Find the wrong statement. Plea of forfeiture arise if the Lessee
a.
Denies the title of Lessor
b.
Lessee becomes Insolvent
Correct Answer
c.
By accepting subsequent Rent
d.
By breach of Lease agreement
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Forfeiture under a lease can arise on denial of the lessor's title, breach of an express condition, or other statutory grounds. Mere insolvency of the lessee is not, by itself, the standard ground stated here, so option (B) is the wrong statement. Acceptance of subsequent rent generally amounts to waiver of forfeiture, not a ground for it.
Q2mcq
Find out the wrong pair
a.
Right to for closure – Section 67
b.
Right to mesne mortgage – Section 78
Correct Answer
c.
Right to sue for mortgage money – Section 68
d.
Right to mortgage in possession – Section 72
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Section 78 of the Transfer of Property Act deals with the right of a mortgagee to suit for mortgage money in certain cases, not a 'right to mesne mortgage'. Thus pair (B) is incorrect. The other pairs correspond to the relevant mortgagee rights/provisions more closely.
Q3mcq
Which provision of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, describe the appointment of receiver?
a.
Section 63–A
b.
Section 69–A
Correct Answer
c.
Section 65–A
d.
Section 67–A
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Section 69A of the Transfer of Property Act provides for appointment of a receiver by the mortgagee in possession under certain circumstances. Hence option (B) is correct.
Q4mcq
Besides the mortgagor, which of the following person may institute a suit for redemption of the mortgaged property?
a.
any surety for the payment of the mortgage-debt
Correct Answer
b.
a receiver
c.
a tenant
d.
an arbitrator
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Under the Transfer of Property Act, the right to redeem can be exercised not only by the mortgagor but also by persons claiming through him or having a direct interest, such as a surety for the mortgage debt. The other listed persons do not ordinarily have such a statutory right.
Q5mcq
Once a mortgage always a mortgage – means
a.
Mortgage has no right to assign the mortgage debt to any other person
b.
Mortgage cannot be redeemed after the expiry of fixed period
c.
The mortgagor’s right to redeem the mortgage
Correct Answer
d.
Mortgagor has no right to assign right of redemption to any person
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
"Once a mortgage, always a mortgage" means the mortgage remains redeemable in essence, and the mortgagor retains the equitable right to redeem until it is lawfully extinguished. It prevents a mortgage from being converted into an absolute sale by clauses that clog redemption.
Q6mcq
Legal subrogation arises ———————
a.
By Operation of Customs
b.
By Operation of Tradition
c.
By Operation of Law
Correct Answer
d.
By Operation of Usage
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Legal subrogation arises by operation of law, not by custom, tradition, or usage. It is a statutory/equitable consequence recognized by law.
Q7mcq
Mortgage is defined under Section ______ provision of “Transfer of Property Act”, 1882.
a.
Section 48
b.
Section 58
Correct Answer
c.
Section 68
d.
Section 78
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Section 58 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 contains the definition of mortgage and the different kinds of mortgages. Therefore option (B) is correct.
Q8mcq
Under Section 6(c) of Transfer of Property Act, an easement right cannot be transferred apart from ________
a.
Non-dominant heritage
b.
Non-servient heritage
c.
Servient heritage
d.
Dominant heritage
Correct Answer
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
An easement is annexed to and cannot be transferred separately from the dominant heritage. Section 6(c) prohibits transfer of an easement apart from the dominant tenement/heritage.
Q9mcq
[A]: The essential elements of mortgage is that transfer of an interest in immovable property. [B]: Interest transferred should be an interest in specific immovable property.
a.
Both [A] and [B] are correct
Correct Answer
b.
Both [A] and [B] are wrong
c.
[A] correct [B] wrong
d.
[B] correct [A] wrong
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
A mortgage does require transfer of an interest in immovable property, and the interest must relate to specific immovable property. Therefore both statements are correct.
Q10mcq
The object of doctrine of Marshalling is to
a.
Protect the First Mortgagee
b.
Protect the Mortgagor
c.
Protect the subsequent Mortgagee
Correct Answer
d.
Protect the Last Mortgagor
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
The doctrine of marshalling is intended to protect the subsequent mortgagee by requiring the prior mortgagee to satisfy his claim in a manner that does not unfairly prejudice later interests, where possible.
🎉 10 Free Sample Solutions Completed
Unlock All 206 Questions & Solutions
Sign up free in seconds to unlock step-by-step AI answers for the remaining 196 questions.
Find out the following statements are true about liabilities of mortgagee in possession?
(i) Mortgagee must manage the property
(ii) Mortgagee collect the rents and profit
(iii) Mortgagee can sell the property
a.
(i) only
b.
(i) and (ii) only
c.
(i) and (iii) only
d.
(ii) and (iii) only
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
"A" agrees to sell "B" a hundred tons of oil. There is nothing whatever to show what kind of oil was intended. The agreement is void for __________ under __________ of Indian Contract Act, 1872.
a.
Unlawful, Section-2(i)
b.
Illegal, Section-2(g)
c.
Negligent, Section-30
d.
Uncertainty, Section-29
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Statement (S), Reasoning (R)
Statement [S]: “Lien” means the right of a person to retain possession of some goods belonging to another until some debtor claim of the person in possession is satisfied.
Reason [R]: To exercise the right of lien, possession must be rightful, not for a particular purpose and must be continuous.
a.
Statement is right, but Reasoning is wrong
b.
Both Statement and Reasoning are wrong
c.
Statement is wrong but Reasoning is right
d.
Both Statement and Reasoning are right
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Choose the correct matches:
(1) Farley vs Skinner – Compensation for non-pecuniary loss
(2) Graham vs Campbell – General and special damages classified
(3) Hadley vs Baxendale – Damages are compensatory, not penal
(4) Karsandas H. Thacker vs Saran Engg. Co. Ltd. – Loss of profits is special loss
a.
(1) and (3) are correct
b.
(2) and (3) are correct
c.
(1) and (4) are correct
d.
(3) and (4) are correct
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
‘A’ agrees to sell ‘B’ 100 bags of wheat of Rs. 1650/- per bag. Before delivery, the government bans private trading in wheat. The contract becomes void due to _____ under _____ of Indian Contract Act - 1872.
a.
Illegal or unlawful – Section-23
b.
Subsequent illegality – Section-56
c.
Supervening impossibility – Section-56
d.
Unenforceable – Section-64
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Assertion [A] : A public corporation can enter into contract and can sue or be sued for breach of contract.
Reason [R] : Even though a corporation is neither an agency nor a department of the government, the provisions of Art. 299 of the Constitution apply to a contract entered between a public Corporation and a private individual.
a.
Both [A] and [R] are correct; and [R] is correct explanation to [A]
b.
Both [A] and [R] are correct; and [R] is not correct explanation to [A]
c.
[A] is correct, and [R] is wrong
d.
[A] is wrong and [R] is correct
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Find the correct statements with regard to the characteristics of public corporations.
(i) A corporation is established by a statute
(ii) A corporation may be established by an executive order
(iii) A corporation may exercise its rights, perform its functions without following any rules
(iv) A corporation can possess, hold and dispose of property
(v) A corporation is not liable for breach of contract
a.
(ii), (iii) and (iv) only
b.
(i) and (iv) only
c.
(i), (iv) and (v) only
d.
(ii), (iii) and (v) only
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Match the following Tribunal with its year of creation:
(a) Industrial tribunal
(b) Income tax tribunal
(c) Railway rates tribunals
(d) Central Administrative Tribunal
a.
4 1 3 2
b.
2 4 1 3
c.
4 1 2 3
d.
1 3 2 4
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Assertion [A] : Decisions of Tribunals are administrative rather than judicial.
Reason [R] : A Tribunal reaches a finding of fact, applies law to such facts and decides legal questions objectively and not on the basis of executive policy.
a.
[A] is true but [R] is false
b.
Both [A] and [R] are true; and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
c.
[A] is false, [R] is true
d.
Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
In which case did the Supreme Court hold that a "fair hearing" has two justiciable elements: (i) an opportunity of hearing must be afforded and (ii) such opportunity must be a reasonable one?
a.
Indru Ramchand Bharvani v. Union of India (1988) 4 SCC
b.
Nandlal Bajaj v. State of Punjab (AIR 1981 SC)
c.
M.H. Hoskot v. State of Maharastra (AIR 1978 SC)
d.
Kavita v. State of Maharastra (AIR 1981 SC)
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Consider the following tribunals: (i) Settlement Commissioner, (ii) Conciliation officer, (iii) Advisory Board under Preventive Detention Laws, (iv) Speaker of Parliament or Legislative Assembly, (v) Payment of Wages Authority. In the above tribunals, which of the tribunals comes under the meaning of Art. 227 of the Constitution?
a.
(ii) and (iii) only
b.
(i), (iv) and (v) only
c.
(i) and (ii) only
d.
(ii), (iii) and (iv) only
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Assertion [A] : Administrative law has been described as the most “outstanding legal development of the twentieth century”. Reason [R] : The rapid growth of Administrative law in modern times is the indirect result of the growth of administrative powers and functions.
a.
[A] is true and [R] is correct explanation to [A]
b.
[A] is true and [R] is not correct explanation to [A]
c.
[A] is true but [R] is false
d.
[A] is false but [R] is correct
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Consider the following statements with respect to reasons for growth of Administrative law. In the above statements which is/are incorrect?
(i) The state has focused its policies towards the Welfare State.
(ii) The Judicial system proved to decide and settle all the disputes.
(iii) The Administrative Tribunals are not found by the rules of evidence and procedure while deciding complex problems.
(iv) The Legislative process was inadequate.
(v) Administrative authorities cannot take effective steps for enforcement of preventive steps.
a.
(i), (ii) and (iii) only
b.
(ii) and (iv) only
c.
(ii) and (v) only
d.
(i), (iii) and (iv) only
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
___________ remarks that “It is logically impossible to distinguish administrative law from constitutional law and all attempts to do so are artificial”.
a.
Ivor Jennings
b.
Dicey
c.
Garner
d.
Keith
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
In which of the following country constituted ‘Franks Committee’ to investigate elaborately into the working of various tribunals and quasi-judicial bodies?
a.
United states of America
b.
Britain
c.
India
d.
Canada
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Statement 1: The summons, when served personally on the person summoned, no need to give the duplicate copy of the summons to the person summoned.
Statement 2: Every person, on whom summons is served, sign a receipt.
a.
(1) and (2) are true
b.
(1) is true (2) is false
c.
(1) is false (2) is true
d.
(1) and (2) are false
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Match the following:
(a) Power to compel restoration of abducted females
(b) Search for persons wrongfully confined
(c) Power to declare certain publications forfeited and to issue search warrants
(d) Application to set aside declaration of forfeiture before high court
a.
2 1 3 4
b.
1 2 3 4
c.
3 2 4 1
d.
3 4 1 2
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
According to section 251(1) of the BNSS, if the offence is exclusively triable by the court of session, within how many days must the judge frame a charge against the accused?
a.
30 days
b.
60 days
c.
45 days
d.
90 days
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Assertion [A] : Court of session or magistrate may refer a case pending to High Court on any question of law.
Reason [R] : The question involved is as to validity of any act, ordinance, regulation etc.
a.
[A] is true : [R] is false
b.
Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is correct explanation
c.
[A] is false : [R] is true
d.
Both [A] and [R] is true; but [R] is not correct explanation
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
(i) Where the high court has on appeal reversed an order of acquittal of an accused person and convicted him and sentenced him to death or to imprisonment for life or imprisonment for a term of 10 years or more, may appeal to sessions court.
(ii) Appeal against conviction by High court dealt under section 420 of BNSS.
a.
(i) true (ii) false
b.
(i) false (ii) true
c.
(i) and (ii) are true
d.
(i) and (ii) are false
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Find out which of the following fact is not contempt of court.
(i) Wilful disobedience to decree
(ii) Publication of a video interfering judicial proceedings
(iii) Fair reporting of judicial proceeding
(iv) Publication of a newspaper without obstructing the course of justice
a.
(i) and (ii) only
b.
(ii) and (iii) only
c.
(iii) and (iv) only
d.
(iv) and (i) only
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Match the following under CPC provisions:
Facts
(a) Appeal from original order
(b) Revision
(c) Second appeal
(d) Right to lodge a caveat
CPC Provision
1. Sec. 148 A
2. Sec. 100
3. Sec. 115
4. Sec. 96
a.
1 2 3 4
b.
2 3 4 1
c.
4 3 2 1
d.
3 4 1 2
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Where a plaintiff is precluded by rules from instituting a further suit in respect of any particular cause of action, he shall not be entitled to institute a suit in respect of such cause of action in any court to which this code applies. This rule is stated in ___________ of C.P.C. 1908.
a.
Section 9 of C.P.C.
b.
Section 10 of C.P.C.
c.
Section 11 of C.P.C.
d.
Section 12 of C.P.C.
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Match the following (under order VIII, CPC-1908): Facts: (a) New ground of defence, (b) Exclusion of counter-claim, (c) Equitable set-off, (d) New facts pleaded. Statutory provisions: 1. Rule 6 c, 2. Rule 2, 3. Rule 8, 4. Rule 6.
a.
1 3 4 2
b.
1 2 3 4
c.
3 1 4 2
d.
4 1 2 3
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
In which case the supreme court held that “to claim backwages for the non-employment period the employee has to plead and prove that he was not gainfully employed”.
a.
UP State Brassware Corporation Ltd. and others V. Udai Narain Pandey
b.
Gujarat Tubes (p) Ltd. V. workmen
c.
TNSTC and others V. Shanmugam
d.
SAIL V. Federation of workers union
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Choose the right answers among type. If the discharge or dismissal was not justified, then the court or Tribunal have the following powers as per the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947.
a.
(i) and (ii) only
b.
(i), (ii) and (iii) only
c.
(i), (ii) and (iv) only
d.
(i) and (iv) only
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Any employer, workman, trade union or the prescribed representatives of the workmen aggrieved by the order of the certifying officer, __________ days from the date on which copies of the draft standing orders are sent, appeal to the appellate authority.
a.
within 30 days
b.
within 45 days
c.
within 60 days
d.
within 90 days
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Which of the following statement is correct in the light of chapter V-A of the I.D. Act 1947?
(i) Chapter V-A not applicable to industrial establishment having less than 50 workmen
(ii) Chapter V-A is applicable to industrial establishment which is seasonal in character
a.
(i) is correct (ii) is incorrect
b.
(i) is incorrect (ii) is correct
c.
(i) and (ii) are correct
d.
(i) and (ii) are incorrect
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
In the Bangalore Water Supply and Sewage Board v. R. Rajappa and others case, held by the Supreme Court in the definition of the term Industry, the number of Judges in this landmark judgment was:
a.
Five Judges
b.
Seven Judges
c.
Nine Judges
d.
Thirteen Judges
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Under the Industrial Disputes Act, the inability of an employer on account of shortage of raw materials to give employment to a workmen, whose name appears on the muster-rolls of his Industrial establishment and who has not been retrenched is considered as
a.
Retrenchment
b.
Termination
c.
Lay off
d.
Lock out
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Which of the following options is not included in the definition of “Wages” under the Industrial Disputes Act?
(i) Any gratuity payable on the termination of service
(ii) Any commission payable on the promotion of sales
(iii) Any travelling concession
(iv) Any dearness allowance
a.
(iv) only
b.
(iii) and (iv) only
c.
(i) and (ii) only
d.
(i) only
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Consider following statement and find out the true relating to strike
(a) There should be cession of work.
(b) The duration of cessation of work is immaterial
(c) Joining demonstration in connection with strike amounts to strike
a.
(a) only true
b.
(a) and (b) are true
c.
(c) only true
d.
(a) and (c) are true
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Which of the following options is a characteristic of trade union?
(i) Common Objective
(ii) Industrial action
(iii) Voluntary Association
(iv) Intermediary
a.
(iv) only
b.
(ii) and (iii) only
c.
(i), (iii) and (iv) only
d.
(ii) and (iv) only
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Any person who has attained the minimum age of ___________ years may become eligible to be a member of a registered trade union, subject to any rules of the trade union to the contrary.
a.
10
b.
12
c.
18
d.
15
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Which of the following statements are true about Employees’ Family Pension Scheme?
(i) It provides financial assistance to the family of the deceased employee.
(ii) The spouse and children of the deceased employee are eligible to receive benefits.
(iii) It provides medical benefits to the employees’ family.
a.
(i) only
b.
(i) and (ii) only
c.
(ii) and (iii) only
d.
(i) and (iii) only
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Assertion [A]: The Factories Act does not contain any specific provision for noise control.
Reason [R]: However, under the third schedule, “noise induced hearing loss” is mentioned as a notifiable disease.
a.
[A] is true but [R] is false
b.
Both [A] and [R] are true; and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
c.
[A] is false, [R] is true
d.
Both [A] and [R] are true but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
"The Government Transport Service Department was a motor transport undertaking within the meaning of section 2(g) of the Motor Transport Workers Act, 1961" is decided in ___________ case.
a.
Municipal council Raipur Vs State of Madhya Pradesh
b.
Government Transport Service Vs S.L. Mishra
c.
The State Transport Corporation Vs Government of Tamil Nadu
d.
Tamil Nadu State Transport Corporation vs Neethivilangan
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
In ___________ case it was decided that the Employees Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provisions Act 1952 is applicable for home workers engaged through contractors.
a.
Mangalore Gandhi Beedi works Vs Union of India
b.
Regional provident fund commissioner Vs Shiv Kumar
c.
Shanti Garments Pvt. Ltd. Vs Regional Provident Fund Commissioner
d.
P.G.T. components Pvt. Ltd. Noida Vs Assistant P.F. Commissioner, Employees Provident Fund Organisation
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Assertion [A]: Arrears of Provident fund contribution payable by public limited company cannot be recovered from Managing Director of the company.
Reason [R]: It is the company in which the principal employer not the Director.
a.
[A] is true but [R] is false
b.
Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
c.
[A] is false, [R] is true
d.
Both [A] and [R] is false
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Where temporary disablement results from the injury a half-monthly payment of the sum equivalent to _________% of monthly wages of the employee to be paid.
a.
25%
b.
50%
c.
75%
d.
100%
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Match the following based on the Employees Compensation Act - 1923:
(a) Medical Examination
(b) Contracting
(c) Insolvency of employer
(d) Remedies of employer against stranger
a.
3 4 2 1
b.
4 2 1 3
c.
2 1 3 4
d.
3 4 1 2
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Assertion [A]: A dissenting judgement, valuable and important though it may be, cannot count as part of the ratio.
Reason [R]: Dissenting judgement played no part in the court’s reaching their decisions.
a.
[A] is true but [R] is false
b.
Both [A] and [R] are false
c.
Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
d.
[A] is false but [R] is true
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Assertion [A]: Austin’s view that law is the command of sovereign is not supported by historical evolution of law when customs played a significant role in regulating human conduct.
Reason [R]: Customs still continue to be a potent source of law even after the coming into existence of the state.
a.
[A] is true but [R] is false
b.
Both [A] & [R] are true; and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
c.
[A] is false, [R] is true
d.
Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A] is correct
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Assertion [A]: The realist looks on the law as the command of the sovereign but his sovereign is not parliament but the judge.
Reason [R]: For the realist the sovereign is the court.
a.
[A] is true but [R] is false
b.
Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
c.
[A] is false, [R] is true
d.
Both [A] and [R] are false
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
The Doctrine of ___________ allows all those who deal with the company to assume that the provisions of the articles have been observed by the officers of the company.
a.
Indoor Management
b.
Constructive Notice
c.
Ultra Vires
d.
Golden Rule
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
“A living person has a mind which can have knowledge or intention and he has hands to carry out his intention. A corporation has none of these, it must act through living persons”. This statement was said by ___________.
a.
Marshall J.
b.
Haldane LC
c.
Lord Reid
d.
McCardie J.
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Which of the following committee is having power to examine the statement of affairs, recovery of property, taking over assets, sale of assets, review of audit reports and payment of dividends.
a.
Winding up Committee
b.
CSR Committee
c.
Both (A) & (B)
d.
Audit Committee
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Assertion [A]: Reconstruction implies the carrying on of an existing business in some altered form.
Reason [R]: So that, the persons interested in the business may remain substantially the same.
a.
[A] is only true
b.
[A] is false, but [R] is true
c.
[A] and [R] is true, and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
d.
[A] and [R] is true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Which of the following is incorrect statement, in reference to "property" defined under SARFAESI Act, 2002?
(1) Means immovable property
(2) Any debt or right to receive payment of money, which is secured only
(3) Intangible assets
a.
(2) only
b.
(1) & (2) only
c.
(2) & (3) only
d.
(1) & (3) only
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
The security creditor may require the borrower to discharge the liability within ___________ days from the date of notice under Section 13 of SARFAESI Act.
a.
15
b.
30
c.
45
d.
60
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
SARFAESI Act, 2002 shall not apply to which of the following debts:
(i) any security interest for securing repayment of financial asset exceeding one lakh rupees.
(ii) any security interest created in agricultural land.
(iii) where amount due is less than twenty percent of the principal and interest.
a.
(i) and (ii) only
b.
(ii) and (iii) only
c.
(i) and (iii) only
d.
(ii) only
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
(1) WAP – Wireless Access Portal
(2) ECS – Emergency Clearing System
(3) IVR – Integral Voice Response
(4) FNB – Fast Net Mobile
a.
(1) & (2) are correct
b.
(2) & (3) are correct
c.
(3) & (4) are correct
d.
(2) & (4) are correct
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
A person aggrieved by any order passed by the central authority under sections 20 and 21 of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 may file an appeal to the National Commission within a period of ___________ days.
a.
30 days
b.
15 days
c.
45 days
d.
60 days
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
As per section 134 of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, when a person is involved in an accident, he has to report it to the nearest police station within ___________ hours.
a.
2 hours
b.
48 hours
c.
24 hours
d.
12 hours
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
As per the Varadu (Vs) Suseelamma (1994) Act 31 (AP) case law, if the vehicle involved in causing the accident is uninsured, the ___________ or ___________ will be liable to satisfy the claim. Find out the correct answer.
a.
(i) and (iv)
b.
(i) and (ii)
c.
(iii) and (ii)
d.
(iii) and (iv)
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Match the following:
(a) House breaking
(b) Lurking house trespass by night
(c) Lurking house trespass
(d) House breaking by night
1. Section 446 I.P.C.
2. Section 444 I.P.C.
3. Section 443 I.P.C.
4. Section 445 I.P.C.
a.
1 2 3 4
b.
1 3 2 4
c.
4 2 3 1
d.
4 3 2 1
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Whoever, intending to take dishonestly any movable property out of the possession of any person without that person's consent, moves that property is known as ___________.
a.
Extortion
b.
Theft
c.
Robbery
d.
Dacoity
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
For the purpose of Section 85, BNS, 2023, husband or relative of husband of a woman subjecting her to cruelty, which of the following is not included as "cruelty"?
a.
any wilful disobedience by the husband
b.
any wilful conduct likely to drive the woman to commit suicide
c.
harassment of the woman with a view to coercing her to meet unlawful demand
d.
harassment of the woman with a view to coercing any person related to her to meet any unlawful demand
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
The Central Government constitutes the National Human Rights Commission. This Commission consists of:
(i) Chairperson who has been the Chief Justice of Supreme Court
(ii) One member who has been judge of Supreme Court
(iii) One member who has been the Chief Justice of High Court
(iv) One member who has been the judge of High Court
a.
(i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
b.
(i), (ii) and (iii) only
c.
(i) and (ii) only
d.
(ii), (iii) and (iv) only
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
The National Human Rights Commission shall inquire suo motu in violation of human rights as per the __________ of the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.
a.
Section 13
b.
Section 12(a)
c.
Section 12(b)
d.
Section 12(d)
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
In which one of the following cases was the question placed before the Supreme Court whether it could entertain an appeal under Article 136 of the Constitution against an award of an Industrial Tribunal?
a.
Manoj Kumar Rai (Vs) Union of India
b.
Sangram Singh (Vs) Election Tribunal
c.
Dunlop India Ltd (Vs) Union of India
d.
Bharat Bank (Vs) Employees of Bharat Bank
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Match the following:
(a) Bashernath v. I.T. Commissioner
(b) Marbury v. Madison
(c) Bhikaji Narain v. State of M.P.
(d) A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
Find the correct answer code.
1. Doctrine of Eclipse
2. Doctrine of Severability
3. Doctrine of Judicial Review
4. Waiver of Fundamental Rights
a.
1 2 3 4
b.
1 3 2 4
c.
4 3 1 2
d.
4 1 3 2
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
The term 'other authorities' in Article 12 includes a body as a State if: (i) The entire share capital is held by the government; (ii) It have independent personality in the eye of law; (iii) The functions performed are of public importance.
a.
(i) and (iii) only
b.
(ii) only
c.
(ii) and (iii) only
d.
(i) only
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Consider the following statements with regard to 'Constitution': (i) It deals with structure, composition and organization of legislature. (ii) Powers and functions of the various organs of the government. (iii) The legislature acts as source of the constitution. (iv) Three organs of the government are independent each other. In the above statements, which is/are wrong?
a.
(i) and (iv) only
b.
(ii) and (iii) only
c.
(i) and (ii) only
d.
(iii) and (iv) only
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Which Article consists the following three components? (i) It is a right pertaining to a person accused of an offence (ii) It is a protection against compulsion to be a witness; and (iii) It is a protection against such compulsion resulting in his giving evidence against himself
a.
Article 21
b.
Article 20(2)
c.
Article 19(3)
d.
Article 20(3)
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
In which case, the Supreme Court of India has recognised that the constitutional conventions are enforceable? Choose the correct answer code given below: (i) Ram Jawaya V. State of Punjab (AIR 1955 SC) (ii) U.N. Rao V. Indira Nehru Gandhi (AIR 1971 SC) (iii) Samsher Singh V. State of Punjab (AIR 1974 SC) (iv) Keshavananda Bharati V. State of Kerala (AIR 1973 SC)
a.
(i) and (ii) only
b.
(iii) and (iv) only
c.
(i), (ii) and (iv) only
d.
(i), (ii) and (iii) only
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Which of the following cases is correctly matched with the principle that the executive power of the State extends to matters on which the Legislature has power to make laws?
a.
Ram Jawaya V. State of Punjab (AIR 1955 SC)
b.
U.N. Rao V. Indira Nehru Gandhi (AIR 1971 SC)
c.
Samsher Singh V. State of Punjab (AIR 1974 SC)
d.
Keshavananda Bharati V. State of Kerala (AIR 1973 SC)
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Which kind of bonus is not suggested by the Supreme Court of India in The New Maneck Chowk Spinning and Weaving Co. Ltd. v. Textile Labour Association, Ahmedabad?
a.
Production Bonus
b.
War Bonus
c.
Profit Bonus
d.
Customary Bonus
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
The maximum bonus payable to any employee in any accounting year shall be subject to a maximum of ________ percentage of salary or wage of the employee, as per the Payment of Bonus Act, 1965.
a.
10 percent
b.
20 percent
c.
25 percent
d.
50 percent
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Every register and record required to be maintained for the purpose of the Payment of Wages Act to be preserved for a period of ___________ years after the date of the last entry made therein.
a.
5 years
b.
6 years
c.
3 years
d.
4 years
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
According to Payment of Wages Act, 1936, the fine imposed on any employed person, shall not be recovered from him after the expiry of ___________ days from the day on which it was imposed.
a.
30 days
b.
45 days
c.
60 days
d.
90 days
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
