global city
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Q48 mcq 2 marks
The word 'drastic' in the passage means :
a.
Radical
b.
Orderly
c.
Consistent
d.
Determined
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Q49 mcq 2 marks
The phrase 'Unspoilt Nature' is in the context of ________.
a.
Nature is not allowed to be a stumbling block in the human's progress
b.
Building cities with the system of organs like those of animals
c.
Free access to parks and open spaces
d.
Nature to retain its primitive condition
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Q50 mcq 2 marks
The antonym of the word 'frustrater' used in the passage is ________.
a.
Promoter
b.
Approver
c.
Admirer
d.
Downer
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Q51 mcq 2 marks
If $Q = f(K,L)$ is a homogeneous production function of degree one, which of the following satisfies Euler's theorem?
a.
$\left(\frac{\partial Q}{\partial K}\right) + \left(\frac{\partial Q}{\partial L}\right) = Q$
b.
$\left(\frac{\partial Q}{\partial K}\right)K + \left(\frac{\partial Q}{\partial L}\right)L = Q$
c.
$\left(\frac{\partial Q}{\partial K}\right)K + \left(\frac{\partial Q}{\partial L}\right)L > 1$
d.
$\left(\frac{\partial Q}{\partial K}\right) + \left(\frac{\partial Q}{\partial L}\right) = 1$
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Q52 mcq 2 marks
If the income effect is in the opposite direction as the substitution effect, but the substitution effect dominates, then the good is ________.
a.
Normal
b.
Inferior but not giffen
c.
Giffen
d.
There is not enough information to answer
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Q53 mcq 2 marks
If both input and output markets are competitive and firms are profit maximizing, then in equilibrium each factor of production earns:
a.
An amount equal to the price of output times total output.
b.
The amount allocated by political process
c.
An equal share of output.
d.
The value of its marginal product.
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Q54 mcq 2 marks
Which of the following game does not have any Nash Equilibrium?
a.
BoS Game
b.
Stag Hunt Game
c.
Matching Pennies Game
d.
Prisoner's Dilemma
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Q55 mcq 2 marks
In the context of classical economics, an increase in money supply causes.
a.
A shift in aggregate demand curve to the left
b.
A shift in aggregate demand curve to the right
c.
A shift in aggregate supply curve to the right
d.
No change in aggregate demand and aggregate supply, only price increases
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Q56 mcq 2 marks
If the value of Keynesian investment multiplier is 4, which one of the following will be the corresponding saving function?
a.
$S = -4 + 0.4Y_D$
b.
$S = -10 + 0.75Y_D$
c.
$S = -12 + 0.25Y_D$
d.
$S = -6 + 0.35Y_D$
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Q57 mcq 2 marks
Which of the following causes a positive output gap, where, $\text{output gap} = \text{Actual output} - \text{Potential output}$?
a.
Population growth
b.
Technological progress
c.
Overemployment of factors of production
d.
Under utilization of resources
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Q58 mcq 2 marks
In the context of IS-LM model, a higher marginal propensity to spend results in :
a.
A flatter aggregate demand curve and consequently a steeper IS curve
b.
A steeper aggregate demand curve and consequently a flatter IS curve
c.
Increase in aggregate demand and a rightward shift of the IS curve
d.
Increase in demand for real balances
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Q59 mcq 2 marks
Bootstrapping technique is use to __________.
a.
Tests for specification bias
b.
Obtain the sampling distribution of parameters of interest
c.
Test for autocorrelation
d.
Test for normality of error term
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Q60 mcq 2 marks
According to Granger and Newbold, a good rule of thumb to suspect that the estimated regression is spurious is given by :
a.
High $R^2$ with low t-value ($R^2 > t$)
b.
High t values with low Durbin-Watson d value ($t > d$)
c.
High $R^2$ and low Durbin-Watson d value ($R^2 > d$)
d.
High $R^2$ and low F value ($R^2 > F$)
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Q61 mcq 2 marks
The indirect least square is applied to estimate the coefficient of the :
a.
Structural equation
b.
Over identified equation
c.
Reduced form equation
d.
Under identified equation
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Q62 mcq 2 marks
The management of a manufacturing firm wishes to determine the average time required to complete a certain manual operation. There should be 0.95 confidence that error in the estimate will not exceed 2 minutes. What sample size is estimated by a time and motion study expert as 16 minutes?
a.
96
b.
300
c.
255
d.
246
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Q63 mcq 2 marks
If $x$ is a poisson variate with mean $\lambda$, then $P(x+1)$ is :
a.
$\frac{\lambda}{x+1}P(x)$
b.
$\frac{\lambda}{x}$
c.
$\frac{x+1}{\lambda}P(x)$
d.
$\frac{x}{\lambda}P(x)$
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Q64 mcq 2 marks
A candidate is selected for interview for three posts. For the first post, there are 3 candidates, for the second 4 candidates and for the third 2 candidates. What is the probability that the candidate is selected for at least one post ?
a.
$\frac{1}{4}$
b.
$\frac{1}{2}$
c.
$\frac{3}{4}$
d.
$\frac{1}{9}$
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Q65 mcq 2 marks
The data about the sales and advertisement expenditure of a firm is given below: $$\begin{matrix} & \text{Sales (In crore of Rs.)} & \text{Advertisement expenditure (In crore of Rs.)} \\ \text{Mean} & 40 & 6 \\ \text{Standard deviation} & 10 & 1.5 \end{matrix}$$ Coefficient of correlation $= r = 0.9$ Estimate the likely sales for the proposed advertisement of Rs. 10 crore of rupees.
a.
Rs. 60 crore
b.
Rs. 64 crore
c.
Rs. 70 crore
d.
Rs. 74 crore
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Q66 mcq 2 marks
If $\bar{x} = 32$, $\bar{y} = 38$, the regression coefficients $b_{xy} = -0.2337$, $b_{yx} = -0.6643$. Find the equation of the line of regression of $y$ on $x$.
a.
$y = -0.2337x + 40.8806$
b.
$y = -0.2337x - 40.8806$
c.
$y = -0.6643x - 59.2576$
d.
$y = -0.6643x + 59.2576$
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Q67 mcq 2 marks
If $U = 6x^2 + y^2$, and $4x - y = 1$. What is the value of U?
a.
$\frac{4}{15}$
b.
$\frac{3}{11}$
c.
$\frac{3}{16}$
d.
$\frac{4}{21}$
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Q68 mcq 2 marks
Integrate $\int \frac{x+3}{x+5} dx$.
a.
$\frac{x^2}{2} - 2\ln|x+5| + c$
b.
$\frac{x^2}{2} + 2\ln|x+5| + c$
c.
$x + 2\ln|x+5| + c$
d.
$x - 2\ln|x+5| + c$
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Q69 mcq 2 marks
Given $U = (x + 2)(y + 1)$ and $P_x = 4$ and $P_y = 6$ and budget $(B) = 130$. Find the optimum levels of purchase of $x^*$ and $y^*$.
a.
$x^* = 11,\; y^* = 16$
b.
$x^* = 15,\; y^* = 28$
c.
$x^* = 18,\; y^* = 8$
d.
$x^* = 16,\; y^* = 11$
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Q70 mcq 2 marks
If the demand law is: $P = \sqrt{9 - x}$ and the demand is fixed at $x_0 = 5$. Find the consumer's surplus.
a.
$\frac{8}{3}$
b.
$\frac{11}{15}$
c.
$\frac{8}{15}$
d.
$\frac{7}{3}$
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Q71 mcq 2 marks
Evaluate $\int_1^2 e^{-2x} \, dx$.
a.
$e^{-2} - e^{-4}$
b.
$-\frac{1}{2}(e^{-2} - e^{-4})$
c.
$\frac{1}{2}(e^{-2} - e^{-4})$
d.
$\frac{1}{2}(e^{-2} + e^{-4})$
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Q72 mcq 2 marks
Assume that the rate of investment is described by the function $I(t) = 12t^{1/3}$ and capital stock $k(0)=25$. Find the time path of capital stock $k$.
a.
$16t^{4/3} + 25$
b.
$9t^{4/3} + 25$
c.
$-9t^{4/3} + 25$
d.
$-16t^{4/3} + 25$
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Q73 mcq 2 marks
A company has examined its costs and revenue structure and has determined that C-total cost, R-the total revenue and X-the number of units produced are related as : $$C = 100 + 0.015X^2 \quad \text{and} \quad R = 3X$$ Find the product level X that will maximize profit for this company.
a.
120
b.
80
c.
150
d.
100
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Q74 mcq 2 marks
The Stolper-Samuelson theorem postulates that :
a.
An increase in the relative price of a commodity raises the earnings of the factor used intensively in the production of the commodity.
b.
An increase in the relative price of a commodity decreases the earnings of the factor used intensively in the production of the commodity.
c.
An increase in the relative price of a commodity raises the earnings of the factor used scarcely in the production of the commodity.
d.
A decrease in the relative price of a commodity raises the earnings of the factor used intensively in the production of the commodity.
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Q75 mcq 2 marks
Which of the following correctly state the formula to compute the rate of effective protection? Where, $g=$ the rate of effective protection to producers of final commodities, $t=$ the nominal tariff rate on consumers of the final commodity, $t_i=$ the nominal tariff rate on the imported input and $a_i=$ the ratio of the cost of the imported input to the price of the final commodity in the absence of tariffs.
a.
$g = \frac{t - a_i t_i}{1 - a_i}$
b.
$g = \frac{t + a_i t_i}{1 - a_i}$
c.
$g = \frac{t - a_i t_i}{1 + a_i}$
d.
$g = \frac{t + a_i t_i}{1 + a_i}$
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Q76 mcq 2 marks
In the product cycle model of International trade, in which stage the imitating country starts underselling the innovating country in third markets?
a.
Stage-II
b.
Stage-III
c.
Stage-IV
d.
Stage-V
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Q77 mcq 2 marks
The null hypothesis that all slope coefficients are simultaneously equal to zero is tested in logit model by :
a.
F-test
b.
t-test
c.
Chi-square test
d.
Likelihood ratio statistics
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Q78 mcq 2 marks
Which of the following is not true according to classical's views on public debt?
a.
Public debt financing requires funds for interest payment and amortization, hence a double burden on tax payers.
b.
Public debt financing supports compensatory budget policy as a tool for stimulating aggregate demand.
c.
Public debt creates barren production and consumption and burden is transferred to future generation.
d.
Public debt destroys capital which otherwise could be used productively
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Q79 mcq 2 marks
Which of the followings is not true ?
a.
The effect of any tax can be decomposed into an income effect and substitution effect.
b.
There is a substitution effect associated with a lump-sum tax, but no income effect.
c.
The greater the substitution effect, the greater is the deadweight loss.
d.
There is also a deadweight loss associate with the reduction in prices received by producers as a result of imposition of tax.
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Q80 mcq 2 marks
Which of the followings is true in case of a good i.e., "Crowded City side Walk"?
a.
It is non-excludable and non-rivalry in nature.
b.
It is excludable but non-rivalry in nature.
c.
It is non-excludable but rivalry in nature.
d.
It is excludable and rivalry in nature.
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Q81 mcq 2 marks
If the marginal propensity to consume is 0.8 and initial increase in tax revenues by the government is Rs. 100, then the impact on national income would be:
a.
National Income will increase by Rs. 100
b.
National Income will increase by Rs. 500
c.
National Income will decrease by Rs. 400
d.
National Income will decrease by Rs. 100
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Q82 mcq 2 marks
In which of the following year, the mandate/preamble of RBI has been amended?
a.
2019
b.
2024
c.
2016
d.
2007
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Q83 mcq 2 marks
Which of the following is likely to lead to a rise in the output cost of disinflation?
a.
Inflation expectations become more accurate.
b.
Sluggish response of wages and prices to monetary contraction.
c.
Gradual policy response.
d.
Rational expectations.
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Q84 mcq 2 marks
According to Lucas Critique.
a.
It assumes monetary policy not to be neutral with respect to real variables.
b.
Drifting coefficients can make macro econometric models more reliable.
c.
Keynesian models correctly consider the impact of policies on future expectations.
d.
The stability of coefficients of models are important for policy predictions.
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Q85 mcq 2 marks
According to neoclassical growth theory, an increase in saving rate.
a.
Raises the growth rate of output in the short run.
b.
Increases long run growth rate of output.
c.
Deceases the steady-state capital-labor ratio.
d.
Decreases the long-run level of capital and output per head.
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Q86 mcq 2 marks
The idea of constructing poverty-weighted indices of growth is.
a.
To give at least equal weight to all income groups in society.
b.
To achieve high growth rate.
c.
To facilitate foreign trade on equal basis.
d.
To assign more value or weight on income group of richest population and no weight on lower-income group.
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Q87 mcq 2 marks
Which of the following is not correct about Harrod-Domar model of economic growth?
a.
The natural rate of growth is made up of growth of labor force and labor productivity.
b.
If actual growth (g) is greater than warranted rate of growth ($g_w$), g can continue to diverge from $g_w$ only until it hits natural growth rate ($g_n$).
c.
g can be greater than $g_n$ in the long-run.
d.
Full employment of labor and capital require $g=g_w=g_n$
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Q88 mcq 2 marks
Which of the following statements best define property rights?
a.
Property rights refer only to government ownership of land and capital.
b.
Property rights are informal social rules that cannot be enforced by law.
c.
Property rights are the legally enforced rights to determine how a resource is used, owned and transferred.
d.
Property rights prevent individuals from profiting from private property.
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Q89 mcq 2 marks
Lexicographic preference violates which of the following axioms of utility theory?
a.
Transitivity Axiom
b.
Convexity Axiom
c.
Continuity Axiom
d.
Independence Axiom
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Q90 mcq 2 marks
Which of the following is the operating target of monetary policy conducted by RBI?
a.
Repo rate
b.
Reverse Repo rate
c.
Weighted Average Call Money rate
d.
Marginal Standing Facility rate
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Q91 mcq 2 marks
Arrange the following crisis in chronological order (starting from oldest). A. OPEC Oil Crisis B. International Debt Crisis C. East Asian Financial Crisis D. Argentinian Economic Crisis E. Eurozone Crisis Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a.
A, B, C, D, E
b.
A, B, C, E, D
c.
A, B, E, C, D
d.
A, E, B, C, D
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Q92 mcq 2 marks
Arrange the following rounds in chronological order (starting from oldest). A. Millennium Round of Trade negotiations B. Doha Round C. Uruguay Round D. Kennedy Round E. Tokyo Round Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a.
D, E, C, B, A
b.
D, E, B, C, A
c.
D, B, E, C, A
d.
D, E, C, A, B
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Q93 mcq 2 marks
Arrange the following tax reform committees on the basis of their year of constitution starting from the oldest. A. Raja Chelliah tax reform committee B. T. R. Rastogi Committee on Service tax reforms C. Vijay Kelkar committee on tax reforms D. Parthasarathi Shome committee on direct tax E. K. L. Rekhi committee on indirect tax Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a.
A, E, C, B, D
b.
E, A, C, B, D
c.
A, E, D, C, B
d.
D, E, A, C, B
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Q94 mcq 2 marks
Arrange the following Chairman of Finance Commission in order of their appointment starting from the oldest. A. A. M. Khusro B. C. Rangarajan C. N. K. P. Salve D. K. Bramhananda Reddy E. K.C. Pant Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a.
A, C, E, D, B
b.
C, E, A, D, B
c.
B, D, E, C, A
d.
D, C, E, A, B
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Q95 mcq 2 marks
Arrange the following items on the basis of the expenditure allocation made in the union budget 2025-26 in descending order. A. Agriculture and Allied activities B. Education C. Defense D. Commerce and Industry E. Rural Development Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a.
E, C, A, D, B
b.
C, E, A, B, D
c.
C, A, E, D, B
d.
A, E, C, B, D
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Q96 mcq 2 marks
Arrange the following derivative markets in India in chronological order (starting from oldest to latest). A. Commencement of trading in options on individual securities B. Introduction of interest rate futures C. Commencement of trading in Stock Futures D. Introduction of Futures trading based on the Index E. Commencement of trading in Index options Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a.
D, C, E, A, B
b.
D, E, A, C, B
c.
D, A, E, B, C
d.
D, C, E, B, A
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Q97 mcq 2 marks
Arrange the following works of J. M. Keynes in chronological order (Starting from the oldest to latest). A. A Treatise on Money B. General Theory of Employment, Interest and Money C. Indian Currency and Finance D. A Monetary Theory of Production E. A Tract on Monetary Reform Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a.
E, C, A, D, B
b.
C, E, A, D, B
c.
C, E, A, B, D
d.
A, C, E, B, D
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Q98 mcq 2 marks
Arrange the following rates in ascending order, as decided in 54th meeting of monetary policy committee of RBI. A. Marginal Standing Facility Rate B. Standing Deposit Facility Rate C. CRR D. Reverse Repo Rate E. Repo Rate Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a.
C, D, A, B, E
b.
B, C, D, A, E
c.
D, C, B, E, A
d.
C, D, E, B, A
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Q99 mcq 2 marks
Arrange the following publications in chronological order starting from the oldest to the latest. A. "Theory of Economic Growth" by Arthur Lewis B. "A Contribution to the Theory of Economic Growth" by Robert Solow C. "The Stages of Economic Growth: A Non Communist Manifesto" by Walt Rostow D. "Asian Drama: An Inquiry into the Poverty of Nations" by Gunnar Myrdal E. "Strategy of Economic Development" by Albert Hirschman Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a.
A, E, B, C, D
b.
E, B, C, D, A
c.
C, D, B, E, A
d.
A, B, E, C, D
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Q100 mcq 2 marks
Arrange the following environmental conventions/summits in sequence starting from the oldest. A. Kyoto Protocol B. Minamata Convention C. Stockholm Convention D. UN-REDD E. Rio Summit Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a.
E, A, C, D, B
b.
E, C, A, B, D
c.
C, E, A, D, B
d.
A, B, C, D, E
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Q101 mcq 2 marks
Arrange the following union government deficits as percentage of GDP for the year 2023-24 in ascending order as per union budget 2025-26. A. Fiscal deficit B. Effective Revenue deficit C. Primary deficit D. Current Account deficit E. Revenue deficit Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a.
D, B, A, C, E
b.
D, A, B, C, E
c.
D, B, C, E, A
d.
D, C, B, E, A
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Q102 mcq 2 marks
Arrange the following countries based on the market capitalization to nominal GDP ratio at the end of December 2024 in ascending order (as per the Economic Survey 2024-25). A. U.K. B. India C. China D. Brazil E. Japan Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a.
B, A, C, E, D
b.
C, D, B, A, E
c.
D, C, A, B, E
d.
A, B, D, C, E
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Q103 mcq 2 marks
Arrange the following sectors in descending order as per their share in total FDI in India in H1 FY 2025 as per the Economic Survey 2024-25. A. Automobile Industry B. Hospital and Diagnostic Centers C. Cement and Gypsum Products D. Computer Software and Hardware E. Non-conventional Energy Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a.
D, E, C, A, B
b.
D, C, E, B, A
c.
E, B, A, D, C
d.
E, D, C, B, A
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Q104 mcq 2 marks
Arrange the following countries in descending order based on their current account balance as a percent of GDP in the period Q2 FY 25 as per the Economic Survey 2024-25. A. India B. Russia C. China D. U. K. E. South Africa Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a.
D, A, B, C, E
b.
B, C, A, D, E
c.
C, B, A, E, D
d.
A, C, E, B, D
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Q105 mcq 2 marks
Arrange the expenditure allocation to following items, as % of total union government expenditure as per the union budget 2025-26 in ascending order. A. Finance Commission and Other Transfers B. Interest Payment C. Pensions D. Major Subsidies E. Central Sector Schemes (excluding capital outlay on defense and subsidies) Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a.
A, D, E, C, B
b.
C, D, A, E, B
c.
E, C, D, A, B
d.
C, D, E, B, A
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Q118 mcq 2 marks
Which of the following are true about the New Classical approach? A. The main protagonist was R.E. Lucas Jr. B. It is based on adaptive expectation. C. It was developed during 1950s. D. Complete wage and price flexibility. E. Difference between actual and expected price is a random error. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
a.
A, B & E Only
b.
A, D & E Only
c.
B, C, D & E Only
d.
A, B & D Only
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Q119 mcq 2 marks
Which of following are not an assumptions of policy ineffectiveness propositions? A. Rational expectation B. Policy changes are not anticipated C. Economic agents have full information D. Nominal variables influence economic decision E. Output and employment are at their natural level Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
a.
B & D Only
b.
A, C & D Only
c.
A, B, D & E Only
d.
C, D & E Only
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Q121 mcq 2 marks
According to Rostow, any industry can play the role of leading sector in the take-off stage provided following conditions are met: A. The market for the product is expanding rapidly B. The leading sector generates secondary expansion C. The sector has an adequate and continual supply of capital from ploughed-back profits. D. Introduction of new techniques into the sector to increase productivity E. Changes in industrial structure should be structural ones Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
a.
B, C, D & E Only
b.
A, D & E Only
c.
A, C & D Only
d.
A, B, C & D Only
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Q122 mcq 2 marks
Which of the followings statements correctly describe the concept of efficiency in environmental economics? A. All allocation is pareto efficient if no one can be made better off without making someone else worse off. B. Efficiency ensures a fair and equitable distribution of resources among all individuals. C. Market allocations are efficient only in the absence of market failures such as externalities. D. Efficiency is a normative concept concerned with what should be done based on societal value. E. Environmental policies that internalize externalities can improve efficiency. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
a.
A, B & D Only
b.
A, B & E Only
c.
A, C & E Only
d.
B, C & D Only
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Q123 mcq 2 marks
According to Coase theorem, which of the following are possible outcomes of assigning property rights? A. The polluter pays the victim to continue polluting. B. The victim pays the polluter to reduce pollution. C. The government must set pollution taxes to ensure efficiency. D. Market outcomes can achieve efficiency even if externalities exist. E. The polluter and victim always have equal bargaining power. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
a.
A, B & C Only
b.
A, B & D Only
c.
B, C & D Only
d.
C, D & E Only
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Q124 mcq 2 marks
Which of the following are correct about the revised criteria of MSMEs effective from 01 April 2025 as per union budget 2025-26? A. An enterprise is classified as micro enterprise if investment in plant and machinery does not exceed Rs. 2.5 crore. B. A medium enterprise is one whose turnover does not exceed Rs. 50 crore. C. A small enterprise has investment limit up to Rs. 10 crore D. A micro enterprise is one whose turnover is up to Rs. 10 crore. E. A small enterprise has turnover limit up to Rs. 100 crore. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
a.
B, C & D Only
b.
A, D & E Only
c.
A, B & E Only
d.
C, D & E Only
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Q125 mcq 2 marks
Which of the following are correct about the foreign trade policy (FTP) 2023 of India? A. India's FTP 2023 promotes cross border trade in digital economy. B. FTP 2023 emphasized on creation of E-commerce export hubs (ECEH). C. It prohibits export and import of arms and related material from /to Iraq. D. It prohibits import of charcoal from Somalia. E. It emphasizes strengthening trade with Democratic People's Republic of Korea in combat aircraft, missiles and arms related materials. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
a.
A, D & E Only
b.
D & E Only
c.
A, B & C Only
d.
A, B, C & D Only
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Q126 mcq 2 marks
Match List-I with List-II : List-I A. Playing each strategy with probability B. Maximum payoff given the strategy of other C. Long-run behavior D. Period of punishment is infinite List-II I. Nash equilibrium II. Grim trigger strategy III. Best response function IV. Mixed strategy Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a.
A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
b.
A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
c.
A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
d.
A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
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Q126 mcq 2 marks
Match List-I with List-II : | List-I | List-II | | :--- | :--- | | A. Playing each strategy with probability | I. Nash equilibrium | | B. Maximum payoff given the strategy of other | II. Grim trigger strategy | | C. Long-run behavior | III. Best response function | | D. Period of punishment is infinite | IV. Mixed strategy | Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a.
A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
b.
A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
c.
A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
d.
A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
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Q127 mcq 2 marks
Match List-I with List-II : | List-I | List-II | | :--- | :--- | | A. Income elasticity greater than one | I. Substitute goods | | B. Positive cross price elasticity | II. Inferior goods | | C. Downward sloping price consumption curve (PCC) | III. Luxurious goods | | D. Negative income effect | IV. Relative elastic demand | Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a.
A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
b.
A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
c.
A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
d.
A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
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Q128 mcq 2 marks
Match List-I with List-II : | List-I (Concepts) | List-II (Given by) | | :--- | :--- | | A. Paradox of thrift | I. K. Boulding | | B. Water-Diamond paradox | II. A.C. Pigou | | C. Wage employment paradox | III. J.M. Keynes | | D. Macroeconomic paradox | IV. Adam Smith | Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a.
A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
b.
A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
c.
A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
d.
A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
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Q129 mcq 2 marks
Match List-I with List-II : | List-I | List-II | | :--- | :--- | | A. $\beta_2$ for Chi-square distribution | I. $(n-2)$ | | B. Skewness for Chi-square distribution | II. $48n+12n^2$ | | C. Mode for Chi-square distribution | III. $(12/n)+3$ | | D. $\mu_3$ for Chi-square distribution | IV. $\sqrt{2/n}$ | Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a.
A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
b.
A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
c.
A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
d.
A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
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Q130 mcq 2 marks
Match List-I with List-II : | List-I | List-II | | :--- | :--- | | A. The mean of a Hypergeometric distribution | I. $\frac{q}{p^2}$ | | B. The moment generating function of negative binomial distribution | II. $(Q - P e^t)^{-r}$ | | C. The coefficient of Kurtosis of a binomial distribution | III. $\frac{nM}{N}$ | | D. The variance of geometric distribution | IV. $\frac{1-6pq}{npq}$ | Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a.
A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
b.
A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
c.
A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
d.
A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
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Q131 mcq 2 marks
Match List-I with List-II : | List-I | List-II | | :--- | :--- | | A. $\int_0^{\infty} \frac{1}{1+x^2} dx$ | I. does not exist | | B. $\int_1^{\infty} \frac{1}{\sqrt{x}} dx$ | II. $1/3$ | | C. $\int_{-\infty}^{-1} \frac{1}{x^4} dx$ | III. $\pi/2$ | | D. $\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} \frac{1}{1+x^2} dx$ | IV. $\pi$ | Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a.
A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
b.
A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
c.
A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
d.
A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
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Q132 mcq 2 marks
Match List-I with List-II : | List-I | List-II | | :--- | :--- | | A. Specific factors model | I. Prebisch-Singer hypothesis | | B. Immiserizing growth | II. Thomas Mun | | C. Mercantilism theory of international trade | III. Jagdish Bhagwati | | D. Secular deterioration of terms of trade | IV. Paul Samuelson and Ronald Jones | Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a.
A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
b.
A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
c.
A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
d.
A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
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Q132 mcq 2 marks
Match List - I with List - II : $$\begin{array}{|l|l|l|l|} \hline & \textbf{List - I} & & \textbf{List - II} \\ \hline \text{A.} & \text{Specific factors model} & \text{I.} & \text{Prebisch-Singer hypothesis} \\ \text{B.} & \text{Immiserizing growth} & \text{II.} & \text{Thomas Mun} \\ \text{C.} & \text{Mercantilism theory of international trade} & \text{III.} & \text{Jagdish Bhagwati} \\ \text{D.} & \text{Secular deterioration of terms of trade} & \text{IV.} & \text{Paul Samuelson and Ronald Jones} \\ \hline \end{array}$$ Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a.
A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
b.
A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
c.
A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
d.
A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
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Q133 mcq 2 marks
Match List-I with List-II : | List-I | List-II | | :--- | :--- | | A. Income induced adjustment process of balance of payments | I. Paul Samuelson | | B. Absorption approach of BoPs | II. Keynes, J.M. | | C. Impossible trinity | III. Sidney S. Alexander | | D. Factor price equalization theorem | IV. Mundell-Fleming | Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a.
A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
b.
A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
c.
A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
d.
A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
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Q133 mcq 2 marks
Match List - I with List - II : $$\begin{array}{|l|l|l|l|} \hline & \textbf{List - I} & & \textbf{List - II} \\ \hline \text{A.} & \text{Income induced adjustment process of balance of payments} & \text{I.} & \text{Paul Samuelson} \\ \text{B.} & \text{Absorption approach of BoPs} & \text{II.} & \text{Keynes, J.M.} \\ \text{C.} & \text{Impossible trinity} & \text{III.} & \text{Sidney S. Alexander} \\ \text{D.} & \text{Factor price equalization theorem} & \text{IV.} & \text{Mundell-Fleming} \\ \hline \end{array}$$ Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a.
A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
b.
A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
c.
A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
d.
A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
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Q134 mcq 2 marks
Match List - I with List - II : $$\begin{array}{|l|l|l|l|} \hline & \textbf{List - I (Criteria of } 15^{\text{th}} \textbf{ finance commission)} & & \textbf{List - II (Weights as per recommendation)} \\ \hline \text{A.} & \text{Income distance} & \text{I.} & 15\% \\ \text{B.} & \text{Population} & \text{II.} & 12.5\% \\ \text{C.} & \text{Demographic performance} & \text{III.} & 45\% \\ \text{D.} & \text{Forest and Ecology} & \text{IV.} & 10\% \\ \hline \end{array}$$ Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a.
A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
b.
A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
c.
A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
d.
A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
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Q135 mcq 2 marks
Match List-I with List-II : $$\begin{array}{|l|l|l|l|} \hline & \textbf{List-I (Items of receipts)} & & \textbf{List-II (Share to total receipt in \% as per union budget 2025-26)} \\ \hline \text{A.} & \text{Income tax} & \text{I.} & 4\% \\ \text{B.} & \text{Custom} & \text{II.} & 5\% \\ \text{C.} & \text{Corporation tax} & \text{III.} & 22\% \\ \text{D.} & \text{Union excise} & \text{IV.} & 17\% \\ \hline \end{array}$$ Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a.
A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
b.
A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
c.
A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
d.
A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
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Q136 mcq 2 marks
Match List-I with List-II : $$\begin{array}{|l|l|l|l|} \hline & \textbf{List-I (Monetary policy regime)} & & \textbf{List-II (Periods)} \\ \hline \text{A.} & \text{Fiscal dominance} & \text{I.} & 2016\text{ onwards} \\ \text{B.} & \text{Multiple indicator approach} & \text{II.} & 1951\text{--}1985 \\ \text{C.} & \text{Monetary targeting with feedbacks} & \text{III.} & 1998\text{--}2016 \\ \text{D.} & \text{Flexible inflation targeting} & \text{IV.} & 1985\text{--}1998 \\ \hline \end{array}$$ Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a.
A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
b.
A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
c.
A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
d.
A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
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Q137 mcq 2 marks
Match List-I with List-II : $$\begin{array}{|l|l|l|l|} \hline & \textbf{List-I (Concepts)} & & \textbf{List-II (their expression)} \\ \hline \text{A.} & \text{Kaldor's first law of growth} & \text{I.} & P_m = f(g_m), \; f' > 0 \\ \text{B.} & \text{Kaldor's second law of growth} & \text{II.} & y^* = -\epsilon (u - u^*) \\ \text{C.} & \text{Kaldor's third law of growth} & \text{III.} & g_{GDP} = f(g_m), \; f' > 0 \\ \text{D.} & \text{Okun's law} & \text{IV.} & P_{nm} = f(g_m), \; f' > 0 \\ \hline \end{array}$$ (where $g_m = \text{manufacturing output growth}$, $g_{GDP} = \text{GDP growth}$, $P_{nm} = \text{productivity outside manufacturing}$, $P_m = \text{Productivity in manufacturing}$) Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a.
A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
b.
A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
c.
A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
d.
A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
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Q138 mcq 2 marks
Match List-I with List-II : $$\begin{array}{|l|l|l|l|} \hline & \textbf{List-I} & & \textbf{List-II} \\ \hline \text{A.} & \text{Theory of population growth and resource limits} & \text{I.} & \text{Alfred Sauvy} \\ \text{B.} & \text{Demographic transition theory} & \text{II.} & \text{John Graunt} \\ \text{C.} & \text{Father of demography} & \text{III.} & \text{Warren Thompson} \\ \text{D.} & \text{Coined the term "third World"} & \text{IV.} & \text{Thomas Malthus} \\ \hline \end{array}$$ Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a.
A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
b.
A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
c.
A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
d.
A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
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Q139 mcq 2 marks
Match List-I with List-II : $$\begin{array}{|l|l|l|l|} \hline & \textbf{List-I} & & \textbf{List-II} \\ \hline \text{A.} & \text{Inverted "U" hypothesis} & \text{I.} & \text{Herman Daly} \\ \text{B.} & \text{Sustainable development} & \text{II.} & \text{Garrett Hardin} \\ \text{C.} & \text{Ecological Economics} & \text{III.} & \text{Simon Kuznets} \\ \text{D.} & \text{Tragedy of the commons} & \text{IV.} & \text{Gro Harlem Brundtland} \\ \hline \end{array}$$ Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a.
A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
b.
A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
c.
A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
d.
A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
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Q140 mcq 2 marks
Match List-I with List-II : $$\begin{array}{|l|l|l|l|} \hline & \textbf{List-I (renewable energy sources)} & & \textbf{List-II (\% of total energy production as on Nov 2024 as per Economic Survey 2024-25)} \\ \hline \text{A.} & \text{Solar energy} & \text{I.} & 10.50\% \\ \text{B.} & \text{Hydro energy} & \text{II.} & 20.60\% \\ \text{C.} & \text{Nuclear energy} & \text{III.} & 10.30\% \\ \text{D.} & \text{Wind energy} & \text{IV.} & 1.80\% \\ \hline \end{array}$$ Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a.
A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
b.
A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
c.
A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
d.
A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
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