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TNPSC · Physics, Chemistry, Biology, CS & Forensic Science

TNPSC Physics, Chemistry, Biology, CS & Forensic Science 2025

2025 · 200 questions · First 10 Solutions Free
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Q1 mcq
Crime scene photography involves: (i) Indoor and outdoor photography (ii) Micro and macro photography (iii) Scaled and labeled photography (iv) Normal lighting and oblique lighting
a.
(i), (ii), (iii) are correct and (iv) is not correct
b.
(i), (ii), (iv) are correct and (iii) is not correct
c.
(i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct Correct Answer
d.
(ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct and (i) is not correct

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Q2 mcq
The ability to establish the exact whereabouts of an item of evidence and under whose control it was from its collection to the court of law and everywhere in between is known as maintaining the
a.
Chain of command
b.
Continuity of investigation
c.
Chain of custody Correct Answer
d.
Business records circle

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Q3 mcq
Class characteristics of an evidence material collected from the scene of crime.
a.
Have little evidentiary value
b.
Are useful for including a suspect with a high degree of certainty
c.
Are useful for excluding a suspect Correct Answer
d.
(A) and (C)

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Q4 mcq
Which of the following is best suited for collection, preservation and transportation of blood stained clothing?
a.
Metal boxes
b.
Sealable plastic bags
c.
Paper bags Correct Answer
d.
Druggist fold

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Q5 mcq
Which of the following are individual characteristics? (a) A new automobile tyre impression (b) A fingerprint (c) A spent bullet cartridge from a rifled weapon (d) A mass produced synthetic fibre
a.
(b) and (c) Correct Answer
b.
(a) and (b)
c.
(c) and (d)
d.
(a) and (c)

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Q6 mcq
Arrange the following in sequential order in an explosive train: 1. Detonator 2. Igniter 3. Containment 4. Main charge
a.
1, 2, 3, 4
b.
2, 3, 4, 1
c.
2, 1, 3, 4
d.
2, 1, 4, 3 Correct Answer

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Q7 mcq
What is fire?
a.
Rapid oxidation similar to rusting process
b.
Flame that produces heat, smoke and light
c.
Rapid oxidation process with evolution of light and heat Correct Answer
d.
Slow reduction process with evolution of heat

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Q8 mcq
Tri Nitro Toluene (TNT) is a
a.
Low explosive
b.
High explosive Correct Answer
c.
Booster
d.
Detonator

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Q9 mcq
The most common evidence of an explosion is: (i) Fragmentation effects (ii) Blast pressure (iii) Thermal effects (iv) All of the above
a.
(i)
b.
(iv) Correct Answer
c.
(ii)
d.
(iii)

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Q10 mcq
The decomposition of solid organic matter by heat is called
a.
Oxidation
b.
Ignition
c.
Convection
d.
Pyrolysis Correct Answer

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Q11 mcq
Rifled slug is used in the cartridges of ________ type of firearm.
a.
Rifled
b.
Shotgun
c.
Stengun
d.
INSAS rifle
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Q12 mcq
Integrated Ballistic Identification System
a.
identifies the range of the projectile
b.
identifies the direction of the bullet
c.
identifies the firearm which fired
d.
compiles all ballistic data regarding flight of a bullet
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Q13 mcq
For recovery of serial marks marked by the manufacturer on a firearm, reagent used is: 1. Vinella's solution 2. Fry's reagent 3. Hume-Rothery solution 4. Scott reagent
a.
1, 2, 3 correct
b.
2, 3, 4 correct
c.
1, 3, 4 correct
d.
1, 2, 4 correct
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Q14 mcq
The quick firing of two bullets one after another is termed
a.
Sabot
b.
Explosive bullet
c.
Armour-piercing bullet
d.
Tandem bullet
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Q15 mcq
For tool mark examination, what is used to cast indentations with appreciable depth on metal or other surfaces?
a.
Plaster of Paris
b.
Wood's metal
c.
Plastic solutions
d.
Adhesive tape
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Q16 mcq
An acronym which provide suspects or investigative leads from computerized database for finger print is
a.
AAFS
b.
AFTE
c.
FPDB
d.
AFIS
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Q17 mcq
To determine gait pattern, how many consecutive foot or footwear marks are essential?
a.
Four
b.
Two
c.
Ten
d.
One
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Q18 mcq
Individualization of biological evidence from a crime scene is carried out in which of the following division?
a.
Forensic toxicology
b.
Forensic entomology
c.
Forensic DNA division
d.
Forensic serology
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Q19 mcq
In forensic science, the term identification refers to: (a) Placement of an inanimate object into its proper class (b) Individualization of an inanimate object (c) Establishing the identity of a person
a.
(a) only
b.
(a) and (c) only
c.
(a) and (b) only
d.
(b) only
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Q20 mcq
Forensic Science is
a.
Application of science to criminal justice system
b.
Application of physical sciences to the court of law
c.
Application of forest science to the court of law
d.
Study of crime scene
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Q21 mcq
According to cosmic panspermia theory proposed by Arrhenius, which of the following statements are true? (i) Life existed throughout the universe (ii) Spores etc. could freely travel through space from one planet to other (iii) Life was throw on the earth with falling meteorites (iv) Protoplasm reached the earth in the form of spores or germ
a.
(i) only
b.
(i) and (iii) only
c.
(i) and (ii) only
d.
(ii) and (iii) only
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Q22 mcq
In the lepidopteran insects, the Type I pheromones are synthesized in a gland located between the
a.
Eight and ninth abdominal segments of female moths
b.
Fifth and sixth abdominal segments of female moths
c.
Eight and ninth abdominal segments of male moths
d.
Fourth and fifth abdominal segments of female moths
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Q23 mcq
Juvenile hormone is released from
a.
Prothoracic gland
b.
Corpora allata
c.
Corpus luteum
d.
Corpora cardiaca
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Q24 mcq
In organisms which have DNA along with RNA, they use the RNA in carrying the orders of DNA, these are called
a.
Non-Genetic RNA
b.
tRNA
c.
Genetic RNA
d.
Non-Genetic-DNA
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Q25 mcq
The clover leaf model for yeast tRNA proposed by
a.
R. Holley (1968)
b.
R. Holley (1978)
c.
De Robertis (1975)
d.
Edmons (1971)
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Q26 mcq
If a fresh victim is found midafternoon and the insect analysis indicates that the eggs were laid on the body at around 8.00 a.m., that means the person has been dead since at least
a.
12.00 noon
b.
10.00 a.m.
c.
8.00 a.m.
d.
6.00 a.m.
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Q27 mcq
The commercially available software for forensic anthropologists is
a.
SCISPOT
b.
FORDISC
c.
LabLynx
d.
STARLIMS
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Q28 mcq
Match the common name of insects correctly with their binomial nomenclature: (a) Grasshopper - 3. Colemania sphenarioides (b) Black hairy caterpillar - 4. Estigmene lactinea (c) Pink stem borer - 1. Sesamia inferens (d) Beet armyworm - 2. Spodoptera exigua
a.
(a)-3, (b)-4, (c)-1, (d)-2
b.
(a)-2, (b)-4, (c)-1, (d)-3
c.
(a)-4, (b)-2, (c)-1, (d)-3
d.
(a)-1, (b)-4, (c)-3, (d)-2
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Q29 mcq
Among the following disease which one is caused by Borrelia burgdorferi?
a.
Ehrlichiosis
b.
Tick Paralysis
c.
Lyme Disease
d.
Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
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Q30 mcq
A valuable homogeneous substance secreted by hypopharyngeal glands of young worker honeybees called
a.
Honey
b.
Royal jelly
c.
Propolis
d.
Wax
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Q31 mcq
A marriage between a polydactylous man and normal woman reproduces three children: a polydactylous daughter, a polydactylous son and normal son (Gen II). If the polydactylous daughter marries a normal man, their children are expected to be:
a.
2 polydactylous and 2 normal
b.
1 polydactylous and 3 normal
c.
3 polydactylous and 1 normal
d.
4 polydactylous
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Q32 mcq
Many plants and animals, besides having autosomes and sex-chromosomes possess a special category of chromosomes called
a.
L-Chromosome
b.
B-Chromosome / Supernumerary chromosomes
c.
Lampbrush chromosome
d.
Polytene chromosome
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Q33 mcq
The X-chromosomes in mammalian female, one of which is active and remains euchromatic, whereas the other is inactive and forms a condensed body at interphase called
a.
Barr body
b.
Microchromosomes
c.
Heterochromatin
d.
Facultative heterochromatin
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Q34 mcq
Cat cry syndrome is due to loss of small part of
a.
Chromosome - 1
b.
Chromosome - 3
c.
Chromosome - 5
d.
Chromosome - 7
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Q35 mcq
A codon which undergoes an alteration to specify another amino acid is called
a.
Missense codon
b.
Triplet codon
c.
Stop codon
d.
Anti codon
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Q36 mcq
Assertion [A]: The decrease in number of white blood cells is called leucopenia. Reason [R]: Its common cause are bacterial infection.
a.
[A] is true, but [R] is false
b.
Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
c.
[A] is false, [R] is true
d.
Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]
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Q37 mcq
The junction between the terminal of a motor neurone and a muscle fibre is called
a.
Nerve impulses
b.
Neuromuscular junction
c.
Node of Ranvier
d.
Neuromuscular protein
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Q38 mcq
Which among the following is not grouped under Amniota?
a.
Mammalia
b.
Aves
c.
Reptilia
d.
Amphibia
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Q39 mcq
Match correctly the species of the same phylum: 1. Scorpion, Spider, Flies 2. Obelia, Hydra, Sycon 3. Planaria, Fasciola, Taenia 4. Nereis, Leech, Snail
a.
1 and 2 are correct
b.
1 and 3 are correct
c.
2 and 3 are correct
d.
2 and 4 are correct
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Q40 mcq
Contractile vacuole in protozoa is responsible for which function?
a.
Ingestion
b.
Locomotion
c.
Digestion
d.
Osmoregulation
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Q41 mcq
For effective radiation of waves from antenna, if the frequency of audio signal is 1000 hertz, the length of the antenna is
a.
300 kilometers / 75 km
b.
100 kilometers
c.
330 kilometers
d.
1000 kilometers
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Q42 mcq
The general voltage equation of a frequency modulated wave is (Wc $=$ frequency of carrier wave, Ws $=$ angular frequency of audio signal, mf $=$ modulation index):
a.
e $=$ Ec cos(Wc t + mf sin Ws t)
b.
e $=$ Ec cos(Wc $θ$ + mf sin Ws t)
c.
e $=$ Ec cos(Wc t - mf sin Ws t)
d.
e $=$ Ec cos(Ws t + mf sin Wc t)
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Q43 mcq
The frequency range of alpha band in Electroencephalogram (EEG) is
a.
Below 3.5 Hz
b.
From 3.5 Hz to 8 Hz
c.
From about 8 Hz to 13 Hz
d.
Above 13 Hz
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Q44 mcq
An ideal op-amp characteristics has
a.
Zero input resistance, infinite output resistance
b.
Infinite input resistance, zero output resistance
c.
Infinite open-loop gain, infinite output resistance
d.
Zero open-loop gain, zero output resistance
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Q45 mcq
In an integrating circuit, the feedback device is
a.
Resistor
b.
Capacitor
c.
Inductor
d.
Diode
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Q46 mcq
Assertion [A]: D-MOSFET operates with positive or negative gate voltage. Reason [R]: D-MOSFET acts like a capacitor.
a.
[A] is true, but [R] is false
b.
Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
c.
[A] is false, [R] is true
d.
Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]
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Q47 mcq
In astable mode, 555 timer generates
a.
Single pulse wave
b.
Triangular wave
c.
Sine wave
d.
Continuous square wave
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Q48 mcq
Match Boolean Expression with Simplified Output: (a) (A + B)(A + C) - 3. A + BC (b) A + AB - 1. A (c) A + ĀB - 2. A + B (d) A(Ā + B) - 4. AB
a.
(a)-2, (b)-4, (c)-1, (d)-3
b.
(a)-3, (b)-1, (c)-2, (d)-4
c.
(a)-4, (b)-2, (c)-3, (d)-1
d.
(a)-1, (b)-3, (c)-4, (d)-2
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Q49 mcq
Which of the following statements are true about JFET? (i) JFET is a three terminal semiconductor device. (ii) The input circuit of a JFET is always reverse biased. (iii) The three terminals of a JFET are: emitter, base, collector.
a.
(i) only
b.
(i) and (iii) only
c.
(i) and (ii) only
d.
(ii) and (iii) only
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Q50 mcq
Assertion [A]: In a JFET, common source connection is most widely used. Reason [R]: Common source connection provides high input impedance, good voltage gain and moderate output impedance.
a.
[A] is true, but [R] is false
b.
Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation of [A] is true
c.
[A] is false, but [R] is true
d.
Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]
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Q51 mcq
Assertion [A]: In the study of K-map, min terms and max terms are repeatedly used. Reason [R]: Min terms are associated with sum of product form (SOP) and max terms with product of sum form (POS).
a.
[A] is false, but [R] is true
b.
Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation of [A] is true
c.
[A] is true, but [R] is false
d.
Both [A] and [R] are false
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Q52 mcq
A flip-flop which has only one input and transfers the input data to the output on application of clock pulse is called
a.
SR Flip-flop
b.
Clocked SR flip-flop
c.
D flip-flop
d.
JK flip-flop
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Q53 mcq
Assertion [A]: A transistor transfers a signal from low resistance path to high resistance path. Reason [R]: Transistor has two PN junctions: one forward biased and other reverse biased.
a.
[A] is true, but [R] is false
b.
Both [A] and [R] are false
c.
Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation of [A] is true
d.
[A] is false, but [R] is true
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Q54 mcq
In a common base connection, current amplification factor $(α$) is 0.9. If emitter current is 1 mA, base current is
a.
0.1 mA
b.
10 mA
c.
100 mA
d.
1000 mA
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Q55 mcq
Which of the following statements are incorrect with LCD? (i) Very compact and light weight (ii) No geometric distortion (iii) Consumes less power (iv) It cannot be easily interfaced with a 4-bit or 8-bit microprocessor
a.
(i) only
b.
(ii) only
c.
(iii) only
d.
(iv) only
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Q56 mcq
Which of the following statements are incorrect about transistor? (i) Transistor can be used as an amplifier (ii) Base of a transistor is heavily doped (iii) For amplifier, it is always in CB arrangement (iv) Transistor can be used as an oscillator
a.
(i) and (ii) only
b.
(ii) and (iii) only
c.
(i) and (iii) only
d.
(ii) and (iv) only
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Q57 mcq
What value of series resistor is required to limit the current through an LED to 20 mA with forward drop 1.6 V from 10 V supply?
a.
120 Ω
b.
220 Ω
c.
320 Ω
d.
420 Ω
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Q58 mcq
Which of the following statements are correct in accordance with diodes? (i) Forward power rating for Ge diode is 0.7 V (ii) Ratio of reverse to forward resistance for Ge diode is 40000:1 (iii) Ratio of reverse to forward resistance for Si diode is 1000000:1 (iv) Forward power rating for Si diode is 0.3 V
a.
(i) only
b.
(ii) and (iii) only
c.
(iv) only
d.
(i) and (iv) only
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Q59 mcq
The reverse saturation current in a silicon diode is of the order of
a.
kA
b.
mA
c.
µA / nA
d.
A
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Q60 mcq
A semiconductor diode is primarily used as
a.
An amplifier
b.
A rectifier
c.
An oscillator
d.
A voltage regulator
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Q61 mcq
Select the incorrect statement from the following options:
a.
Racemic modification is an equimolar mixture of dextro and levorotatory isomers
b.
Meso compounds contain more than one chiral Carbon Centre
c.
Meso compounds are externally compensated
d.
Racemic mixture is designated as dl-pair
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Q62 mcq
Write IUPAC name of: $CH3-CH2-CH2-C(=O)-CH2Cl$
a.
5-chloro-4-pentanone
b.
1-chloro-2-pentanone
c.
5-chloro-4-butanone
d.
1-chloro-2-butanone
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Q63 mcq
The correct structure of an optically active form of an acid with formula C5H10O2 is
a.
CH3-CH2-CH(CH3)-COOH
b.
CH3CH2CH2CH2COOH
c.
CH3CH2CH2COOCH3
d.
CH3-CH(CH3)-COOCH3
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Q64 mcq
A nucleophile must necessarily have
a.
An unpaired electron
b.
A lone pair of electrons
c.
An overall positive charge
d.
An overall negative charge
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Q65 mcq
Which one of the following is the correct order of leaving group reactivity?
a.
H2O > ROH > AcO⁻ > OH⁻
b.
OH⁻ > AcO⁻ > ROH > H2O
c.
H2O > AcO⁻ > ROH > OH⁻
d.
OH⁻ > ROH > AcO⁻ > H2O
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Q66 mcq
Homolytic fission of C - C bond leads to the formation of
a.
Carbocation
b.
Carbanion
c.
Divalent ion
d.
Free radical
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Q67 mcq
Three molecules of benzyne trimerize to give
a.
Naphthalene
b.
Benzene
c.
Triphenylene
d.
Anthracene
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Q68 mcq
The maximum number of 90° angles between bond pairs is indicated in
a.
$dsp²$ hybridisation
b.
$sp³d$ hybridisation
c.
$sp³$ hybridisation
d.
$sp³d²$ hybridisation
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Q69 mcq
The percentage ionic character of a covalent bond depends upon
a.
Electronegativity differences of bonded atoms
b.
Electron affinity differences
c.
Heat of enthalpy
d.
Lattice energy differences
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Q70 mcq
The lattice energies of KF, KCl, KBr and KI follow the order:
a.
KF > KCl > KBr > KI
b.
KI > KBr > KCl > KF
c.
KF > KCl > KI > KBr
d.
KI > KBr > KF > KCl
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Q71 mcq
The hybridisation of ICl molecule is
a.
$sp³$
b.
$sp²$
c.
sp
d.
$sp³d$
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Q72 mcq
Conjugate acid of NH3 molecule is
a.
NH2⁻
b.
H2O
c.
NH4⁺
d.
NH2OH
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Q73 mcq
Assertion [A]: Oxidising power of halogens is F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2. Reason [R]: E° value decreases from F2/2F⁻ to I2/2I⁻ couple.
a.
[A] is true, but [R] is false
b.
Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is correct explanation of [A]
c.
[A] is false, [R] is true
d.
Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not correct explanation
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Q74 mcq
Quantitative determination of acid strength can be calculated using:
a.
K $=$ $(a_{H}⁺$ · $a_{B}⁻$) / $a_{HB}$
b.
K $=$ $(a_{H}⁺$ · $a_{OH}⁻$) / $a_{H}⁺OH⁻$
c.
K $=$ a[H⁺OH⁻] / a[H2O]
d.
D $=$ $(a_{OH}⁻$ · $a_{H}⁺$) / $(a_{H}$ · $a_{B}$)
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Q75 mcq
In electrochemical series, elements or ions are arranged in decreasing order of
a.
Standard oxidation potential
b.
Standard reduction potential
c.
Standard redox potential
d.
Standard electrochemical potential
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Q76 mcq
In the reaction of BF3 with NH3, which is the Lewis acid and which is the Lewis base?
a.
NH3 is Lewis acid and BF3 is Lewis base
b.
BF3 is the Lewis acid and NH3 is the Lewis base
c.
Both are Lewis acid
d.
Both are Lewis bases
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Q77 mcq
Internal motions of reacting molecules are not considered in
a.
Transition state theory
b.
Collision theory
c.
Arrhenius theory
d.
Energy of activation
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Q78 mcq
For a certain first order reaction t0.5 is 100 sec. Time taken for 75% completion is
a.
100 sec
b.
200 sec
c.
300 sec
d.
50 sec
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Q79 mcq
In third order reaction, time taken for completion is inversely proportional to
a.
Square of final concentration
b.
Square of 1/2 concentration
c.
Square of initial concentration
d.
Square of initial and final concentration
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Q80 mcq
If concentration decreases from 1.0 M to 0.25 M in 20 minutes for a first order reaction, rate constant K is
a.
0.6932 min⁻¹
b.
6.932 min⁻¹
c.
0.06932 min⁻¹
d.
69.32 min⁻¹
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Q81 mcq
Malicious software that disguises itself as legitimate software but performs malicious actions once installed is a
a.
Spam
b.
Phishing
c.
Trojan Horse
d.
Virus
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Q82 mcq
Which of the following is an operational influence affecting cloud computing performance?
a.
Market demand
b.
Technological advancements
c.
Network Latency
d.
Legal regulations
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Q83 mcq
Check validity of matching statements: (i) Cloud stack - Alter cloud according to user requirement (ii) Amazon S3 - Simple storage service (iii) Cloud storage - Module of offline storage (iv) Salesforce - IaaS
a.
(i) and (ii)
b.
(ii) and (iv)
c.
(i) and (iv)
d.
(ii) and (iii)
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Q84 mcq
________ is a code injection technique exploiting vulnerability occurring in the database layer of an application.
a.
SQL injection
b.
MYSQLenum
c.
Database scanner
d.
Oracle clipper
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Q85 mcq
________ is a program that can infect legitimate programs by modifying them to include a copy of itself.
a.
Malware
b.
Computer virus
c.
Antikey logger
d.
Spyware
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Q86 mcq
Group of compromised computers running malware under common command-and-control infrastructure is called a
a.
Botnet
b.
Bottlenet
c.
Pharming
d.
Phishing
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Q87 mcq
Which protocol is commonly used for Wireless Sensor Networks (WSN) in IoT applications?
a.
TCP/IP
b.
Zigbee
c.
BAC Net
d.
More than one of the above
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Q88 mcq
Which of the following is not a valid aggregate function in SQL?
a.
avg
b.
min
c.
max
d.
total
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Q89 mcq
What is the primary goal of a Database system? (i) Retrieve information from Database (ii) Store new information in Database (iii) Build good applications with standard backends (iv) Build client server applications
a.
(i) and (ii)
b.
(i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
c.
(iv)
d.
(iii) and (iv)
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Q90 mcq
What are the basic list types available in HTML?
a.
Ordered, unordered
b.
Bullet, numbering
c.
Numbering, Alphabets
d.
Ordered, List
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Q91 mcq
Which option is used to create a table of contents automatically in a word processor?
a.
Insert -> Table
b.
References -> Table of contents
c.
Format -> Tab
d.
View -> Draft
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Q92 mcq
What does the ACID property stand for in database transactions?
a.
Atomicity, Consistency, Isolation, Durability
b.
Atomicity, Concurrency, Integrity, Durability
c.
Accuracy, Consistency, Isolation, Durability
d.
Accuracy, Constant, Integration, Data
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Q93 mcq
What does normalization in a relational database help with?
a.
Avoiding redundancy
b.
Increasing performance
c.
Reducing query time
d.
Reducing query
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Q94 mcq
Which tag is used to render an image on a webpage in HTML?
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Q95 mcq
Which network device is used to connect different networks together?
a.
Switch
b.
Hub
c.
Router
d.
Repeater
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Q96 mcq
Check validity of statements: 1. ADSL was introduced over PSTN 2. Two major mobile communication systems are GSM and CDMA 3. Sending and receiving simultaneously is half-duplex 4. Mobile connections overtake fixed lines
a.
1, 2, 3, 4 are valid
b.
1 and 2 are valid
c.
2, 3 and 4 are valid
d.
1, 2 and 4 are valid statements
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Q97 mcq
Time elapsed between initiating memory request and data available in MDR (t1 - t0) is called
a.
Cycle time
b.
Access time
c.
Write time
d.
Fetch time
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Q98 mcq
Need for print head to strike ribbon to print character is avoided in
a.
Laser printer
b.
Inkjet printer
c.
Dot matrix printer
d.
Chain printer
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Q99 mcq
To access the service of operating system, the service is provided by
a.
System resources
b.
Program call
c.
System call
d.
Kernel of operating system
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Q100 mcq
Choose right pairs: 1. Mainframe Computers - IBM 4381, CDC 6600 2. Supercomputers by India - PARAM, AIRAWAT 3. Mini computers - Single user only 4. Produces supercomputer in India - C-DAC
a.
1 and 2 are correct
b.
1, 2, 3, 4 are correct
c.
1, 2 and 4 are correct
d.
2, 3, 4 are correct
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Q101 mcq
Informal responses to victimization usually involve:
a.
Court trial
b.
Police and legal authorities
c.
Family, friend and community support
d.
Sentencing and punishment
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Q102 mcq
Which of the following is an example of a protective factor against crime?
a.
Strong family support
b.
Peer pressure to commit crime
c.
Poverty
d.
Substance abuse
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Q103 mcq
Order for awarding compensation to victim of crime is made under which section of CrPC?
a.
Section 357
b.
Section 375
c.
Section 315
d.
Section 351
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Q104 mcq
Assertion [A]: Victimization surveys estimate gap between reported and unreported crimes. Reason [R]: These surveys help direct attention to experiences of victims.
a.
[A] is correct, but [R] is wrong
b.
Both [A] and [R] are correct
c.
[A] is wrong, but [R] is correct
d.
Both [A] and [R] are wrong
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Q105 mcq
Match Theories of Victimology: (a) Victim precipitation theory - 1. Suggests victims play role in triggering crime (b) Learned helplessness - 2. Victims develop sense of powerlessness (c) Just World Theory - 3. People blame victims to maintain belief in fair world (d) Trauma theory - 4. Focuses on psychological/emotional impact
a.
(a)-4, (b)-3, (c)-2, (d)-1
b.
(a)-2, (b)-1, (c)-3, (d)-4
c.
(a)-1, (b)-2, (c)-3, (d)-4
d.
(a)-3, (b)-4, (c)-1, (d)-2
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Q106 mcq
John Augustus practiced probation for the first time in
a.
UK
b.
Austria
c.
USA
d.
Australia
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Q107 mcq
The reformative theory of punishment primarily focuses on:
a.
Public deterrence
b.
Compensation to victims
c.
Moral education and rehabilitation of the offender
d.
Physical punishment
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Q108 mcq
Who is competent to commute death penalty to life imprisonment under the Constitution of India?
a.
Director General of Prisons
b.
Governor of State / President
c.
Chief Minister
d.
Prime Minister
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Q109 mcq
Parole helps in:
a.
Punishing offender more
b.
Increasing jail population
c.
Rehabilitating the offender into society
d.
Delaying trial
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Q110 mcq
Judicial sentencing happens after which stage?
a.
Arrest
b.
Charge sheet
c.
Conviction
d.
Appeal
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Q111 mcq
Which international organization is primarily involved in combating transnational environmental crimes?
a.
WTO
b.
IMF
c.
NATO
d.
INTERPOL
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Q112 mcq
Drug addiction is most commonly classified under which type of crime in criminology?
a.
White collar crime
b.
Blue collar crime
c.
Victimless crime
d.
Organized crime
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Q113 mcq
Which of the following is an example of cybercrime?
a.
Arson
b.
Identity theft
c.
Racketeering
d.
Burglary
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Q114 mcq
The term 'Statutory rape' refers to
a.
Rape committed by stranger
b.
Rape committed by family member
c.
Sexual assault with violence
d.
Sexual activity with a minor below the age of consent regardless of consent
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Q115 mcq
Who coined the term 'white collar crime'?
a.
Edwin Sutherland
b.
Robert Merton
c.
Emile Durkheim
d.
Enrico Ferri
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Q116 mcq
The Uniform Crime Reporting (UCR) program is associated with which country?
a.
United States
b.
United Kingdom
c.
Canada
d.
Italy
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Q117 mcq
A person who fails to tame id impulses sufficiently becomes a criminal. This view was given by
a.
Edwin Sutherland
b.
Sigmund Freud
c.
Nigel South
d.
Gabriel Tarde
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Q118 mcq
Victim's human DNA is retrieved from which digestive part of feeding insects in entomology?
a.
Salivary gland
b.
Crop
c.
Intestine
d.
Cuticle
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Q119 mcq
The observation that men react to social structure and cultural values derived therefrom was given by
a.
Edwin H. Sutherland
b.
Park and Burgess
c.
Robert K. Merton
d.
Donald Taft
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Q120 mcq
Match criminologists with concepts: (a) Albert Cohen - 4. Delinquent sub-culture (b) Travis Hirschi - 3. Control theory (c) A.M. Guerry - 2. Environmental criminology (d) Messner and Rosenfeld - 1. Institutional anomie theory
a.
(a)-4, (b)-3, (c)-2, (d)-1
b.
(a)-1, (b)-3, (c)-2, (d)-4
c.
(a)-2, (b)-3, (c)-4, (d)-1
d.
(a)-3, (b)-4, (c)-2, (d)-1
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Q121 mcq
Choose correctly matched pairs: 1. RSV like illness : Respiratory Syncytial Virus 2. Respiratory Syncytial disease : Influenza A 3. SARS : SARS coronavirus 4. Influenza : Human parainfluenza
a.
Only 4
b.
Only 2
c.
2 and 4
d.
1 and 3
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Q122 mcq
Which foodborne bacterium grows in SPS (Sulfadiazine Polymyxin Sulfite) agar medium?
a.
Clostridium botulinum / Clostridium perfringens
b.
Campylobacter jejuni
c.
Campylobacter coli
d.
Escherichia coli
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Q123 mcq
________ is used as counterstain in Gram staining.
a.
Crystal violet
b.
Safranin
c.
Methylene blue
d.
Iodine
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Q124 mcq
Microorganisms that live in extreme acidic environments are referred to as
a.
Thermophiles
b.
Alkaliphiles
c.
Acidophiles
d.
Barophiles
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Q125 mcq
Which of the following are incorrectly paired? 1. Tobacco rattle virus - Tobacco 2. Tungro virus - Cauliflower 3. Cauliflower mosaic virus - Rice 4. Potato virus Y - Potato
a.
1 and 4
b.
2 and 3
c.
1 and 2
d.
Only 4
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Q126 mcq
Kary Mullis received Nobel Prize for inventing PCR in which year?
a.
1991
b.
1999
c.
1993
d.
1982
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Q127 mcq
Assertion [A]: RFLP is a hybridization based codominant marker. Reason [R]: It allows one to distinguish homozygotes from heterozygotes.
a.
[A] is true, but [R] is false
b.
Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is correct explanation of [A]
c.
[A] is false, [R] is true
d.
Both [A] and [R] are true; but [R] is not correct explanation
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Q128 mcq
Recessive alleles often arise due to
a.
DNA mutations (loss-of-function)
b.
Increased gene expression
c.
Dominant gene expression
d.
Hyper chromosomal activity
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Q129 mcq
Which enzyme is used to join DNA fragments by forming phosphodiester bonds?
a.
Helicase
b.
DNA ligase
c.
Reverse transcriptase
d.
Taq DNA polymerase
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Q130 mcq
Usage of RNase-free water is essential in Northern blotting to
a.
prevent DNA degradation
b.
prevent RNA degradation
c.
improve gel conductivity
d.
reduce blotting time
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Q131 mcq
Which codon codes for the amino acid methionine (start codon)?
a.
UUU
b.
GUA
c.
UAG
d.
AUG
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Q132 mcq
Tendency of genes located on same chromosome to be inherited together is referred to as
a.
Recombination
b.
Repulsion
c.
Linkage
d.
Crossing over
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Q133 mcq
Choose correctly paired matches: (1) Azidothymidine (AZT) - HIV (2) Oseltamivir - HIV (3) Ribavirin - Hepatitis-C / RSV (4) Valacyclovir - HIV
a.
(1) and (3)
b.
(1) and (4)
c.
(2) and (3)
d.
(3) and (4)
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Q134 mcq
In which structure does callose fail to dissolve properly due to cytoplasmic male sterility?
a.
Anther wall
b.
Tetrad of microspores
c.
Megaspore mother cell
d.
Pollen tube
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Q135 mcq
Choose correctly matched pairs: (1) Penicillin - Inhibits cell wall synthesis (2) Tetracycline - Inhibits protein synthesis (3) Rifampin - Inhibits RNA synthesis (4) Bacitracin - Inhibits RNA synthesis
a.
Only (4)
b.
(2) and (4)
c.
(1), (2) and (3)
d.
Only (1)
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Q136 mcq
Statements true about plant pathogenic bacteria: (i) Agrobacterium tumefaciens causes crown gall (ii) Erwinia amylovora causes fire blight (iii) Xylella fastidiosa is xylem-limited bacterium
a.
(i) only
b.
(i) and (ii) only
c.
(i) and (iii) only
d.
(iii) only
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Q137 mcq
Cytoplasmic membrane surrounding the central vacuole of a plant cell is called
a.
Chromoplast
b.
Protoplast
c.
Leucoplast
d.
Tonoplast
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Q138 mcq
Which of the following is not a characteristic of Riccia Thallus?
a.
The tuberculate rhizoids possess smooth lumen
b.
Ventral portion has compact parenchyma lacking chlorophyll
c.
Dorsal region possesses narrow vertical slits
d.
Outermost cell in vertical rows are achlorophyllous
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Q139 mcq
Examples of spices obtained from flowers or flower buds:
a.
Saffron, Capers, Cloves
b.
Sage, Basil, Clove
c.
Saffron, Capers, Star Anise
d.
Cloves, Caraway, Anise
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Q140 mcq
Choose the right matches of resin and source: 1. Copal - Agathis australis 2. Canada balsam - Tetraclinis articulata 3. Amber - Abies balsamea 4. Rosin - Pinus roxburghii
a.
2 and 4 are correct
b.
1 and 3 are correct
c.
2 and 3 are correct
d.
1 and 4 are correct
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Q141 mcq
Number of theoretical plates (n) in chromatography calculated from retention time tR and peak base width Wb is
a.
n $=$ 7.5 (tR / $Wb)²$
b.
n $=$ 16 (tR / $Wb)²$
c.
n $=$ 16 $×$ tR $×$ Wb
d.
n $=$ 5.45 $×$ tR $×$ Wb
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Q142 mcq
Recorder speed was 3.68 cm/min. Retention distance for xylene was 54.0 cm. Retention time is
a.
198.72 min
b.
14.7 min
c.
0.681 min
d.
1.75 min
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Q143 mcq
Thermal conductivity detector (TCD) and Flame ionization detector (FID) are respectively:
a.
Non-destructive and destructive detectors
b.
Destructive and non-destructive detectors
c.
Both are destructive
d.
Both are non-destructive
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Q144 mcq
Spraying agent in paper chromatography for visualizing amino acids is
a.
Conc. H2SO4
b.
Conc. HCl
c.
CuSO4 solution
d.
Ninhydrin solution
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Q145 mcq
The purpose of injector in gas chromatography is
a.
To inject the sample
b.
To vaporize the sample
c.
To mix sample with carrier gas
d.
All of the above
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Q146 mcq
Which of the following is a liquid-liquid partition chromatography technique?
a.
Column adsorption chromatography
b.
Ion-exchange chromatography
c.
Paper partition chromatography
d.
Adsorption chromatography
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Q147 mcq
A 0.01 M solution transmits 20% of radiation in cell path length 1.5 cm. Molar extinction coefficient $ε$ is
a.
56.598 L·mol⁻¹·cm⁻¹
b.
26.598 L·mol⁻¹·cm⁻¹
c.
36.598 L·mol⁻¹·cm⁻¹
d.
46.598 L·mol⁻¹·cm⁻¹
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Q148 mcq
Splitting of NMR signals arises due to
a.
Shielding effect
b.
Spin-spin decoupling
c.
Spin-spin coupling
d.
Deshielding effect
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Q149 mcq
Effect of extranuclear electrons opposing the applied magnetic field at the nucleus is called
a.
Magnetic shielding
b.
Magnetic deshielding
c.
Peak splitting
d.
Coupling
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Q150 mcq
Wavelength range corresponding to UV-visible spectroscopy region is
a.
100-200 nm
b.
10-300 nm
c.
400-800 nm
d.
200-800 nm
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Q151 mcq
Mass spectroscopic studies can be performed for which states of matter?
a.
Solid
b.
Solid and Liquid
c.
Gas
d.
Solid, Liquid and Gas
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Q152 mcq
In semi-micro analysis, presence of Zirconium ion is confirmed by addition of
a.
Dil.HCl + KI
b.
Saturated oxalic acid - White precipitate
c.
Potassium ferrocyanide - yellow precipitate
d.
Dil.HCl + KSCN
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Q153 mcq
Magneson reagent is chemically
a.
8-hydroxyquinoline
b.
Ammoniacal silver nitrate
c.
p-nitrobenzene-azo-resorcinol
d.
p-hydroxy azobenzene
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Q154 mcq
Number of moles of Dimethylglyoxime required in complex formation for detecting 1 mole of $Ni²⁺$ ion is
a.
4
b.
3
c.
2
d.
1
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Q155 mcq
In semimicro analysis, tungsten heated with dil. HCl + SnCl2 + conc. HCl produces ________ precipitate.
a.
Red
b.
Blue
c.
Orange
d.
Pink
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Q156 mcq
Magneson reagent is
a.
p-Nitrobenzene Azo resorcinol
b.
p-Nitro benzene
c.
Azo benzene
d.
Resorcinol
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Q157 mcq
Weight of solid sample used in semi-micro qualitative analysis ranges between
a.
0.1 to 1 g
b.
0.01 to 0.1 g (10 to 100 mg)
c.
0.001 to 0.01 g
d.
0.0001 to 0.001 g
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Q158 mcq
Volume of 0.05 M KMnO4 required to oxidize 20 ml of 0.1 M FeSO4 solution in acidic medium is
a.
5 ml
b.
6 ml
c.
4 ml
d.
8 ml
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Q159 mcq
Assertion [A]: A primary standard solution is prepared by direct weighing. Reason [R]: Sodium hydroxide is hygroscopic, so it cannot be a primary standard.
a.
[A] true, [R] false
b.
Both true and [R] is correct explanation
c.
[A] false, [R] true
d.
Both true, but [R] is not correct explanation of [A]
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Q160 mcq
Which indicator is suitable for the pH transition range 3.1 to 4.4?
a.
Phenolphthalein
b.
Methyl red
c.
Thymol blue
d.
Methyl orange
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Q161 mcq
In NMR spectroscopy, nuclei with even mass number and even atomic number have spin quantum number (I) equal to
a.
1/2, 3/2, 5/2...
b.
0
c.
1, 2, 3...
d.
1/2
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Q162 mcq
In a non-linear benzene molecule (C6H6, N $=$ 12), number of fundamental vibrational degrees of freedom is
a.
30 (3N - 6)
b.
31
c.
18
d.
19
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Q163 mcq
Statements true about XRD methods: (i) Rotating crystal method determines size of unit cell (ii) Powder / Debye-Scherrer method determines space lattice/parameters (iii) Laue method determines crystal symmetry and orientation
a.
(i) only
b.
(i) and (iii) only
c.
(i) and (ii) only
d.
(ii) and (iii) only
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Q164 mcq
In a crystal where a $≠$ b $≠$ c, $α$ $=$ $γ$ $=$ 90° and $β$ $≠$ 90°, the crystal system is
a.
Orthorhombic
b.
Monoclinic
c.
Triclinic
d.
Rhombohedral
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Q165 mcq
The resonance condition in NMR spectroscopy is given by
a.
hν $=$ gN $μN$ / B0
b.
hν $=$ gN $μN$ B0
c.
hν $=$ gN B0 / $μN$
d.
hν $=$ $μN$ B0 / gN
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Q166 mcq
The pumping mechanism in a Laser device is used to achieve
a.
population inversion
b.
intensity input radiation
c.
intensity output radiation
d.
amplify input radiation
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Q167 mcq
Compare monochromaticity $(Δν$ / ν) of ordinary light $(Δν$ ~ 10¹⁰ Hz) and laser light $(Δν$ ~ 100 Hz) for ν $=$ $10¹⁴$ Hz:
a.
For laser $10⁻¹²$ and ordinary $10⁻⁴$
b.
For laser 10⁻¹⁰ and ordinary $10⁻²$
c.
For laser 10⁻⁹ and ordinary $10⁻³$
d.
For laser 10⁻¹⁰ and ordinary 10⁻¹⁰
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Q168 mcq
Rotational constant B for $H¹²C¹⁴N$ is 147.82 m⁻¹. Calculate moment of inertia I (B $=$ h / $(8π²$ c I)):
a.
18.94 $×$ $10⁻⁴⁶$ $kg·m²$
b.
189.4 $×$ $10⁻⁴⁶$ $kg·m²$
c.
1.894 $×$ $10⁻⁴⁶$ $kg·m²$
d.
1894 $×$ $10⁻⁴⁶$ $kg·m²$
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Q169 mcq
In normal longitudinal Zeeman effect, spectral line splits into two components which are
a.
plane polarised
b.
circularly polarised
c.
elliptically polarised
d.
cylindrically polarised
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Q170 mcq
The usual lifetime of an atom in an ordinary excited state is
a.
~10⁻⁶ sec
b.
$~10⁻³$ sec
c.
~10⁻⁸ sec
d.
~10⁻¹⁰ sec
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Q171 mcq
In Fraunhofer diffraction, incident wavefront is
a.
spherical
b.
plane
c.
cylindrical
d.
elliptical
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Q172 mcq
Conditions to achieve sustained interference pattern: (i) Waves must be of similar types (ii) Wave sources must be coherent (iii) Waves must have comparable amplitudes
a.
(i) only
b.
(i) and (ii)
c.
(ii) only
d.
(i), (ii) and (iii)
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Q173 mcq
Fresnel's biprism set-up can be used to: (i) Determine wavelength of light (ii) Determine intensity of light (iii) Determine thickness of thin transparent sheet
a.
(i) only
b.
(ii) only
c.
(iii) only
d.
(i) and (iii) / (i), (ii) and (iii)
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Q174 mcq
Which of the following are examples of impulsive force? (i) A ball falling in free space (ii) Blow of hammer on a pile (iii) Force exerted by bat on cricket ball
a.
(i) and (ii) only
b.
(i) and (iii) only
c.
(i) only
d.
(ii) and (iii) only
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Q175 mcq
If u and v are initial and final velocities, impulse I is equal to
a.
(v - u) / t
b.
m(v - u)
c.
at
d.
ma
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Q176 mcq
The effective distance of the particles of a body from its axis of rotation (k $=$ $√(I/M$)) is called
a.
moment of inertia
b.
radius of gyration
c.
angular momentum
d.
momentum
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Q177 mcq
Convert energy E $=$ 9 $×$ $10²⁰$ ergs into eV (1 eV $=$ 1.602 $×$ $10⁻¹²$ ergs):
a.
1.78 $×$ $10⁻³³$ eV
b.
1.78 $×$ $10³³$ eV
c.
5.618 $×$ $10⁻³²$ eV
d.
5.618 $×$ $10³²$ eV
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Q178 mcq
A steel ball falls from 0.64 m and rebounds to 0.36 m. Calculate coefficient of restitution e $=$ $√(h1$ / h0):
a.
1.25
b.
2.75
c.
0.75
d.
1.75
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Q179 mcq
Kinetic energy Ek $=$ $mc²$ - $m0c²$ and rest mass energy is $m0c²$. Total relativistic energy is
a.
$-m0c²$
b.
$mc²$
c.
$mc²$ - $2m0c²$
d.
$mc²$ - $m0c²$
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Q180 mcq
Postulate of special theory of relativity: (i) Laws of motion same for mechanical systems (ii) Laws of physics are same in all inertial frames of reference (iii) Conservation of momentum same for all physical systems
a.
(i) and (iii)
b.
(ii) and (iii)
c.
(ii) only
d.
(i) and (ii)
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Q181 mcq
Which statements are correct? (i) Fermented drinks are alcoholic beverages (ii) Brewed and fermented drinks are alcoholic beverages (iii) Carbonated drinks are alcoholic beverages (iv) Distilled drinks are alcoholic beverages
a.
(i), (ii) and (iii)
b.
(i), (iii) and (iv)
c.
(ii), (iii) and (iv)
d.
(i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
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Q182 mcq
Fusel oil is related to
a.
Lubricating oils
b.
Vegetable oil
c.
Group of Aliphatic Alcohols (higher alcohols)
d.
Gasoline
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Q183 mcq
Fuel ethanol denotes anhydrous ethanol denatured by addition of ________% of unleaded gasoline.
a.
0.5 to 1%
b.
1 to 2%
c.
2 to 5%
d.
5 to 10%
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Q184 mcq
In Narcotic drugs, the best known true Hallucinogen is
a.
Cocaine
b.
LSD
c.
Heroin
d.
Nitrazepam
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Q185 mcq
Match color spot tests with drugs: (a) Marihuana - 3. Duquenois-Levine test (b) Cocaine - 4. Scott test (c) Barbiturates - 1. Dille-Koppanyi test (d) LSD - 2. Ehrlich's test
a.
(a)-3, (b)-4, (c)-1, (d)-2
b.
(a)-2, (b)-3, (c)-1, (d)-4
c.
(a)-4, (b)-3, (c)-2, (d)-1
d.
(a)-3, (b)-4, (c)-2, (d)-1
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Q186 mcq
Fentanyl is: (i) More potent than morphine (50-100x) (ii) A natural opioid (iii) A synthetic opioid (iv) Less potent than morphine
a.
(i) and (ii) are correct
b.
(i) is correct
c.
(ii) and (iv)
d.
(iii) is correct
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Q187 mcq
Match chemical war agents: (a) Tear gases - 3. Chloroacetophenone (b) Nerve poison - 5. Organophosphates / Arsine (c) Sternutators - 4. Diphenylchloroarsine (d) Choking gases - 1. Chlorine / Phosgene (e) Vesicants (blister) - 2. Mustard gas
a.
(a)-2, (b)-5, (c)-4, (d)-1, (e)-3
b.
(a)-3, (b)-1, (c)-2, (d)-5, (e)-4
c.
(a)-4, (b)-3, (c)-5, (d)-2, (e)-1
d.
(a)-3, (b)-4, (c)-5, (d)-1, (e)-2
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Q188 mcq
Which of these is not a plant poison?
a.
Arsenic
b.
Aconite
c.
Abrus
d.
Capsicum
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Q189 mcq
The technique 'Polymerase Chain Reaction' (PCR) was invented by
a.
Alec Jeffreys
b.
Kary Mullis
c.
John Butler
d.
Karl Landsteiner
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Q190 mcq
Presence of which of the following is an unambiguous test for seminal fluid in sexual assault forensic examination?
a.
Blood stain
b.
Prostate Specific Antigen (PSA)
c.
Sperm Cells
d.
Yeast Cells
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Q191 mcq
Blood grouping of dried stains in forensic serology is based on
a.
Red cell antigen Polymorphism / Absorption-elution
b.
Single Nucleotide Polymorphism
c.
Insertion/Deletion Polymorphism
d.
Copy Number variation
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Q192 mcq
Biological evidence materials such as blood stains can be individualized by
a.
DNA profiling
b.
Blood grouping
c.
Species Origin Determination
d.
Cross-over Immuno Electrophoresis
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Q193 mcq
Which of the following ABO antigens does a type O individual possess on red blood cells?
a.
A antigen
b.
B antigen
c.
A and B antigens
d.
Neither (A) nor (B) antigens
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Q194 mcq
Which presumptive colour test for blood involves a proven carcinogen?
a.
Kastle-Meyer Test
b.
Benzidine Test
c.
Luminol Test
d.
Bluestar Test
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Q195 mcq
The type of cuticle scale pattern in human hair is
a.
Coronal
b.
Spinous
c.
Imbricate
d.
Irregular wave
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Q196 mcq
A very useful method for visual display of audio forensic voice recording is
a.
tape recordings
b.
the spectrogram (voiceprint)
c.
the chromatogram
d.
audograph
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Q197 mcq
Characterization of inorganic paint pigments can be identified by
a.
Absorption Spectroscopy
b.
Magnetic Spectroscopy
c.
Adsorption Spectroscopy
d.
Emission Spectroscopy / XRF
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Q198 mcq
How should glass fragments be packed and forwarded for forensic examination?
a.
In solid containers
b.
In paper envelope
c.
Druggist fold
d.
In polythene bags
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Q199 mcq
Partially visible impressions on a sheet of paper underneath the sheet on which writing was done is called
a.
Indented writings
b.
Obliterated writings
c.
First page writings
d.
Cursive writings
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Q200 mcq
A non-destructive method used for forensic ink lines comparison on questioned documents is
a.
UV spectrophotometer
b.
Visible microspectrophotometer / Video Spectral Comparator
c.
IR spectroscopy
d.
Capillary electrophoresis
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