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TNPSC · Personnel Management, IR, Business Administration & Social Work

TNPSC Personnel Management, IR, Business Administration & Social Work 2025

2025 · 200 questions · First 10 Solutions Free
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Q1 mcq
How does interaction among group members occur?
a.
Through writing and telephone only
b.
Through various communication methods including face-to-face, writing and computer networks Correct Answer
c.
Through non-verbal communication only
d.
Through face-to-face communication only

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Q2 mcq
The theory which states that persons are attracted to one another on the basis of similar attitudes toward commonly relevant objects and goals is called as
a.
Propinquity theory
b.
Balance theory Correct Answer
c.
Exchange theory
d.
Need theory

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Q3 mcq
Why is emotional literacy important?
a.
It helps individuals become more aware of their emotions and those of others Correct Answer
b.
It prevents people from solving problems effectively
c.
It discourages emotional honesty and confidence
d.
It restricts intuitive thinking and responsibility

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Q4 mcq
Cohesive work groups improve job satisfaction by fostering
a.
Interpersonal relationships Correct Answer
b.
Employee isolation
c.
Disengagement from team work
d.
Workplace conflict

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Q5 mcq
Assertion [A]: Highly educated individuals may experience lower job satisfaction. Reason [R]: Higher education raises expectations, which may remain unmet in certain job roles.
a.
Both [A] and [R] are correct and [R] explains [A] Correct Answer
b.
Both [A] and [R] are correct, but [R] does not explain [A]
c.
[A] is correct, but [R] is incorrect
d.
Both [A] and [R] are incorrect

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Q6 mcq
Assertion [A]: Employees' commitment varies between their direct work group and top management. Reason [R]: Employees may prioritize relationships with supervisors and colleagues differently than attachment to broader organization.
a.
Both [A] and [R] are correct and [R] explains [A] Correct Answer
b.
Both [A] and [R] are correct, but [R] does not explain [A]
c.
[A] is correct, but [R] is incorrect
d.
Both [A] and [R] are incorrect

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Q7 mcq
What are the key components of organizational commitment according to R.T. Mowday et al.?
a.
Preference for job isolation, resistance to changes
b.
Desire to remain in the organization, willingness to exert effort and belief in organizational values Correct Answer
c.
Disengagement from organizational policies, limited collaboration
d.
Lack of interest in professional development

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Q8 mcq
The theory that emphasizes the importance of job characteristics in influencing work motivation and job involvement is
a.
Herzberg's two factor theory
b.
Hackman and Oldham's theory Correct Answer
c.
Vroom's expectancy theory
d.
Maslow's Hierarchy of needs

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Q9 mcq
________ is considered as the 'father of scientific management', introducing systematic goal setting and rewards to motivate employees?
a.
Elton Mayo
b.
Chester Barnard
c.
Frederick Winslow Taylor Correct Answer
d.
Mary Parker Follett

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Q10 mcq
Arrange the following OB concepts based on historical evolution in the study of Individual Behaviour: 1. Theory X and Y 2. Scientific management theory 3. Hawthorne studies 4. Emotional Intelligence
a.
1 -> 2 -> 4 -> 3
b.
1 -> 3 -> 2 -> 4
c.
2 -> 4 -> 1 -> 3
d.
2 -> 3 -> 1 -> 4 Correct Answer

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Q11 mcq
Arrange the stages of social learning process in chronological order: 1. Motivation to learn 2. Behaviour modification / reproduction 3. Cognitive rehearsal / retention 4. Observation of others / attention
a.
1 -> 3 -> 2 -> 4
b.
2 -> 4 -> 3 -> 1
c.
4 -> 1 -> 3 -> 2
d.
3 -> 2 -> 1 -> 4
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Q12 mcq
________ of the following factors is not a part of perception process.
a.
Introspection
b.
Attention
c.
Organisation
d.
Interpretation
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Q13 mcq
The Myers Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) is developed based on ________ classification of personality types.
a.
Erikson
b.
Carl Jung
c.
John Holland
d.
Friedman
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Q14 mcq
Match Attitude formation theories with contributors: (a) Balance theory - 3. Heider (b) Cognitive dissonance theory - 4. Festinger (c) Functional theory - 2. Katz (d) Social judgement theory - 1. Sherif and Hovland
a.
(a)-2, (b)-3, (c)-4, (d)-1
b.
(a)-3, (b)-4, (c)-2, (d)-1
c.
(a)-1, (b)-2, (c)-4, (d)-3
d.
(a)-4, (b)-1, (c)-3, (d)-2
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Q15 mcq
In team building, ________ is a set of activities that help others focus on what is currently happening around them.
a.
Process consultation
b.
Feedback
c.
Presentation skills
d.
Research skills
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Q16 mcq
________ is defined in Transactional Analysis as any act of recognition for another.
a.
Compromise
b.
Smoothing
c.
Stroking
d.
Silence
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Q17 mcq
Playing down differences while emphasizing common interests between conflicting parties is ________ type of conflict resolution technique.
a.
Avoidance
b.
Compromise
c.
Smoothing
d.
Altering
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Q18 mcq
When an organization takes on a life of its own, apart from any of its members and acquires immortality, it is referred as
a.
Institutionalization
b.
Commercialization
c.
Globalization
d.
Liberalization
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Q19 mcq
________ approach turns employee attention away from negative focus on problems, missteps and blaming.
a.
Analysis paralysis
b.
Bunker Mentality
c.
Group think
d.
Appreciative inquiry
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Q20 mcq
The factor that does not increase group cohesiveness is
a.
Agreement on group goals
b.
Personal attractiveness
c.
Intergroup competition
d.
Intragroup competition
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Q21 mcq
Assertion [A]: The World Health Organization has eight regional offices around the world. Reason [R]: The WHO South East Asia Regional office is located at New Delhi, India.
a.
Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
b.
[A] is false, but [R] is true
c.
Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is not the correct explanation
d.
[A] is true, but [R] is false
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Q22 mcq
Match international organizations with headquarters: (a) World Bank - 4. Washington, US (b) FAO - 3. Rome, Italy (c) ILO - 1. Geneva, Switzerland (d) UNFPA - 2. New York, USA
a.
(a)-4, (b)-3, (c)-1, (d)-2
b.
(a)-3, (b)-4, (c)-1, (d)-2
c.
(a)-1, (b)-2, (c)-3, (d)-4
d.
(a)-2, (b)-3, (c)-4, (d)-1
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Q23 mcq
Arrange community health milestones in chronological order: 1. Establishment of WHO (1948) 2. NRHM (2005) 3. RCH Programme (1997) 4. Universal Immunization Programme (1985)
a.
1, 4, 3, 2
b.
1, 3, 4, 2
c.
3, 1, 4, 2
d.
1, 4, 2, 3
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Q24 mcq
One of the key functions of good mental health is
a.
The ability to avoid all negative emotions
b.
The ability to diagnose mental health problems
c.
The ability to manage a range of emotions
d.
The ability to never experience uncertainty
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Q25 mcq
Mental health is defined by WHO as:
a.
The absence of mental disorders only
b.
A state of well-being where individuals realize their potential and can cope with stresses of life
c.
Ability to work without emotional challenges
d.
A condition allowing avoidance of all difficulties
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Q26 mcq
Why is mental healthcare in India considered a fundamental right under the Mental Healthcare Act 2017?
a.
Mandates compulsory hospitalization
b.
Restricts mental health to urban areas
c.
Ensures equal access to mental health services for all individuals
d.
Prioritizes physical health over mental health
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Q27 mcq
Match health committees in India: (a) Bhore committee - 4. Recommended establishment of PHCs (b) Mudaliar Committee - 3. Strengthening health services at District level (c) Shrivastav Committee - 2. Providing health services via community workers / sub-centres (d) National Health policy - 1. Strategies for Health for All by 2000
a.
(a)-4, (b)-3, (c)-2, (d)-1
b.
(a)-3, (b)-4, (c)-1, (d)-2
c.
(a)-2, (b)-1, (c)-4, (d)-3
d.
(a)-3, (b)-2, (c)-1, (d)-4
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Q28 mcq
The Disability Adjusted Life Year (DALY) is best described as
a.
Years expected to live without disease
b.
Total number living with chronic disease
c.
The sum of years lost due to premature death and years lived with disability
d.
Number of deaths caused by communicable diseases
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Q29 mcq
What is the purpose of the UN Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities (UNCRPD)?
a.
Provide medical treatment only
b.
To promote, protect and ensure the full and equal enjoyment of all human rights by persons with disabilities
c.
Establish global healthcare system
d.
Offer financial aid only
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Q30 mcq
Match concepts of health: (a) Psychosocial - 3. Phenomenon influenced by psychological, cultural and social factors (b) Biomedical - 2. Absence of disease or infirmity (c) Holistic - 4. Well-being of the whole person in context of environment (d) Ecological - 1. Dynamic equilibrium between man and his environment
a.
(a)-3, (b)-2, (c)-4, (d)-1
b.
(a)-2, (b)-3, (c)-1, (d)-4
c.
(a)-1, (b)-4, (c)-2, (d)-3
d.
(a)-4, (b)-1, (c)-3, (d)-2
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Q31 mcq
The main purpose of sensitivity training (T-group) is to encourage ________ among employees.
a.
Workplace isolation
b.
Open expression of feelings
c.
Passive communication
d.
Reduced interpersonal trust
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Q32 mcq
Assertion [A]: Training programs require follow-up evaluations to measure success. Reason [R]: Evaluations allow organizations to refine and improve training methods.
a.
Both [A] and [R] are correct and [R] explains [A]
b.
Both [A] and [R] are correct, but [R] does not explain [A]
c.
[A] is correct, but [R] is incorrect
d.
Both [A] and [R] are incorrect
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Q33 mcq
Why do some training programmes fail to achieve desired results?
a.
They are not aligned with overall HRD strategies of organization
b.
They focus too much on employee morale
c.
They encourage excessive supervision
d.
They prevent adopting modern methods
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Q34 mcq
Assess accuracy of statements: Statement A: Training enhances both quantity and quality of employee performance. Statement B: Training is unnecessary in organizations with advance technology.
a.
Both Statements are correct
b.
Only Statement A is correct
c.
Only Statement B is correct
d.
Both Statements are incorrect
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Q35 mcq
Why does training lead to better employee performance?
a.
Restricts adapting to new roles
b.
It improves skills and efficiency, leading to higher productivity
c.
Eliminates need for supervision
d.
Focuses only on theoretical knowledge
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Q36 mcq
Why is training important for employees facing global competition?
a.
It helps them adapt to changing market demands and improve performance
b.
Limits ability to innovate
c.
Discourages seeking promotions
d.
Prevents international expansion
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Q37 mcq
Why is education considered different from training?
a.
Replaces workplace training
b.
It focuses on increasing general knowledge rather than job specific skills
c.
Applies only to experienced leaders
d.
Eliminates importance of skill building
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Q38 mcq
Why is orientation of new employees important in an organization?
a.
To test productivity on first day
b.
To reduce employee anxiety, overcome reality shock and help them adjust
c.
To assign long-term projects immediately
d.
To evaluate performance against seniors
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Q39 mcq
________ is a technique by which a new employee is rehabilitated into his surroundings and introduced to practices, policies and purposes.
a.
Induction
b.
Selection
c.
Placement
d.
Transfer
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Q40 mcq
Which recent recruitment technology provides real-time responses and schedules interviews automatically?
a.
Chatbots
b.
Applicant Tracking Systems (ATS)
c.
Video Platforms
d.
Predictive Analytics tools
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Q41 mcq
What is the main purpose of using AI chatbots in the recruitment process?
a.
Conduct final interviews
b.
To automate initial candidate screening
c.
Analyze performance
d.
Manage payroll
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Q42 mcq
In digital recruitment, SMAC stands for:
a.
Selection, Mobile, Analytics and Cloud
b.
Selection, Mobile, Application and Call
c.
Social, Mobile, Analytics and Cloud
d.
Social, Mobile, Application and Call
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Q43 mcq
Which of the following statements are true? (i) Host Country National (HCN) lives and works in country of which not citizen (ii) Expatriate is citizen of host country hired by foreign firm (iii) Leased employees are hired by one firm and sent to work in another
a.
(i) and (ii) only
b.
(i) and (iii) only
c.
(iii) only
d.
(i) only
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Q44 mcq
The ratio which tells about number of leads/contacts needed to generate a given number of hires is referred as
a.
Time ratio
b.
Yield ratio
c.
Base ratio
d.
Validity ratio
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Q45 mcq
During ________ candidates face derogatory remarks and deliberate criticism from interviewer.
a.
Open-ended interview
b.
Structured interview
c.
Stress interview
d.
Exit interview
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Q46 mcq
Unstructured interview is otherwise called as
a.
Open-ended interview
b.
Closed interview
c.
Stress interview
d.
Emotional interview
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Q47 mcq
Match Job description items with content: (a) Job title - 3. Assistant Manager (b) Machine tools and equipment - 4. Devices and instruments used (c) Hazards - 1. Electrical shock risk (d) Working conditions - 2. Physical job environment
a.
(a)-1, (b)-3, (c)-4, (d)-2
b.
(a)-1, (b)-2, (c)-3, (d)-4
c.
(a)-3, (b)-4, (c)-1, (d)-2
d.
(a)-2, (b)-3, (c)-4, (d)-1
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Q48 mcq
The ________ approach involves departmental managers submitting HR forecasts up to top management.
a.
Top-down
b.
Lateral
c.
Middle-out
d.
Bottom-up
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Q49 mcq
Assertion [A]: Delphi technique is useful for uncertain environments. Reason [R]: It collects expert opinions through structured surveys.
a.
Both true, but [R] not correct explanation
b.
[A] true, [R] false
c.
[A] false, [R] true
d.
Both true and [R] is correct explanation of [A]
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Q50 mcq
Match Role of HR department: (a) Recruitment - 2. Identifying and attracting potential candidates (b) Compensation & Benefits - 3. Ensuring fair wages and benefits (c) Performance management - 1. Evaluating performance against standards (d) Employee relations - 4. Addressing conflicts and fostering relationships
a.
(a)-2, (b)-1, (c)-3, (d)-4
b.
(a)-2, (b)-3, (c)-4, (d)-1
c.
(a)-2, (b)-3, (c)-1, (d)-4
d.
(a)-3, (b)-2, (c)-4, (d)-1
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Q51 mcq
Arrange stages related to impact of organizational growth cycle on manpower planning: (1) Focus on efficiency and cost control (Maturity) (2) High demand for diverse skills and rapid hiring (Growth) (3) Potential workforce reduction (Decline) (4) Emphasis on stability and retention (Saturation)
a.
(2), (4), (1), (3)
b.
(4), (1), (3), (2)
c.
(1), (3), (2), (4)
d.
(3), (2), (4), (1)
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Q52 mcq
________ HRP is primarily concerned with short-term human resource requirements of the organization.
a.
Tactical
b.
Operational
c.
Strategic
d.
Forecasting
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Q53 mcq
Assertion [A]: Linking organisational strategy to HRP enhances overall effectiveness. Reason [R]: Strategic HRP ensures the right people are in right roles at the right time.
a.
Both [A] and [R] are true, [R] is correct explanation of [A]
b.
[A] is true but [R] is false
c.
[A] is false but [R] is true
d.
Both true, but [R] not correct explanation
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Q54 mcq
Match factors affecting HRP: (a) Type of organisation - 2. Whether start up, mature corporation, or non-profit (b) Strategy of organisation - 3. Impact the scope and focus of HRP (c) Organisation growth cycle - 4. Different stages create varying priorities (d) Nature of resource market - 1. Influence demand and supply of talent
a.
(a)-1, (b)-4, (c)-2, (d)-3
b.
(a)-1, (b)-3, (c)-4, (d)-2
c.
(a)-2, (b)-3, (c)-4, (d)-1
d.
(a)-4, (b)-1, (c)-2, (d)-3
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Q55 mcq
The ________ is a brief description outlining the general purpose and goals of the job.
a.
Job summary
b.
Job purpose
c.
Job title
d.
Job location
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Q56 mcq
The leadership style that emphasizes subordinate involvement is called ________ leadership.
a.
Autocratic
b.
Democratic
c.
Production oriented
d.
Bureaucratic
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Q57 mcq
The behavioural approach emphasizes ________ rather than fixed traits.
a.
Bureaucratic structures
b.
Leadership behaviours
c.
Employee turnover
d.
Organizational instability
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Q58 mcq
Assertion [A]: A Leader represents the group before others. Reason [R]: Leaders prevent opposing factions from forming within a team.
a.
Both [A] and [R] are correct, and [R] explains [A]
b.
Both [A] and [R] are correct, but [R] does not explain [A]
c.
[A] is correct, but [R] is incorrect
d.
Both [A] and [R] are incorrect
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Q59 mcq
The power flowing from authority or formal right to command is called ________ power.
a.
Autocratic
b.
Charismatic
c.
Expert
d.
Legitimate
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Q60 mcq
An organization's ability to motivate employees directly affects its
a.
Lack of teamwork
b.
Increased turnover rates
c.
Workplace distractions
d.
Effectiveness and efficiency
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Q61 mcq
Match performance evaluation criteria: (a) Subjective criteria - 4. Reviewing employee's overall attitude and teamwork (b) Trait-based criteria - 3. Rating employee's level of creativity and reliability (c) Behaviour-based criteria - 1. Evaluating how well an employee adapts to challenges (d) Result based criteria - 2. Assessing achievement of specific sales targets
a.
(a)-1, (b)-2, (c)-4, (d)-3
b.
(a)-2, (b)-3, (c)-4, (d)-1
c.
(a)-4, (b)-3, (c)-1, (d)-2
d.
(a)-3, (b)-4, (c)-2, (d)-1
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Q62 mcq
In standard 360 degree appraisal system, which of the following is typically not an internal appraiser?
a.
Peers
b.
Superiors
c.
Self
d.
Clients / External Vendors (outside internal chain)
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Q63 mcq
Assertion [A]: Managers need to differentiate between current performance and potential performance. Reason [R]: Managers need to locate employees who need additional training.
a.
[A] and [R] are correct
b.
[A] and [R] are incorrect
c.
[A] is correct and [R] is correct explanation
d.
[A] is correct and [R] is not correct explanation
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Q64 mcq
The ________ theory of motivation emphasises the role played by an individual's belief in fairness of rewards in determining satisfaction.
a.
Expectancy
b.
Need hierarchy
c.
Equity theory
d.
Performance-satisfaction
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Q65 mcq
Match performance appraisal method with description: (a) Rating scales - 2. Measures job related criteria like initiative, attitude (b) Performance tests - 3. Assesses knowledge and skills (c) Critical incidents method - 4. Assesses actual behaviour by recording occurrences (d) BARS - 1. Statements of effective and ineffective behaviours
a.
(a)-4, (b)-2, (c)-1, (d)-3
b.
(a)-3, (b)-1, (c)-4, (d)-2
c.
(a)-4, (b)-2, (c)-3, (d)-1
d.
(a)-2, (b)-3, (c)-4, (d)-1
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Q66 mcq
Why should a performance appraisal system be open and participative?
a.
To give employees opportunity to provide feedback and involve them in goal-setting
b.
To limit interaction between employees and managers
c.
To focus only on past without future development
d.
To ensure management alone makes decisions
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Q67 mcq
A correct benefit for the organisation in performance appraisal is
a.
Reduces employee engagement
b.
Conveyance of the message that people are valued
c.
Eliminates clear organizational goals
d.
Creates competition without collaboration
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Q68 mcq
Examples of informal performance appraisal: (i) Team leader congratulating employee in hallway conversation (ii) Company-wide formal annual evaluation (iii) Manager giving on-the-spot feedback during project discussion without documenting (iv) Formal one-on-one session with HR
a.
(i) and (ii)
b.
(ii) and (iv)
c.
(i) and (iii)
d.
(iii) and (iv)
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Q69 mcq
Objective of performance appraisal in removing discontent among employees is
a.
To ignore employee feedback
b.
To create a positive and healthy climate in the organisation
c.
To create unfair competition
d.
To avoid discussing improvement areas
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Q70 mcq
Performance appraisal helps managers in
a.
Identifying employee weakness and providing constructive feedback
b.
Deciding pay based solely on tenure
c.
Assigning new roles without feedback
d.
Maintaining status quo
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Q71 mcq
An ISO standard specifying requirements for Quality Management Systems (QMS) in organisations is
a.
ISO 14001
b.
ISO 9001
c.
ISO 45001
d.
ISO 22000
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Q72 mcq
Which of the following best describes the focus of TQM?
a.
Product inspection at end of production
b.
Improving all organisational processes through people
c.
Reducing costs by minimizing workforce
d.
Increasing output regardless of quality
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Q73 mcq
Which of the following quality gurus is incorrectly matched with concept?
a.
W. Edwards Deming - System of profound knowledge
b.
Joseph M. Juran - Quality Trilogy
c.
Philip B. Crosby - Zero defects
d.
Kaoru Ishikawa - Six sigma
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Q74 mcq
Which of the following tool is primarily used in Pareto analysis?
a.
Fishbone diagram
b.
Scatter diagram
c.
Histogram / Bar chart
d.
Control chart
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Q75 mcq
In which phase of project life cycle is the project schedule typically developed?
a.
Conceptual
b.
Planning
c.
Implementation
d.
Closure
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Q76 mcq
Assertion [A]: Decentralized purchasing increases local adaptability. Reason [R]: Units can make decisions closer to operational needs.
a.
[A] is true, but [R] is false
b.
Both [A] and [R] are true; and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
c.
[A] is false, [R] is true
d.
Both true, but [R] not explanation
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Q77 mcq
Balance theory of group formation was formulated by
a.
Fred Luthans
b.
Maslow
c.
Theodore Newcomb
d.
McGregor
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Q78 mcq
In Total Productive Maintenance (TPM), 5S stands for
a.
Sort, Set in Order, Shine, Standardize, Sustain
b.
Safety, Speed, Standardize, Sustain, Simplify
c.
Sort, Standardize, Safety, Sustain, Simplify
d.
Shine, Set in Order, Safety, Standardize, Sustain
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Q79 mcq
The term 'THERBLIGS' is associated with
a.
Financial Analysis
b.
Motion study
c.
Inventory management
d.
Product Life Cycle
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Q80 mcq
What is a primary benefit of implementing Vendor Managed Inventory (VMI)?
a.
Increased transportation cost
b.
Improved Inventory accuracy and lower stockouts
c.
Reduced order fulfillment speed
d.
Increased storage requirements
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Q81 mcq
Arrange steps for implementing Vendor Managed Inventory (VMI): (1) Supplier monitors inventory levels at customer location (2) Customer shares real-time inventory data with supplier (3) Supplier replenishes inventory based on agreed parameters (4) Customer receives and stores replenished inventory
a.
(1), (2), (3), (4)
b.
(3), (4), (1), (2)
c.
(2), (1), (3), (4)
d.
(4), (3), (2), (1)
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Q82 mcq
A key objective of warehousing in supply chain management is
a.
To produce goods
b.
To store goods and manage inventory efficiently
c.
To market products
d.
To design new products
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Q83 mcq
A key objective of supply chain management is
a.
Maximizing inventory levels
b.
Minimizing lead times and total cost
c.
Increasing transportation costs
d.
Reducing product quality
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Q84 mcq
Match manufacturing environment to best fit strategy: (a) Make to stock - 3. Produce in anticipation (b) Assemble to order - 2. Build from standard modules (c) Make to order - 1. Build product after order
a.
(a)-1, (b)-3, (c)-2
b.
(a)-2, (b)-3, (c)-1
c.
(a)-3, (b)-2, (c)-1
d.
(a)-3, (b)-1, (c)-2
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Q85 mcq
Arrange operations strategy formulation process in correct order: (1) Analyze competitive environment (2) Define mission and objectives (3) Develop strategic capabilities (4) Implement strategy (5) Evaluate performance
a.
(1), (2), (3), (4), (5)
b.
(5), (4), (3), (2), (1)
c.
(2), (1), (3), (4), (5)
d.
(1), (2), (5), (4), (3)
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Q86 mcq
________ developed Toyota Production System (TPS) through kaizen activity as part of lean manufacturing.
a.
Edwards Deming
b.
Taiichi Ohno
c.
Shigeo Shingo
d.
Kaoru Ishikawa
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Q87 mcq
Integration of automated manufacturing operations is recognized by the label of
a.
Total Quality Management (TQM)
b.
Kanban system
c.
Computer Integrated Manufacturing (CIM)
d.
Performance Management System (PMS)
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Q88 mcq
Which of the following is not a characteristic of service operations?
a.
Intangible output
b.
High customer contact
c.
Low labor content
d.
High variability in quality
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Q89 mcq
Match operations terms with definition: (a) Productivity - 3. Measuring output per unit of input (b) Efficiency - 1. Doing right things with minimal waste (c) Effectiveness - 4. Doing right things to achieve goals (d) Benchmarking - 2. Comparing performance against best practices
a.
(a)-4, (b)-3, (c)-2, (d)-1
b.
(a)-3, (b)-4, (c)-1, (d)-2
c.
(a)-3, (b)-1, (c)-4, (d)-2
d.
(a)-2, (b)-4, (c)-3, (d)-1
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Q90 mcq
Match Quality control tools with descriptions: (a) Pareto chart - 3. Identifies most significant factors (80/20 rule) (b) Fishbone diagram - 1. Identifies potential causes of problems (c) Control chart - 4. Displays data distribution over time (d) Histogram - 2. Displays frequency distribution of dataset
a.
(a)-2, (b)-3, (c)-4, (d)-1
b.
(a)-3, (b)-1, (c)-4, (d)-2
c.
(a)-4, (b)-2, (c)-1, (d)-3
d.
(a)-1, (b)-4, (c)-3, (d)-2
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Q91 mcq
The term 'Zero-Day Vulnerability' means:
a.
Vulnerability known and patched immediately
b.
Vulnerability unknown to the vendor and attackers exploit it before patch exists
c.
A type of firewall
d.
Password strength level
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Q92 mcq
Identify an example of social engineering attack targeting online banking users:
a.
Phishing Emails
b.
Brute force attacks
c.
Malware Installation
d.
SQL Injection
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Q93 mcq
The cryptographic protocol ________ is commonly used to secure online banking transactions.
a.
SSL/TLS
b.
HTTP
c.
FTP
d.
SMTP
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Q94 mcq
SSL is not:
a.
Secured socket layer between HTTP and TCP
b.
Transport layer security protocol
c.
It does not keep credit card number
d.
It is less secure than phone and postal mail delivery
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Q95 mcq
Identify the odd one regarding web conversion metrics:
a.
Conversion rate
b.
Applause rate
c.
Bounce rate
d.
Cost per click
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Q96 mcq
In a PKI-based commerce security model, which component issues digital certificates?
a.
Certificate Authority (CA)
b.
Public key Generator
c.
DNS Resolver
d.
Token validator
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Q97 mcq
According to small world theory (six degrees of separation), you are only ________ links away from any other person on earth.
a.
2
b.
6
c.
4
d.
3
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Q98 mcq
Which type of E-money involves transactions settled with exchange of electronic cash balances directly?
a.
Debit or Prepaid E-money
b.
Credit or Postpaid E-money
c.
Online E-money
d.
Cash or Real - Time E-money
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Q99 mcq
Identify the wrong match from e-commerce support functions: (1) Analytics - Google analytics (2) Customer engagement - Chatbots (3) Order fulfillment - CRM systems (4) Payment processing - Stripe
a.
(1) and (2)
b.
(2) and (3)
c.
(1) and (4)
d.
(3) [Order fulfillment is handled by WMS/ERP not CRM]
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Q100 mcq
Which among the following was not a search engine in early internet era?
a.
www.excite.com
b.
www.adage.com
c.
www.infoseek.com
d.
www.webcrawler.com
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Q101 mcq
Identify the Government-to-Citizen (G2C) initiative under E-Governance in India:
a.
GeM (G2B)
b.
UMANG
c.
MCA21 (G2B)
d.
E-Tendering (G2B)
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Q102 mcq
Match data analytics concepts: (a) Data mining - 3. Analysing large datasets and extracting valuable insights (b) Data warehousing - 4. Aggregates data from multiple sources for analysis (c) Business Analytics - 1. Uses statistical methods to make informed decisions (d) Machine learning - 2. AI field enabling predictive modeling
a.
(a)-4, (b)-3, (c)-2, (d)-1
b.
(a)-3, (b)-4, (c)-1, (d)-2
c.
(a)-2, (b)-1, (c)-4, (d)-3
d.
(a)-1, (b)-2, (c)-3, (d)-4
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Q103 mcq
Data mining technique such as classification is a part of ________ paradigm.
a.
Unsupervised learning
b.
Supervised learning
c.
Deep learning
d.
Semi supervised learning
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Q104 mcq
Which of the following is a benefit of effective information management in ERP systems?
a.
Increased data redundancy
b.
Slower data processing
c.
Improved decision making capabilities
d.
Higher operational costs
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Q105 mcq
In an international information system, the role of a data steward is to
a.
Develop software applications
b.
Manage data quality, governance and compliance
c.
Design network infrastructure
d.
Oversee financial transactions
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Q106 mcq
Identify the EIS feature that supports the creation of dashboards and KPIs for executive reporting:
a.
ERP core modules
b.
Business Intelligence (BI) tools
c.
CRM
d.
Legacy system
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Q107 mcq
Identify the DSS technique that involves exploring large databases to discover hidden patterns and trends:
a.
Data mining
b.
Expert system
c.
OLAP
d.
Simulation
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Q108 mcq
The process of converting tacit knowledge into explicit knowledge in SECI model is known as
a.
Internalization
b.
Externalization
c.
Combination
d.
Socialization
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Q109 mcq
Normalisation is the process of: 1. Decomposing tables to reduce redundancy 2. Ensuring data integrity 3. Eliminating data anomalies
a.
only 1
b.
only 1 and 2
c.
only 1 and 3
d.
1, 2 and 3
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Q110 mcq
Identify the ODD one out of the following regarding types of database index:
a.
Single level index
b.
Multi level index
c.
Composite index
d.
Circular index
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Q111 mcq
Match types of attention in psychology: (a) Selective Attention - 2. Focusing on one stimulus (b) Sustained Attention - 3. Maintaining focus over time (c) Divided Attention - 4. Attending to multiple stimuli simultaneously (d) Alternating Attention - 1. Switching focus rapidly
a.
(a)-2, (b)-3, (c)-4, (d)-1
b.
(a)-1, (b)-2, (c)-3, (d)-4
c.
(a)-3, (b)-2, (c)-4, (d)-1
d.
(a)-2, (b)-4, (c)-1, (d)-3
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Q112 mcq
Match with Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs: (a) Safety Needs - 4. Security (b) Belongingness needs - 2. Friendship (c) Esteem needs - 3. Confidence (d) Physiological Needs - 1. Food and water
a.
(a)-2, (b)-4, (c)-1, (d)-3
b.
(a)-1, (b)-3, (c)-2, (d)-4
c.
(a)-3, (b)-2, (c)-4, (d)-1
d.
(a)-4, (b)-2, (c)-3, (d)-1
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Q113 mcq
The word 'emotion' is derived from the Latin word:
a.
I. 'EMOVERE' (Latin)
b.
II. 'EMOVE' (Latin)
c.
III. 'EMOTERE' (Greek)
d.
IV. 'EMOTE' (Greek)
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Q114 mcq
In SEO, 'Canonicalization' is
a.
Specifying preferred URL to prevent duplicate content
b.
A type of back link
c.
A way to speed up loading
d.
A keyword stuffing technique
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Q115 mcq
Match research methods in psychology: (a) Case study - 2. In-depth analysis (b) Experimental - 1. Manipulation of variables (c) Survey - 3. Standardized questionnaire (d) Naturalistic - 4. Observation in real settings
a.
(a)-2, (b)-1, (c)-3, (d)-4
b.
(a)-1, (b)-2, (c)-3, (d)-4
c.
(a)-2, (b)-4, (c)-1, (d)-3
d.
(a)-3, (b)-2, (c)-4, (d)-1
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Q116 mcq
Which of the following is incorrectly paired? I. Freud - Psychosexual development II. Erikson - Cognitive development (Actually Psychosocial) III. Piaget - Cognitive development IV. Pavlov - Classical conditioning
a.
I only correct
b.
II only incorrect / I, III, IV correct
c.
I, III and IV are correct
d.
II, IV are correct
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Q117 mcq
Arrange Erikson's 8 psychosocial stages in order: 1. Trust vs Mistrust 2. Autonomy vs Shame 6. Initiative vs Guilt 3. Industry vs Inferiority 7. Identity vs Role Confusion 4. Intimacy vs Isolation 8. Generativity vs Stagnation 5. Integrity vs Despair
a.
1, 2, 6, 3, 7, 4, 8, 5
b.
4, 3, 5, 6, 8, 7, 1, 2
c.
6, 4, 2, 1, 7, 5, 8, 3
d.
2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 1, 8
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Q118 mcq
Assertion [A]: Erik Erikson emphasised psychosocial stages across the lifespan. Reason [R]: Erikson believed that personality develops only during early childhood.
a.
Both true and [R] is correct explanation
b.
Both true but [R] not explanation
c.
[A] is true, but [R] is false
d.
[A] is false, but [R] is true
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Q119 mcq
According to N.K. Datta, the word 'caste' was first used in India by the
a.
Portuguese (casta)
b.
Dutch
c.
British
d.
French
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Q120 mcq
Social movements that are deeply dissatisfied with current order and aim for radical societal transformation are called
a.
Revolutionary Movements
b.
Reformative Movements
c.
Redemptive Movements
d.
Alternative Movements
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Q121 mcq
Tonnies / sociological formula for social action and interaction processes:
a.
A $=$ N $×$ E
b.
B $=$ A $×$ N
c.
P $=$ A $×$ S
d.
S $=$ B $×$ A
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Q122 mcq
Which of the following is not a characteristic of culture?
a.
Acquired / learned
b.
Communicative
c.
Biologically inherited
d.
Idealistic
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Q123 mcq
Which branch of sociology focuses on physical, spatial and demographic aspects of social life?
a.
General sociology
b.
Social morphology
c.
Social psychology
d.
Social dynamics
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Q124 mcq
Match sociological works with authors: (a) The division of labour in society - 4. Emile Durkheim (b) Social process - 3. Charles Horton Cooley (c) Social change - 2. Auguste Comte (d) Social class / Das Kapital - 1. Karl Marx
a.
(a)-1, (b)-2, (c)-3, (d)-4
b.
(a)-2, (b)-1, (c)-3, (d)-4
c.
(a)-4, (b)-2, (c)-1, (d)-3
d.
(a)-4, (b)-3, (c)-2, (d)-1
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Q125 mcq
Match sociologists with primary theoretical perspectives: (a) Emile Durkheim - 2. Functionalism (b) Max Weber - 1. Social action (c) Karl Marx - 4. Conflict theory (d) Talcott Parsons - 3. Structural functionalism
a.
(a)-2, (b)-1, (c)-4, (d)-3
b.
(a)-1, (b)-2, (c)-3, (d)-4
c.
(a)-3, (b)-2, (c)-1, (d)-4
d.
(a)-2, (b)-3, (c)-1, (d)-4
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Q126 mcq
Assertion [A]: Implementation of Matrix structure can lead to employees reporting to more than one manager. Reason [R]: This dual reporting relationship directly creates organizational pluralism.
a.
Both true but [R] not correct explanation
b.
[A] true, [R] false
c.
[R] false, [A] true
d.
Both [A] and [R] are true, [R] is correct explanation of [A]
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Q127 mcq
When personnel services must cater to distinct geographical regions, ________ pattern of organization is suitable.
a.
Unit oriented / Geographic
b.
People oriented
c.
Innovation oriented
d.
Strategically aligned
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Q128 mcq
Which of the following abbreviations is incorrect? 1. APFPM - Asian Pacific Federation of Human Resource Management 2. WFPMA - World Federation of People Management Associations 3. NIPM - National Institute of Personnel Management 4. IHRMA - Institute of Human Resource Management Association
a.
1
b.
4
c.
2
d.
3
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Q129 mcq
Find one of the wrong ways of organizing personnel department:
a.
By function
b.
By division
c.
By teams
d.
By product line (personnel is staff function)
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Q130 mcq
The personnel department in a Matrix organisation exhibits a ________ relationship.
a.
Horizontal
b.
Dual
c.
Complex
d.
Vertical
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Q131 mcq
Match role of personnel manager: (a) Counsellor - 3. Guides employees on problems and grievances (b) Staff specialist - 4. Advises line managers on personnel matters (c) Mediator - 1. Acts as linking pin between management and workers (d) Spokesman - 2. Represents company in external committees
a.
(a)-1, (b)-4, (c)-3, (d)-2
b.
(a)-3, (b)-4, (c)-1, (d)-2
c.
(a)-3, (b)-1, (c)-2, (d)-4
d.
(a)-2, (b)-4, (c)-1, (d)-3
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Q132 mcq
According to Northcott, the profession of personnel management calls for individuals with ________ qualities.
a.
Ordinary
b.
Sterling
c.
Basic
d.
Common
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Q133 mcq
A key quality of personnel manager is the willingness to let credit for success go to
a.
Themselves
b.
The CEO
c.
Line Managers
d.
Customers
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Q134 mcq
According to Howard Gardner, personnel managers need a ________ for gathering and integrating information from diverse sources.
a.
Creating mind
b.
Synthesizing mind
c.
Ethical mind
d.
Disciplined mind
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Q135 mcq
Assertion [A]: Personnel managers have executive skills. Reason [R]: Executive skills allow them to plan long term corporate strategies.
a.
[A] is true, but [R] is false
b.
Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is correct explanation
c.
[A] is false, but [R] is true
d.
Both [A] and [R] are true but [R] is not correct explanation of [A]
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Q136 mcq
The personnel manager must have intellectual integrity, enabled by freedom from ________, allowing objective view.
a.
Strict deadlines
b.
Financial constraints
c.
Bias
d.
Personal preferences
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Q137 mcq
Why is controlling essential in personnel management?
a.
Guarantees all get promoted
b.
It ensures personnel functions align with planned objectives
c.
Restricts decision making
d.
Eliminates need for training
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Q138 mcq
________ is the operative function mainly concerned with hiring personnel.
a.
Procurement
b.
Development
c.
Compensation
d.
Integration
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Q139 mcq
Why do modern industrial organizations prioritize personnel officers over welfare officers?
a.
Personnel officers handle broader strategic HR functions beyond welfare
b.
Welfare officers lost relevance
c.
Personnel officers prevent all disputes
d.
Welfare officers focus only on paperwork
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Q140 mcq
Which of the following is not a managerial function of personnel management?
a.
Planning
b.
Organising
c.
Directing
d.
Production (operative function)
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Q141 mcq
All decisions of the Shop Council shall be on the basis of ________ and not by voting.
a.
Majority rule
b.
Consensus
c.
Management directive
d.
Government order
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Q142 mcq
________ was formed in pursuance of recommendations of the meeting of Group on Labour at New Delhi in Sept 1985.
a.
Unit council
b.
Joint council
c.
Plant council
d.
Shop council
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Q143 mcq
________ involves a higher degree of sharing views and feelings of employees in decision making.
a.
Informative participation
b.
Decision participation
c.
Administrative participation
d.
Consultative participation
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Q144 mcq
Collective bargaining mainly aims to
a.
Allow unilateral wage fixation
b.
Facilitate joint negotiation of working conditions between employees and management
c.
Implement government orders
d.
Recruit staff
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Q145 mcq
In the human relations / humanitarian approach to labour, compulsion is replaced by
a.
Obedience
b.
Co-operation
c.
Compliance
d.
Discipline
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Q146 mcq
Match workers participation milestones in India: (a) Works Committee - 4. 1947 (ID Act) (b) Joint Management Council - 3. 1958 (c) Worker Director in Banks - 2. 1970 (d) Constitutional Scheme (20-point) - 1. 1975
a.
(a)-1, (b)-2, (c)-3, (d)-4
b.
(a)-4, (b)-3, (c)-2, (d)-1
c.
(a)-3, (b)-1, (c)-4, (d)-2
d.
(a)-2, (b)-4, (c)-1, (d)-3
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Q147 mcq
________ is a collaborative mechanism based on trust, information sharing and mutual problem solving.
a.
Quality circle
b.
Worker participation in management
c.
Collective bargaining
d.
Consultative engagement
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Q148 mcq
If an employee's salary is maintained, appointment to a post of lower status or fewer responsibilities constitutes
a.
Promotion
b.
Transfer
c.
Demotion
d.
Termination
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Q149 mcq
________ can never justify unfair discrimination in employment.
a.
Inherent Job requirement
b.
Affirmative action
c.
Prejudice
d.
Employment equity plan
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Q150 mcq
Match reasons for dismissal with categories: (a) Misconduct - 2. Dismissal due to repeated insubordination or theft (b) Incapacity - 3. Dismissal due to poor performance or long term illness (c) Operational requirements - 1. Dismissal due to restructuring or economic downturn
a.
(a)-2, (b)-3, (c)-1
b.
(a)-1, (b)-2, (c)-3
c.
(a)-3, (b)-1, (c)-2
d.
(a)-2, (b)-1, (c)-3
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Q151 mcq
The minimum bonus under the Code on Wages 2019 cannot be less than ________% of wages.
a.
5%
b.
8.33%
c.
10%
d.
15%
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Q152 mcq
Under which act were Labour Courts established in India?
a.
Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
b.
Trade Unions Act, 1926
c.
Factories Act, 1948
d.
Payment of Wages Act, 1936
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Q153 mcq
Labour courts and Industrial Tribunals are considered as
a.
Civil courts
b.
Quasi-judicial bodies
c.
Administrative bodies
d.
Criminal courts
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Q154 mcq
The legal nature of a Labour Court's award is
a.
Recommendatory and Advisory
b.
Advisory and Binding
c.
Binding on parties
d.
Appealable only
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Q155 mcq
Which of the following is not a function of the Labour Court?
a.
Adjudicating individual worker disputes
b.
Trying criminal cases
c.
Enforcing settlement awards
d.
Adjudicating standing order disputes
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Q156 mcq
The tenure of Grievance Redressal Committee members under Industrial Relations Code 2020 shall be
a.
1 year
b.
2 years
c.
3 years
d.
5 years
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Q157 mcq
The Grievance Redressal Committee in an industrial establishment aims to resolve
a.
Legal cases
b.
Layoffs and retrenchments
c.
Individual grievances of workers arising out of employment
d.
Strikes
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Q158 mcq
In the OSH Code 2020, 'OSH' stands for Occupational ________, Health and Working Conditions Code.
a.
Self
b.
Safety
c.
State
d.
Schedule
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Q159 mcq
A hazardous process under OSH Code 2020 is exemplified by
a.
Typing work
b.
Cold storage
c.
Use of toxic chemicals in manufacturing
d.
Printing operations
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Q160 mcq
Every establishment must register within ________ days of applicability of OSH Code 2020.
a.
60 days
b.
120 days
c.
360 days
d.
30 days
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Q161 mcq
General penalty for contravening provisions of Code on Wages 2019 is
a.
Imprisonment up to 6 months
b.
Fine up to Rs. 50,000
c.
Both imprisonment and fine
d.
No penalty
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Q162 mcq
________ framed classical objectives of industrial relations citing Kirkaldy in 1947.
a.
Richardson
b.
Nair and Nair citing Kirkaldy
c.
F.W. Taylor
d.
Henri Fayol
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Q163 mcq
The primary purpose of National Occupational Classification / Code is
a.
Classify jobs based on salary
b.
To categorize occupations systematically for economic and social analysis
c.
Rank by prestige
d.
Identify individual skills only
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Q164 mcq
Which of the following is not a primary function of a trade union?
a.
Protecting interests of workers
b.
Negotiating with employers
c.
Increasing employer profit
d.
Providing legal assistance to members
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Q165 mcq
The primary objective of industrial relations is
a.
To improve employee productivity
b.
To maintain industrial peace and harmony
c.
To enhance profits only
d.
To eliminate trade unions
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Q166 mcq
The Code on Social Security 2020 subsumes how many central labour legislations?
a.
7
b.
9
c.
11
d.
13
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Q167 mcq
The primary objective of Code on Wages 2019 is ensuring
a.
Minimum wages will be paid to all employees across sectors
b.
Maximum wages paid to all
c.
Bonus paid to all
d.
Dividends paid to all
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Q168 mcq
Under the Code on Wages 2019, minimum wages must be reviewed and revised at intervals not exceeding
a.
4 years
b.
5 years
c.
6 years
d.
7 years
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Q169 mcq
Industrial Tribunal under the Industrial Disputes Act 1947 is constituted by
a.
Appropriate Government (State Government and Central Government)
b.
Central Government only
c.
Labour Court
d.
Supreme Court
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Q170 mcq
Which body is empowered to adjudicate and issue binding awards in industrial disputes?
a.
Labour courts
b.
Industrial tribunals
c.
National Tribunals
d.
Both (A) and (B)
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Q171 mcq
Choose the option that falls outside standard internal sources of input in typical 360-degree feedback:
a.
Self-evaluation
b.
Peer input
c.
Supervisor Review
d.
External consultant rating
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Q172 mcq
Identify the most accurate statement about Laissez-Faire leadership style:
a.
Promotes active supervision and tight control
b.
Subordinates follow strict instructions
c.
The leader provides minimal guidance, allowing subordinates full freedom in decision-making
d.
Effective when employees are inexperienced
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Q173 mcq
Assertion [A]: Transformational leaders inspire followers to achieve extraordinary outcomes. Reason [R]: Transformational leadership emphasizes motivating followers by appealing to higher ideals and values.
a.
Both [A] and [R] are true, and [R] explains [A]
b.
Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] does not explain [A]
c.
[A] is true, but [R] is false
d.
[A] is false, but [R] is true
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Q174 mcq
Section of the Companies Act 2013 that mandates formation of Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) Committee is
a.
Section 134
b.
Section 135
c.
Section 136
d.
Section 137
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Q175 mcq
Select the item that does not belong to HRD sub-system directly:
a.
Organization Development
b.
Counselling
c.
Rewards
d.
Job Analysis (Core HR Planning/Design function)
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Q176 mcq
A primary tool used in HRP to record current employee competencies and qualifications for future requirements is
a.
Job Analysis
b.
Skills inventory
c.
Performance Appraisal
d.
Compensation Survey
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Q177 mcq
How did Code on Wages 2019 address inconsistencies in wage regulation in India?
a.
Eliminating state labour laws
b.
By introducing a universal minimum wage floor and simplifying wage definitions
c.
Abolishing performance incentives
d.
Setting uniform wages regardless of skill
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Q178 mcq
Why are profit-sharing schemes considered instrumental in maintaining industrial harmony?
a.
Reduce management interference
b.
Because they directly align worker goals with company success
c.
Replace formal salary structures
d.
Increase reliance on subsidies
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Q179 mcq
Assertion [A]: Mutual trust is a significant factor influencing outcome of collective bargaining. Reason [R]: Without trust, parties enter bargaining with suspicion reducing cooperation.
a.
Both true, but [R] does not explain [A]
b.
Both [A] and [R] are true, and [R] explains [A]
c.
[A] false, [R] true
d.
[A] true, [R] false
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Q180 mcq
Name the labour welfare theory that emphasizes welfare measures as a means to enhance worker efficiency and productivity:
a.
Paternalistic theory
b.
Public Relations theory
c.
Efficiency Theory
d.
Religion Theory
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Q181 mcq
Which act consolidates law relating to social security, extending coverage to organized and unorganized workers?
a.
Factories Act, 1948
b.
Industrial Relations Code, 2020
c.
Maternity Benefit Act, 2017
d.
Code on Social Security, 2020
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Q182 mcq
Industrial Counselling primarily focuses on
a.
Evaluating performance through feedback
b.
Providing legal remedies for contract violations
c.
Promoting emotional well-being and resolving human relations issues
d.
Enforcing discipline for misconduct
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Q183 mcq
Social security scheme providing Rs. 3000 monthly pension to unorganized workers on reaching 60 years:
a.
Ayushman Bharat PM-JAY
b.
Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY)
c.
Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maandhan (PM-SYM)
d.
National Pension Scheme
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Q184 mcq
What is the minimum age for a person to be considered an 'adult' under Factories Act 1948?
a.
16 years
b.
18 years
c.
21 years
d.
15 years
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Q185 mcq
What does Article 24 of the Constitution of India prohibit?
a.
Employment of women in night shifts
b.
Forced labour for adults
c.
Employment of children below the age of 14 in factories, mines or hazardous jobs
d.
Discrimination in employment based on caste
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Q186 mcq
Which of the following are mandatory health measures under the Factories Act, 1948? (i) Adequate ventilation and temperature control (ii) Weekly cleaning of floors (iii) Compulsory food allowance for hazardous work (iv) Sufficient and suitable lighting in all parts
a.
(i) only
b.
(i) and (ii) are correct
c.
(i) and (iv) are correct
d.
(i) and (iii) are correct
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Q187 mcq
According to Factories Act 1948 (Sec 41A), what committee is constituted by State Government for hazardous processes?
a.
Safety Management Committee
b.
Site Appraisal Committee
c.
Workers' Welfare Committee
d.
Machinery Inspection Committee
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Q188 mcq
How should a human resource manager perform their functions with employees?
a.
With sensitivity and feeling, sharing in the joys and sorrows of employees
b.
With strict rules and discipline only
c.
By prioritizing company goals over employee concerns
d.
By avoiding emotional involvement
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Q189 mcq
Which of the following best explains the role of HR managers in promoting labour welfare?
a.
Focus solely on legal compliance
b.
Act as counsellors and mediators between workers and management for welfare issues
c.
Restrict benefits to reduce costs
d.
Ignore employee welfare to prioritize profits
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Q190 mcq
Assertion [A]: Maintaining a healthy work-life balance is essential for managing stress effectively. Reason [R]: Continuous focus on work without personal time can lead to physical and psychological health problems.
a.
Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
b.
Both [A] and [R] are true but [R] is not correct explanation
c.
[A] is true, but [R] is false
d.
[A] is false, but [R] is true
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Q191 mcq
According to study by Kerala State Youth Commission, which sector reported highest level of job stress among young professionals?
a.
Gig economy
b.
Retail trade sector
c.
IT and media
d.
Banking and insurance
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Q192 mcq
Which of the following unsafe acts could directly lead to an industrial accident? 1. Removing safety devices 2. Working at unsafe speed 3. Using equipment properly 4. Taking a break during work hours
a.
1 and 2 are correct
b.
3 and 4 are correct
c.
1 and 4 are correct
d.
3 and 2 are correct
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Q193 mcq
Under Factories Act 1948, a reportable industrial accident is defined as an event causing bodily injury preventing work for period of
a.
24 hours
b.
48 hours or more
c.
12 hours
d.
72 hours
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Q194 mcq
Choose the incorrect statement regarding industrial safety principles:
a.
Minimizes occupational hazard exposure
b.
Focuses purely on operational speed regardless of risk
c.
Promotes accident-free environments
d.
Includes chemical hazard control
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Q195 mcq
Which topic is explicitly covered under safety standards declared by Central Government under OSH Code?
a.
Employee salary structures
b.
Hazards relating to Physical, Chemical, Biological agents
c.
Company promotional activities
d.
Taxation policy for industries
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Q196 mcq
Assertion [A]: Occupational hazards are an unavoidable part of all professions. Reason [R]: According to ILO, occupational hazards are risks inherent in certain jobs that can cause injury or illness.
a.
Both true and [R] is correct explanation
b.
Both true but [R] not explanation
c.
[A] is true, but [R] is false
d.
[A] is false, but [R] is true
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Q197 mcq
Identify the essential characteristic of industrial relations:
a.
Exclusively individualistic
b.
Involves dynamic interactions between employers, employees and government
c.
Static and unchanging over time
d.
Regulated solely by international laws
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Q198 mcq
Assertion [A]: Lack of transparent communication contributes to industrial disputes. Reason [R]: Communication gaps prevent early resolution of grievances and breed mistrust.
a.
[A] true, [R] false
b.
[A] false, [R] true
c.
Both true but [R] not correct explanation
d.
Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
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Q199 mcq
Match types of strikes: (a) General strike - 3. Strike involving wide section of workers across multiple sectors (b) Wildcat strike - 2. Unauthorized strike not approved by union leadership (c) Sympathy strike - 1. Strike in support of another group of workers (d) Sit down strike - 4. Workers stop working but remain inside workplace
a.
(a)-3, (b)-2, (c)-1, (d)-4
b.
(a)-1, (b)-4, (c)-3, (d)-2
c.
(a)-2, (b)-3, (c)-4, (d)-1
d.
(a)-4, (b)-1, (c)-2, (d)-3
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Q200 mcq
Which of the following is not a non-statutory (voluntary) method of dispute resolution?
a.
Voluntary arbitration
b.
Collective Bargaining
c.
Code of discipline
d.
Adjudication by industrial tribunals (Statutory compulsory method)
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