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TNPSC · GENERAL STUDIES GENERAL INTELLIGENCE AND REASONING

TNPSC GENERAL STUDIES GENERAL INTELLIGENCE AND REASONING 2026

2026 · 200 questions · First 10 Solutions Free
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Q1 mcq
Which of the following statement/s is/are true about Papa Umanath of Tamil Nadu? (1) She was the first woman in South India to have been arrested by the British for Salt Sathyagraha. (2) She organised a Peasant movement in Thuvariman Village. (3) She became part of the Ponmalai Women's Association. (4) She joined the Congress Party in 1945.
a.
(1) and (2) are true
b.
(2) and (4) are true
c.
(1) and (4) are true
d.
(2) and (3) are true Correct Answer
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Rukmini Lakshmipathi was the first woman in South India to be arrested for the Salt Satyagraha, so statement (1) is incorrect. Papa Umanath organized a peasant movement in Thuvariman village near Madurai and was actively associated with the Ponmalai Golden Rock railway strike and women's movement, making statements (2) and (3) correct. She joined the Communist Party of India (CPI) in 1945, not the Congress Party, so statement (4) is incorrect.
Q2 mcq
Which is/are the following facts about Thomas Munroe correct? (i) He introduced Ryotwari system. (ii) He donated a big vessel to Tirupathi Tirumala temple. (iii) He replaced pagoda with rupee.
a.
(i) only
b.
(ii) and (iii) only
c.
(i) and (ii) only Correct Answer
d.
(i) and (iii) only
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Sir Thomas Munro introduced the Ryotwari settlement in the Madras Presidency. He also famously donated a huge cooking vessel ('Munro Gangalam') to the Tirumala Venkateswara Temple at Tirupati. The replacement of the star pagoda with the silver rupee occurred around 1818 before he became Governor (1820–1827). Therefore, statements (i) and (ii) are correct.
Q3 mcq
Speaking bitterly when sweet words prevail, is eating the sour for ripe fruits in the couplet, which of the following human values is stressed for human good relations?
a.
Not to use harsh words Correct Answer
b.
Not to speak meaningless words
c.
Not to speak untruthful words
d.
Not to use unknowledgeable words
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
The question refers to Thirukkural couplet 100: 'இனிய உளவாக இன்னாத கூறல் / கனியிருப்பக் காய்கவர்ந் தற்று', which advises that using harsh words when pleasant words are available is like eating unripe fruit when ripe fruit is at hand. Thus, the value stressed is avoiding harsh words ('Not to use harsh words').
Q4 mcq
According to Valluvar to whom poverty will be pondered?
a.
Righteous Correct Answer
b.
Thieves
c.
Baseness
d.
Evil friends
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
According to Thiruvalluvar under the chapter 'நடுவுநிலைமை' (Uprightness/Righteousness), the poverty (loss) or prosperity of a righteous person is remembered and pondered with esteem by the world.
Q5 mcq
Choose the correct matches from the given matches: (1) Chera King - Vanji-Thondi (2) Chola King - Madurai-Korkai (3) Pandiya king - Uraiyur-Poombugar (4) King Ashoka - Samba Inscription
a.
(3) and (4) only
b.
(1) and (4) only Correct Answer
c.
(2) and (3) only
d.
(4) and (2) only
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Chera King is correctly matched with Vanji and Thondi. Chola King should be matched with Uraiyur and Poompuhar, while Pandiya King should be matched with Madurai and Korkai (they are interchanged in 2 and 3). Therefore, (1) and (4) are the correct matches.
Q6 mcq
Match the Sangam books published by U.V.SA. with the years they were published : (a) Pathupattu 1. 1903 (b) Purananuru 2. 1889 (c) Ingurunuru 3. 1904 (d) Pathitrupathu 4. 1894
a.
4 1 2 3
b.
2 4 1 3 Correct Answer
c.
3 2 4 1
d.
1 4 3 2
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
U.V. Swaminatha Iyer published Pathupattu in 1889 (a - 2), Purananuru in 1894 (b - 4), Ingurunuru (Ainkurunuru) in 1903 (c - 1), and Pathitrupathu in 1904 (d - 3). Thus, the correct match is 2, 4, 1, 3.
Q7 mcq
People living in BC 6th century were literate. Because, (1) The pot found at the Keezhadi has Tamizhi scripts engraved on it. (2) Most of the pots found at the Keezhadi were inscribed with letters after the pot had dried (3) The black and red coloured pots found in Keezhadi have the image of God engraved on them. (4) The letter written on the pot were in the same script.
a.
(1) only correct
b.
(2) only correct
c.
(3) and (4) are correct
d.
(1) and (2) are correct Correct Answer
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Potsherds unearthed at Keezhadi contain Tamizhi (Tamil-Brahmi) inscriptions dating back to the 6th century BCE. The fact that the scripts were scratched post-firing (after the pots had dried/been fired) indicates that the pots were inscribed by their individual owners rather than by potters, establishing widespread literacy among ordinary people.
Q8 mcq
Consider the following statements and find the correct statements. During Peraringnar Anna's rule, preferences were given to Tamil language. Many steps were taken by him to incorporate Tamil in different fields. (i) Removed 'Satyameva Jayate' from the Government Motto and incorporated the Tamil words 'Vaimaye Vellum' in it. (ii) The name board 'Tamilaga Arasu Thalaimai Cheiyalakam' was opened in St. George Fort for the first time. (iii) Measures were taken to write Thirukkural verses on Tamil Nadu Government buses.
a.
(i) only
b.
(i) and (iii) only
c.
(i) and (ii) only
d.
(i), (ii) and (iii) Correct Answer
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
During the tenure of Chief Minister C. N. Annadurai (Perarignar Anna), the state motto was changed from 'Satyameva Jayate' to 'Vaimaye Vellum', the Secretariat at Fort St. George was named 'Tamilaga Arasu Thalaimai Cheyalagam', and Thirukkural verses were inscribed in state-run transport buses. All three statements are correct.
Q9 mcq
Consider the following statements : Assertion [A]: Lokmanya Tilak preferred to replace Swaraj and redesigned it as Home Rule Reason [R] : The British Government was quite allergic to the term Swaraj and considered it seditious.
a.
[A] is true but [R] is false
b.
[A] is false but [R] is true
c.
Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]
d.
Both [A] and [R] are true; and [R] is the correct explanation of [A] Correct Answer
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Lokmanya Tilak adopted the term 'Home Rule' instead of 'Swaraj' because the colonial government viewed 'Swaraj' as seditious and synonymous with complete overthrow of British rule, whereas 'Home Rule' stood on firm constitutional ground representing self-governance within the British Empire.
Q10 mcq
Choose the correctly matched pairs from the following. (1) Dharmalayam - V.V. Subramaniam (2) Bharata Mata Sangam - Neelakanta Bramachari (3) Bharathi Ashramam - V.O. Chidambaram (4) Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company - Subramania Siva
a.
(1) and (3) are correct
b.
(1) and (2) are correct Correct Answer
c.
(2) and (3) are correct
d.
(3) and (4) are correct
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Pairs (1) and (2) are correctly matched. Bharata Mata Sangam was founded by Nilakanta Brahmachari in 1910. In contrast, Bharathi Ashramam was established by Subramania Siva (not V.O.C.), and the Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company was founded by V.O. Chidambaram Pillai (not Subramania Siva).
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Q11 mcq
Arrange the following Governors of Madras Presidency in chronological order. (1) Lushington (2) Thomas Munroe (3) Huge Elliot (4) George Barlow
a.
(4), (3), (1), (2)
b.
(3), (2), (1), (4)
c.
(4), (3), (2), (1)
d.
(1), (2), (3), (4)
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Q12 mcq
The Ramakrishna Mission upholds Vedanta Doctrine (i) To protect ancient culture of India. (ii) To develop highest spirituality inherent in man. (iii) To believe in the truth of Hindu religion only.
a.
(i) and (ii) only
b.
(i) only
c.
(ii) and (iii) only
d.
(i) and (iii) only
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Q13 mcq 1 mark
Arrange the following events with regard to South Indian Rebellion in chronological order. (1) Tirunelveli confederacy (2) Dindugal confederacy (3) Peninsular confederacy (4) Regional leagues
a.
(3), (1), (2), (4)
b.
(2), (4), (1), (3)
c.
(4), (1), (2), (3)
d.
(4), (3), (2), (1)
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Q14 mcq 1 mark
Choose the right matches among the following Settlements/Headquarters (1) Santhome - The Portuguese (2) Port Nova - The Dutch (3) Tranquebar - The English (4) Devanampattinam - The French
a.
(1) and (3) are correct
b.
(1) and (2) are correct
c.
(2) and (3) are correct
d.
(3) and (4) are correct
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Q15 mcq 1 mark
Which of the following is incorrectly paired? (1) Namakku Naame Thittam - Bus shelters (2) Thozhi - Monthly allowance of Rs. 1,000 (3) Namma Ooru Superu - Anganwadis (4) Pudhumai Penn Scheme - Hostel scheme for women
a.
(1) and (3)
b.
(2) and (4)
c.
(1) and (2)
d.
(3) and (4)
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Q16 mcq 1 mark
Identify the correct statements about Dr. Dharmambal Ammaiyar Ninaivu Widow Remarriage Assistance Scheme. (i) There is an income ceiling and educational qualification prescribed to avail benefit under the scheme. (ii) The degree/diploma holders are given 50,000, out of which 30,000 through ECS and 20,000 given as National Savings Certificate. (iii) The degree/diploma holders are also given 8 gram 22 carat gold coin.
a.
(i) only
b.
(i) and (ii) only
c.
(i) and (iii) only
d.
(ii) and (iii) only
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Q17 mcq 1 mark
Match correctly the Tamilnadu State Public Sector undertakings with their corresponding established year: (a) Tamilnadu Industrial Investment Corporation - 1. 1949 (b) Tamilnadu Civil Supplies Corporation - 2. 1965 (c) Tamilnadu Industrial Development Corporation - 3. 1971 (d) State Industries Promotion Corporation of Tamilnadu - 4. 1972
a.
1 2 3 4
b.
1 4 3 2
c.
4 3 2 1
d.
1 4 2 3
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Q18 mcq
Consider the following statements, choose the correct answer: (i) Kasturba Gandhi Balika Vidyalaya located in Chennai and Thoothukudi District. (ii) EMIS - is the Grievance Redressal Mechanisms for the TN Government Employees. (iii) Chief Minister's "Nutritive Vegetable Garden Schemes" aimed towards "House wives". (iv) The Nutritive Vegetable Garden Scheme is for the people living in the Urban areas.
a.
(i) and (ii) only correct
b.
(ii) and (iii) only correct
c.
(iii) and (iv) only correct
d.
(iv) and (i) only correct
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Q19 mcq
Choose the right matches from the following. (1) SITN - Simplify TN (2) SeMT - State e-Mission Team (3) ARIVU - Natural Language Processing Chatbot jointly developed by TNeGA and Anna University (4) CEET - Centre for Emerging Electronic Technologies
a.
(1) and (2) only
b.
(1) and (3) only
c.
(2) and (3) only
d.
(3) and (4) only
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Q20 mcq
Consider the following statements: Assertion [A]: The word 'Tahsildar' is derived from the Mughal word 'tahsil', meaning 'revenuegenerating area'. Reason [R]: Since the 'Tahsil' were renamed as taluks, The Tahsildars were called Taluk Officers.
a.
[A] is true but [R] is false
b.
Both [A] and [R] are true; and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
c.
[A] is false, [R] is true
d.
Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A] is correct
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Q21 mcq
Tamilnadu Government Service Rules are made under the provision of power confered by Indian Constitution provides in
a.
Article 360
b.
Article 365
c.
Article 309
d.
Article 311
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Q22 mcq
Which of the following are related to evolution of Tamilnadu Administration is incorrectly paired? (1) 1800 - Political Department (2) 1751 - Ecclesiastical Department (3) 1843 - Public Works Department (4) 1809 - Post of Chief Secretary
a.
(1) and (3)
b.
(2) and (4)
c.
(2) and (3)
d.
(3) and (4)
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Q23 mcq
Which of the following is incorrectly paired with regard to educating children with special needs? (1) PECS - Picture Exchange Communication System (2) ADHD - Attention Disorder and Hyperactivity Deficit (3) ABA - Applied Behaviour Analysis (4) ASD - Autism Spectrum Deficiency
a.
(1) and (3)
b.
(2) and (4)
c.
(2) and (3)
d.
(1) and (4)
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Q24 mcq
Match the following : Space Station/Centre: (a) Vikram Sarabai Space Centre (b) Satish Dhawan Space Centre (c) Indian Institute of Remote Sensing (d) Down Range Station Place: 1. Andaman Islands - Port Blair 2. Dehradun 3. Sriharikota 4. Thiruvananthapuram
a.
4 3 2 1
b.
3 2 4 1
c.
2 3 1 4
d.
2 4 3 1
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Q25 mcq
Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer. (1) Public procurement in India reached upto 20-25% of the GDP (2) Government e-Market place (GeM) was conceptualised as a special purpose vehicle. (3) Government e-Market promotes inclusive development, corruption - free governance. (4) Government e-Market place in the digital portal was set up in August 2006.
a.
(1) and (2) are correct
b.
(3), (2) and (1) are correct
c.
(3) and (4) only correct
d.
(1) only correct
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Q26 mcq
Match the following : Article: (a) Article 243 A (b) Article 243 I (c) Article 243 K (d) Article 243 O Subject: 1. Gram Sabha 2. State Finance Commission 3. State Election Commission 4. Bar to interference by Courts
a.
1 2 3 4
b.
2 3 1 4
c.
1 3 2 4
d.
3 1 2 4
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Q27 mcq
Match the following given below: (a) Dhar Commission — 1. Panchayat Raj (b) Mandal Commission — 2. Fundamental Duties (c) Swaran Singh Committee — 3. States - Reorganisation (d) Ashok Mehta Committee — 4. Reservation Correct order: (a) (b) (c) (d)
a.
3 4 2 1
b.
1 3 4 2
c.
2 1 3 4
d.
4 2 1 3
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Q28 mcq
Match the following Articles of the Indian Constitution with the Provisions concerned: (a) Article 178 — 1. Power of Deputy Speaker to perform the duties of Speaker (b) Article 180 — 2. The Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the Legislative Assembly (c) Article 182 — 3. Power of Deputy Chairman to perform the duties of Chairman (d) Article 184 — 4. The Chairman and Deputy Chairman of the Legislative Council Correct order: (a) (b) (c) (d)
a.
3 4 1 2
b.
2 4 1 3
c.
2 1 4 3
d.
1 4 3 2
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Q29 mcq
Which of the following feature for amending Indian Constitution requires ratification by not less than half of the State legislatures? (i) Addition of a new principle (ii) Abolition of Fundamental Rights (iii) Amendment in the power of the Supreme Court (iv) Change in the powers of the States
a.
(i) and (iii) only
b.
(i) and (ii) only
c.
(ii) and (iii) only
d.
(iii) and (iv) only
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Q30 mcq
Reason and Assertion type: Assertion [A]: The Prime Minister is not responsible for the appointment of the Ministers and allocation of work among them. Reason [R]: The Prime Minister is the leader of the majority party in the Lok-Sabha and also he is the Head of the Council of Ministers
a.
[A] is true, but [R] is false.
b.
[A] is false, but [R] is true.
c.
Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation of [A].
d.
Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A].
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Q31 mcq
Under Indian Constitution which of the following is/are not a Fundamental Duties? (a) To protect and improve the natural environment. (b) To safeguard public property and to abjure violence. (c) To promote International peace and security.
a.
(a) only
b.
(a) and (b)
c.
(c) only
d.
(b) and (c)
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Q32 mcq
Consider the following statements: Assertion [A]: Religious instruction shall be provided in any educational institution wholly provided by the State funds. Reason [R]: A State should maintains a neutral and impartial attitude towards all religions.
a.
[A] is true but [R] is false
b.
Both [A] and [R] are true; and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
c.
[A] is false, [R] is true
d.
Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A] is correct
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Q33 mcq
In case, a member of the Tamilnadu Cabinet wants to resign his/her Ministerial post; to whom he/she may submit the resignation letter?
a.
To the Chief Minister
b.
To the Governor
c.
To the Speaker of the Legislative Assembly
d.
To the President of his/her political party
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Q34 mcq
The ways of losing citizenship under the Constitution of India are (1) When an Indian citizen voluntarily acquires the citizenship of another country. (2) The citizen has been ordinarily resident out of India for seven years continuously. (3) The citizen has been imprisoned in any country for two years. Select the correct answer using code given below :
a.
(1) and (2) only
b.
(2) and (3) only
c.
(2) only
d.
(1), (2) and (3)
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Q35 mcq
Choose the right matches. (1) UK - Bicameral Legislature (2) USSR - Independent Judiciary (3) Australia - Five Year Plan (4) US - Removal of Supreme Court and High Court Judges
a.
(1) and (3)
b.
(2) and (3)
c.
(1) and (4)
d.
(4) and (2)
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Q36 mcq
Choose the right matches (1) Quasi-Federal - K.C. Wheare (2) Bargaining Federalism - C.R. Dass (3) Co-operative Federalism - Granville Austin (4) Federation with a Centralising Tendency - Jawaharlal Nehru
a.
(1) and (3) only
b.
(1) and (2) only
c.
(2) and (3) only
d.
(3) and (4) only
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Q37 mcq
Arrange the following events in chronological order based on geographical area (1) WAN (2) PAN (3) MAN (4) LAN
a.
(1), (2), (3), (4)
b.
(2), (4), (3), (1)
c.
(2), (3), (4), (1)
d.
(3), (4), (2), (1)
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Q38 mcq
Consider the following statements: Assertion [A] : In relational database a foreign key in one table is used to reference the primary key in another table. Reason [R] : Foreign key is used to ensure the referential integrity between table.
a.
[A] is true but [R] is false
b.
Both [A] and [R] are true
c.
Both [A] and [R] are false
d.
[A] is false but [R] is true
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Q39 mcq
Choose the incorrect matches (1) Albert Bruce Sabin - Live Polio Vaccine (2) Max Theiler - BCG Vaccine (3) Jonas Salk - Killed Polio Vaccine (4) Albert Calmette - Yellow Fever Vaccine
a.
(1) and (3)
b.
(1) and (2)
c.
(2) and (4)
d.
(3) and (4)
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Q40 mcq
Which of the following statements are true about M.S. Swaminathan? (i) He was the Father of Green Revolution in India (ii) He was an Agronomist and Plant Geneticist (iii) He wrote the book "Cotton" (iv) He was a Pioneer in mutation plant breeding
a.
(i), (ii) and (iii) only
b.
(i) and (iii) only
c.
(i), (ii) and (iv) only
d.
(ii) and (iii) only
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Q41 mcq
Mention the tool used for detecting specific DNA sequences in molecular diagnostics.
a.
Southern Blotting
b.
ELISA
c.
PCR
d.
Flow cytometry
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Q42 mcq
Choose the correct answer: (1) Natural Polymer - DNA (2) Synthetic Polymer - PVC (3) Addition Polymerisation - Loss of $\text{H}_2\text{O}$, $\text{HCl}$, $\text{NH}_3$ (4) Condensation Polymerisation - Monomer Addition
a.
(1) and (4) are correct
b.
(2) and (3) are correct
c.
(1) and (2) are correct
d.
(4) and (3) are correct
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Q43 mcq
Match correctly the gaseous fuels with their corresponding calorific values: (a) Oil gas — 1. 12,000 to 14,000 $\text{K.cal/m}^3$ (b) Natural gas — 2. 4,500 to 5,400 $\text{K.cal/m}^3$ (c) Producer gas — 3. 27,800 $\text{K.cal/m}^3$ (d) Liquefied petroleum gas — 4. 1,300 $\text{K.cal/m}^3$
a.
(a)-2, (b)-1, (c)-4, (d)-3
b.
(a)-2, (b)-3, (c)-4, (d)-1
c.
(a)-4, (b)-1, (c)-2, (d)-3
d.
(a)-4, (b)-2, (c)-1, (d)-3
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Q44 mcq
The most important use of Schmitt trigger circuit is to convert
a.
A very slowly varying input voltage into an output having an abrupt waveform
b.
Steady input into a steady output waveform
c.
Abrupt input into a very slowly varying output
d.
A Sawtooth waveform to a square waveform
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Q45 mcq
Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about the techniques used for nanomaterial synthesis? (i) Ordered structural organisation of molecules occur when the system is in equilibrium without dissipating energy which is called static self assembly. (ii) Electron beam Lithography uses beam of electromagnetic wave to generate patterns for integrated circuits at nanoscale. (iii) Atomic force microscope tips can be used as a nanoscale write head to deposit chemicals on a surface.
a.
(i) and (ii) only
b.
(i) and (iii) only
c.
(ii) and (iii) only
d.
(ii) only
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Q46 mcq
Which of the following statements are true about "SWAVALAMBAN"? (i) Empower the women in Gandhian way of Self-reliance (ii) Market led vocational skill building initiative (iii) Initiated in the year 2001
a.
(i) only
b.
(i) and (ii) only
c.
(ii) and (iii) only
d.
(i) and (iii) only
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Q47 mcq
Arrange the following in chronological order : (1) Scheduled Castes Development Corporations (SCDCs). (2) Rajiv Gandhi National Fellowship Scheme for SC students. (3) National Scheduled Castes Finance and Development Corporation. (4) Scheduled Castes Sub-Plan.
a.
(4), (3), (2), (1)
b.
(1), (4), (3), (2)
c.
(3), (2), (4), (1)
d.
(4), (3), (1), (2)
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Q48 mcq
Which of the following are incorrectly paired? (1) SCDC - South Asian Countries Development Corporation (2) TRIFED - The Tribal Cooperative Marketing Development Federation of India (3) NSFDC - The National Scheduled Castes Fortune Development Corporation (4) LAMS - Large Area Multi-Purpose Societies
a.
(1) and (3) are incorrect
b.
(1) and (2) are incorrect
c.
(2) and (3) are incorrect
d.
(3) and (4) are incorrect
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Q49 mcq
Which is/are the aim(s) of the National Medical Commission Bill, 2019? (i) to improve access to quality and affordable medical education and high quality medical professionals in all parts of the country. (ii) to improve access, research and development and adoption of latest scientific advancement. (iii) to establish 75 New medical colleges.
a.
(i) only
b.
(ii) and (iii) only
c.
(i) and (ii) only
d.
(i) and (iii) only
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Q50 mcq
Which of the following statements are true about Child Bonded Labourers in Tamil Nadu? (i) Out of the total number of bonded labourers in Tamil Nadu, 8.7% are found to be children. (ii) Most of them were found as Domestic Workers. (iii) Governments of Tamil Nadu allots Rs.1.25 crore every year towards payment of immediate assistance to the rescued bonded labourers.
a.
(i) only
b.
(i) and (iii) only
c.
(i) and (ii) only
d.
(ii) and (iii) only
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Q51 mcq
Consider the following statements : Assertion [A] : A large part of our Social and Technical skills are acquired through deliberate instruction. Reason [R] : For imparting Education, Govt. of India allocates Rs. 1.29 lakh crores in 2025-26.
a.
[A] is true but [R] is false
b.
Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
c.
[A] is false [R] is true
d.
Both [A] and [R] are true but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]
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Q52 mcq
Which among the following statements are true about Vetri Nichayam scheme? (i) This scheme has been introduced to upskill the unemployed youth. (ii) This scheme targets all the students aged 18-35 years. (iii) This scheme includes school dropouts also as beneficiaries.
a.
(i) and (ii) only
b.
(ii) and (iii) only
c.
(i) and (iii) only
d.
(i), (ii) and (iii) all
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Q53 mcq
Arrange the following states having the population in the age group of 60 and above as per 2011 census with ascending order. (1) West Bengal (2) Andhra Pradesh (3) Bihar (4) Maharashtra (5) Uttar Pradesh (6) Tamil Nadu
a.
(1), (4), (6), (3), (2), (5)
b.
(5), (1), (2), (4), (6), (3)
c.
(4), (2), (3), (1), (5), (6)
d.
(3), (5), (2), (1), (4), (6)
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Q54 mcq
Which scheme transformed as the "Moovalur Ramamirtham Ammaiyar Higher Education Assurance scheme"?
a.
Magalir Urimai Thogai Scheme
b.
Moovalur Ramamirtham Ammaiyar Marriage Assistance Scheme
c.
Annai Theresa Ninaivu Marriage Assistance Scheme for orphan girls
d.
Dr. Muthulakshmi Reddy Ninaivu Inter Caste Marriage Assistance Scheme
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Q55 mcq
Consider the following statements: Assertion [A] : Unemployment is the major social problems causing sickness, personal, family and community disorganization. Reason [R] : Social provisions for financial aid to those who face economic disabilities alleviates the suffering which unemployed entails.
a.
Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not correct explanation of [A]
b.
[A] is true; but [R] is false
c.
Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
d.
[A] is false; [R] is true
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Q56 mcq
Choose the Right Matches. (1) Grains Portal - To Access Food Grains (2) Jack Mission - Promotes Production of Jack Fruit (3) Moringa Mission - Export Zones for Health Benefiting crops (4) Uzhavar Aluvalar Thodarbu Thittam - To create farmers Database
a.
(1) and (3) are correct
b.
(1) and (2) are correct
c.
(2) and (3) are correct
d.
(3) and (4) are correct
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Q57 mcq
Arrange the following in chronological order (i) TIIC (ii) TANSI (iii) SIDCO (iv) SIPCOT
a.
(iv), (ii), (iii), (i)
b.
(iii), (ii), (iv), (i)
c.
(ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
d.
(i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
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Q58 mcq
How many Coastal Districts of Tamilnadu are involved in the TN-SHORE (Neithal Meetchi Iyakkam) Project?
a.
14
b.
12
c.
08
d.
20
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Q59 mcq
Which of the following schemes is correctly matched? (i) Kalaignar Women's Rights Grant Scheme - 2023 (ii) Chief Minister's Thayumanavar Scheme - 2025 (iii) Chief Minister's Breakfast Scheme - 2021
a.
(iii) only
b.
(ii) and (iii) only
c.
(i) and (iii) only
d.
(i) and (ii) only
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Q60 mcq
Choose the right matches from the following. I. Revenue expenditure - Money spent by the Government II. Capital receipts - Social Services III. Non-tax revenue - Interest receipts from State Government IV. States own tax revenue - Sale of goods
a.
I and II only
b.
I and III only
c.
I and IV only
d.
II and IV only
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Q61 mcq
A hurricane's low pressure centre of relative calm is called the eye (of the storm) and the radius of the eye is
a.
10-25 km
b.
30-65 km
c.
20-55 km
d.
40-50 km
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Q62 mcq
Consider the following statements : Assertion [A] : The eastern coast of India is affected by the tropical cyclones more than the western coast of India. Reason [R] : Tropical cyclones forms only in the Bay of Bengal. Select the correct answer from the option given below :
a.
Both [A] and [R] are true; and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
b.
Both [A] and [R] are true; but [R] is not correct explanation of [A]
c.
[A] is true, but [R] is false
d.
[A] is false, but [R] is true
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Q63 mcq
The sustainable development has three main aspects namely
a.
Social, Environment, Natural Resources Management
b.
Social, Environment, Economy
c.
Social, Environment, Pollution Control
d.
Social, Environment, Technology
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Q64 mcq
The National Environment Tribunal Act was passed in the year
a.
1994
b.
1975
c.
1995
d.
1974
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Q65 mcq
Match the following: (a) Institute of Veterinary preventive medicine - 1. Madhavaram (b) Livestock research station - 2. Ranipet (c) Tamilnadu Veterinary and animal sciences university - 3. Nandanam (d) Tamilnadu livestock development corporation - 4. Kattupakkam
a.
4 3 2 1
b.
1 4 3 2
c.
2 3 1 4
d.
3 1 4 2
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Q66 mcq
Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct answer using answer codes : Column-I (a) Corundum (b) Vanadium (c) Titanium (d) Lead Column-II 1. Gasoline 2. Abrasives 3. Alloys 4. Pigments
a.
4 2 1 3
b.
2 3 4 1
c.
3 4 1 2
d.
4 1 3 2
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Q67 mcq
______ is declared as small port of Tiruvallur district which is closer to Ennore major port.
a.
Kulaichal
b.
Manapaddu
c.
Kattupalli
d.
Thiruchopuram
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Q68 mcq
Arrange the following industries in chronological order based on their Establishment Years: (1) TANSI - Tamil Nadu Small Industries Corporation Ltd. (2) TANMAG - Tamil Nadu Magnesite Limited (3) TAMIN - Tamil Nadu Minerals Limited (4) TANCEM - Tamil Nadu Cements Corporation
a.
(1), (4), (3), (2)
b.
(1), (2), (3), (4)
c.
(1), (3), (4), (2)
d.
(1), (2), (4), (3)
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Q69 mcq
Choose the incorrect statement about Tank irrigation in Tamil Nadu : (i) Tamil Nadu has an area of 589 thousand hectares of tank irrigation. (ii) It covers three fourth of the country's area. (iii) There are about 24,000 tanks in Tamil Nadu.
a.
(i) only
b.
(i) and (ii) only
c.
(ii) only
d.
(ii) and (iii)
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Q70 mcq
Which of the following statements are true about tropical evergreen rain forest biome? (i) The tropical evergreen rain forest biome has the largest plant and animal species (ii) The average annual rainfall is 25 cm to 50 cm (iii) These forests are dense and has tall trees.
a.
(i) and (iii) are correct
b.
(ii) and (iii) are correct
c.
(i) and (ii) are correct
d.
(ii) only is correct
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Q71 mcq
Which of the following is presently called as Island Grounds?
a.
Elambore river Island
b.
Ennore Island
c.
Quibble Island
d.
Tivukottai Island
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Q72 mcq
Agrometeorological Advisory Service is related to
a.
Weather forecasting
b.
Cyclone forecasting
c.
Crop forecasting
d.
Crop-weather forecasting
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Q73 mcq
The Union Government unveiled the green credits programme on
a.
October, 2024
b.
October, 2023
c.
July, 2023
d.
January, 2024
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Q74 mcq
Which of the following species has been recently (2025) focused on conserving lesser-known endangered species by the Government of Tamilnadu? (i) Lion Tailed Macaque and Madras Hedgehog (ii) Gharial and Hawksbill Sea Turtle (iii) Striped Hyena and hump - Headed Mahseer Fish (iv) Pygmy Hog and Malabar Civet
a.
(i) only
b.
(ii) and (iii) only
c.
(i) and (iv) only
d.
(i) and (iii) only
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Q75 mcq
What will be there in the place of question mark in the following series? EG 35, IK 99, ?, QS 323, UW 483
a.
NS 173
b.
MP 165
c.
MO 195
d.
NQ 195
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Q76 mcq
Find the missing letters. PTVX, AEGI, LPRT, HLNP
a.
WACE
b.
KNQT
c.
KPQS
d.
HKLO
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Q78 mcq
Below are depicted the three different positions of a dice. Find the number of dots on the face opposite to the face with one dot.
a.
2
b.
3
c.
4
d.
6
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Q79 mcq
Which of the following option is wrong?
a.
$P(A) > 1$
b.
$0 \le P(A) \le 1$
c.
$P(\emptyset) = 0$
d.
$P(A) + P(\overline{A}) = 1$
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Q80 mcq
Read the given instructions carefully and answer: A sales representative plans to visit each of six companies M, N, P, Q, R and S exactly once during the course of one day. She is setting up her schedule for the day according to the following conditions (1) She must visit M before N and R (2) She must visit N before Q (3) The third company she visits must be P. If the sales representative visits Q immediately before R and immediately after S, when must she visit Q?
a.
First
b.
Second
c.
Fourth
d.
Fifth
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Q81 mcq
Pointing to a boy, Veena said 'He is the only son of my grandmother's only child'. How is the boy related to Veena?
a.
Son
b.
Brother
c.
Uncle
d.
Father
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Q82 mcq
Column I Column II VIOLET a b c p q r CLEAR t u s q p VOWEL pcqdr Decode the language and choose the correct code for the word 'WRITE'
a.
dsabp
b.
arbqd
c.
srbaq
d.
tsrcb
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Q83 mcq
The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and Matrix II from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and then column number. Identify the correct set for the word ROAD Matrix I 0 1 2 3 4 0 F O M S R 1 S R F O M 2 O M S R F 3 R F O M S 4 M S R F O Matrix II 5 6 7 8 9 5 A T D I P 6 I P A T D 7 T D I P A 8 P A T D I 9 D I P A T
a.
42, 32, 79, 58
b.
23, 32, 98, 99
c.
11, 13, 67, 69
d.
04, 20, 55, 78
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Q84 mcq
Choose the number pair/group which is different from others:
a.
17, 187
b.
15, 165
c.
14, 134
d.
12, 132
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Q85 mcq
Choose the number which is different from others in the group.
a.
225
b.
125
c.
64
d.
216
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Q86 mcq
Choose the odd pair of words.
a.
Odometer : Current
b.
Barometer : Pressure
c.
Seismograph : Earthquakes
d.
Thermometer : Temperature
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Q87 mcq
_ is to race as slow is to _
a.
Rapid : Stop
b.
Rapid : Stroll
c.
Gallop : Fast
d.
Run : Fast
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Q87 mcq
______ is to race as slow is to ______
a.
Rapid : Stop
b.
Rapid : Stroll
c.
Gallop : Fast
d.
Run : Fast
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Q88 mcq
'Kilogram' is related to 'Mass' in the same way as 'Newton' is related to
a.
Energy
b.
Volume
c.
Pressure
d.
Force
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Q89 mcq
Complete the analysis pair. Pulp : Paper :: Hemp : ?
a.
Basket
b.
Yarn
c.
Rope
d.
Cotton
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Q90 mcq
If a mirror is placed on line MN, which is the correct image?
a.
A
b.
B
c.
C
d.
D
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Q91 mcq
Consider the following statements: Statement: Drinking habit is one of those human weaknesses which tend to test the will power of the drunkards to the edge. Conclusions: I: It is very difficult for the drunkards to give up drinking even if they want to do so. II: Human beings have other weaknesses as well.
a.
I follows
b.
II follows
c.
Both I and II follows
d.
Either I or II follows
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Q92 mcq
The total of ages of 4 persons is 86 years. What was their average age, 4 year ago?
a.
20.5 yr
b.
19.5 yr
c.
20 yr
d.
17.5 yr
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Q93 mcq
If L stands for $\times$, M stands for $+$, N stands for $-$ and P stands for $\div$, then what is $15\text{ L }10\text{ M }33\text{ P }11\text{ N }8$?
a.
150
b.
170
c.
145
d.
120
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Q94 mcq
Consider the following statements: Statement: Without the active co-operation between the proprietor and the employees of the company, it cannot remain a profitable concern for long. Courses of Action: I: The company should be closed down II: The workers should be asked to cooperate with the owner III: The owner should be asked to cooperate with the employees
a.
Only I and II follows
b.
Only II and III follows
c.
Only I and III follows
d.
All follows
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Q95 mcq
Find the missing character from among the given alternatives: Figure 1: Top = 4, Bottom = 10, Left = 15, Right = 3, Center = 26 Figure 2: Top = 6, Bottom = 8, Left = 10, Right = 4, Center = 8 Figure 3: Top = 7, Bottom = 5, Left = 12, Right = 3, Center = ?
a.
85
b.
65
c.
50
d.
60
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Q96 mcq
Out of 5 consonants and 5 vowels, how many strings of 2 consonants and 3 vowels can be formed?
a.
1200
b.
12500
c.
12000
d.
25000
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Q97 mcq
What is the value of $^{100}C_{98} - {^{100}C_1}$?
a.
4550
b.
4950
c.
4955
d.
4949
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Q97 mcq
What is the value of $^{100}C_{98}$?
a.
4550
b.
4950
c.
4955
d.
4949
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Q98 mcq
Select the option in which the numbers share the same relationship as that shared by the given pair of numbers $30 : 42$.
a.
12 : 20
b.
25 : 57
c.
19 : 33
d.
34 : 31
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Q99 mcq
A tree always has which of the following
a.
Branches
b.
Leaves
c.
Fruits
d.
Roots
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Q100 mcq
The main function of Rajya Sabha is to implement the law.
a.
Never
b.
Sometimes
c.
Often
d.
Always
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Q101 mcq
Who translated Thirukkural in French?
a.
Ariel
b.
Graul
c.
Taylor
d.
Wilson
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Q102 mcq
Better bullock carts and freedom than a train deluxe with subjection: who said?
a.
Annie Besant
b.
M. Veera Raghavachari
c.
B.P. Wadia
d.
G.S. Arundale
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Q103 mcq
Match the following: (a) Nava Sakthi - 1. Dr. P. Varadarajulu Naidu (b) Tamil Nadu - 2. Thiru. Vi. Ka (c) Suthandara Sangu - 3. Gandhi (d) Nava Jeevan - 4. Subramaniam
a.
2 1 3 4
b.
1 2 3 4
c.
4 3 2 1
d.
4 3 1 2
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Q104 mcq
Arrange the following events in their chronological order: (1) Treaty of Seringapatam (2) Treaty of Mangalore (3) Treaty of Salbai (4) Treaty of Bassein
a.
(2), (3), (1), (4)
b.
(1), (2), (4), (3)
c.
(3), (2), (1), (4)
d.
(3), (1), (4), (2)
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Q105 mcq
Choose the special features of Kalithogai. (i) The word "Madaleral" has been spoken. (ii) No parables are included. (iii) The love of wicked is present.
a.
(i) only
b.
(i) and (iii) only
c.
(i) and (ii) only
d.
(ii) and (iii) only
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Q106 mcq
Manimegalai of Chithalai Satanar mentioned that the most popular festival of Indira Vizha was celebrated in
a.
Puhar
b.
Kancheepuram
c.
Madurai
d.
Uraiyur
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Q107 mcq
Which of the following statements are true about myth? (i) Every society has its own unique myths (ii) Myths show how humans migrated from one place to another (iii) Greek myths and Indian myths have no parallels.
a.
(i) only
b.
(i) and (iii) only
c.
(i) and (ii) only
d.
(ii) and (iii) only
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Q108 mcq
Which of the following statements are correct? (i) Five Tamil inscriptions were found in Maankulam area of Madurai. (ii) Jainism spread to Tamil Nadu through the common Northern border of the Tamil Nadu and Andhra. (iii) Inscriptions found in Tamil literature are called as Tamil Inscriptions. (iv) In and around Madurai region, we can find 24 bed caves carved into the rock.
a.
(i), (ii) are correct
b.
(i), (iii) are correct
c.
(i), (iv) are correct
d.
All the statements are correct
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Q109 mcq
Consider the following statements: Assertion [A]: Anna introduced their economic policy name as scientific socialism Reason [R] : He mentioned that try to create all are equal is socialism
a.
[A] is true but [R] is false
b.
Both [A] and [R] are true
c.
[A] is false but [R] is true
d.
Both [A] and [R] are false
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Q110 mcq
Match correctly (a) Arrival of Simon Commission 1. Chennai (b) No Paying Tax movement 2. Vaikom (c) Temple entry movement 3. Bombay (d) Neil Statue Satyagraha 4. Bardoli
a.
3 4 2 1
b.
1 4 2 3
c.
4 3 1 2
d.
3 4 1 2
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Q111 mcq
Which one of the following is not a correct statement? (i) He started "Dravida Nadu" newspaper. (ii) Kalki Krishna Murthy compared C.N. Annadurai with German Dramatist Ibsen. (iii) E.V. Ramasamy gave 'Arignar' title to C.N. Annadurai. (iv) C.N. Annadurai wrote a drama "Shivaji Kanda Rajyam".
a.
(i) only
b.
(ii) only
c.
(iii) only
d.
(iv) only
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Q112 mcq
Which of the following statements are true about the third session of the INC at Madras? (i) It was held in the Island Grounds, Chennai (ii) 236 representatives from Madras Presidency were participated (iii) Lord Cannimara, the Governor offered grand feast to the delegates (iv) Rao Saheb Mookanachari headed the reception committee
a.
(i) only
b.
(ii) only
c.
(iii) only
d.
(iv) only
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Q113 mcq
Who made it clear that his idea was to establish, "a worship of the heart and not of the hand, a sacrifice of the self and not of the possessions of the self"?
a.
Swami Dayananda Saraswati
b.
Swami Vivekananda
c.
Raja Ram Mohan Roy
d.
Maharishi Devendranath Tagore
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Q114 mcq
Match correctly the Tamil Palayakkarars with the British Generals (a) Pulithevan - 1. McCauley (b) Kattabomman - 2. Heron (c) Oomai Thurai - 3. Harris (d) Dheeran Chinnamalai - 4. Bannerman
a.
1 4 3 2
b.
2 4 1 3
c.
2 4 3 1
d.
3 4 2 1
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Q115 mcq
Read the assertion and reason and select the correct answer from the code given below Assertion [A] : Tipu decided to attack Travancore in April 1790. Reason [R] : The Raja of Travancore purchased Jaikottai and Cranganore from the Dutch in Cochin state.
a.
[A] is true but [R] is false
b.
[A] is false but [R] is true
c.
Both [A] and [R] are true, and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
d.
Both [A] and [R] are true but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A].
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Q116 mcq
Choose the wrong matches type (1) Fort David - British (2) Castle Geldria - Danes (3) Tarangambadi Fort - Dutch (4) Fort Louis - French
a.
(1) and (4)
b.
(2) and (3)
c.
(3) and (4)
d.
(1) and (2)
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Q117 mcq
The aim of Cradle Baby Scheme by Tamilnadu Government is
a.
To eradicate the evil of foeticide
b.
To eradicate the evil of female infanticide
c.
To eradicate female adoption
d.
To eradicate the evil of male infanticide
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Q118 mcq
The post of State Commissioner for the Welfare of the differently abled was created in Tamil Nadu in the year
a.
1992
b.
1994
c.
1996
d.
1999
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Q119 mcq
What are the objectives of the State Industries Promotion Corporation of Tamilnadu (SIPCOT)? (i) It offers term loans for medium scale industries. (ii) It provides necessary raw materials for small industries. (iii) It finds solutions to financial problems faced by small industries.
a.
(i) only
b.
(ii) and (iii) only
c.
(i) and (ii) only
d.
(i) and (iii) only
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Q120 mcq
The primary aim of launching Sampoorna Gramin Rozgar Yojana. (1) Additional wage and employment in villages. (2) To provide food security and improve the nutritional level. (3) Removing large number of people who are unemployed. (4) Creation of community social and economic assets and infrastructure development in villages.
a.
(1) and (3) are correct
b.
(2) and (3) are correct
c.
(1) and (2) are correct
d.
All the above are correct
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Q121 mcq
The office of the District Collector in India was created by
a.
Warren Hasting
b.
Cornwallis
c.
Robert Clive
d.
Dalhousie
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Q122 mcq
Arrange the following District Administrative officials in the hierarchial order. (1) Tahsildar (2) District Revenue Officer (3) District Collector (4) Revenue Divisional Officer
a.
(1), (4), (2), (3)
b.
(3), (4), (2), (1)
c.
(3), (2), (1), (4)
d.
(3), (2), (4), (1)
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Q123 mcq
Choose the correct matches. (1) The Public department was established in Tamilnadu - 1670 (2) The Chief Secretary was constituted in Tamilnadu - 1800 (3) The Military Board was established - 1796 (4) The Board of Revenue was created - 1838
a.
(1) and (2) only
b.
(3) and (4) only
c.
(2) and (3) only
d.
(4) and (1) only
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Q124 mcq
Choose correct matches. (1) Institute of Road Transport - Transport Department (2) Tamilnadu Chief Minister Fellowship Programme - Social Welfare and Women Development (3) Tamilnadu Skill Development Corporation - Labour Welfare and Skill Development (4) Training Department - Human Resources Development
a.
(1) and (4) are correct
b.
(2) and (3) are correct
c.
(4) and (2) are correct
d.
(3) and (4) are correct
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Q125 mcq
"Makkaludan Muthalvar" (Chief Minister with the people) is the scheme by the Government of Tamilnadu to ensure
a.
Social Assistance
b.
Self Employment
c.
Free transport
d.
Disposal of people's grievances
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Q126 mcq
Consider the following statements : Assertion [A] : The Ayothidoss Pandithar habitation development scheme was introduced in Tamilnadu. Reason [R] : It provides and improves the basic facilities such as providing shelters for urban homeless.
a.
[A] is true but [R] is false
b.
Both [A] and [R] are true; and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
c.
[A] is false, [R] is true
d.
Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A] is correct
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Q127 mcq
Which section of the Tamilnadu Panchayats Act, 1994 deals with the discretionary powers of Village Panchayats for certain matters?
a.
111
b.
145
c.
152
d.
189
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Q128 mcq
Choose the right matches (i) The Panchayat Raj Act was enacted in the year - 1994 (ii) National Panchayat Raj day - 24th April (iii) Establishment of Local Government - Article 244 (iv) Reservation for SC/ST in Panchayat Raj - 73rd Amendment
a.
(i) only
b.
(i) and (iii) only
c.
(ii) and (iv) only
d.
(ii) and (iii) only
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Q129 mcq
Ordinance - making power of the Governor is given under which Article?
a.
Article 201
b.
Article 210
c.
Article 213
d.
Article 215
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Q130 mcq
Which of the following statements are true about the appointment of Chief Minister of a State? (i) The Chief Minister shall be appointed by the President of India (ii) A person who is not a member of a State Legislature may be appointed as Chief Minister (iii) Other Ministers shall be appointed by the Governor on the advice of Chief Minister
a.
(i) and (ii) only
b.
(ii) and (iii) only
c.
(iii) only
d.
(i) and (iii) only
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Q131 mcq
Assertion [A] Reason [R] type question : Assertion [A] : Under the Constitution the Chief Minister holds the office till the pleasure of the Governor. Reason [R] : The Chief Minister is appointed by the Governor.
a.
Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
b.
Both [A] and [R] are true but [R] is not correct explanation of [A]
c.
[A] is true but [R] is false
d.
[A] is false but [R] is true
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Q132 mcq
Choose the correct statement(s) with regard to the qualifications required to be the Vice President of India. (i) He/She should be a Citizen of India. (ii) He/She should have completed 35 years of age. (iii) He/She should be qualified for election as a member of the Lok Sabha.
a.
(i) only
b.
(ii) and (iii) only
c.
(i) and (ii) only
d.
(i) and (iii) only
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Q133 mcq
Consider the following statements regarding the Money Bill (i) Money Bill can be originated in either Houses of the Parliament. (ii) The House of people have no power to reject the Money Bill recommended by the Council of States. (iii) A Money Bill is associated with imposition, abolition, remission of any tax. (iv) A Money Bill also associated with appropriation Money out of the consolidated fund of India.
a.
(i) only correct
b.
(ii) only correct
c.
(ii) and (iii) only correct
d.
(iii) and (iv) only correct
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Q134 mcq
Choose the correct pair (1) Right to Equality - Articles 14-18 (2) Right to Freedom - Articles 25-28 (3) Right against Exploitation - Articles 23-24 (4) Cultural and Educational Rights - Articles 25-26
a.
(1) and (2) are correct
b.
(2) and (3) are correct
c.
(1) and (3) are correct
d.
(2) and (4) are correct
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Q135 mcq
Which of the following statements are correct? (i) B.P. Mandal was the Chairman of Second Backward Class Commission. (ii) The Commission submitted its report in 1982. (iii) The Commission did not recommended for reservation of 27% Government jobs for the Other Backward Classes (OBCs).
a.
(i) only
b.
(ii) and (iii) only
c.
(iii) and (iv) only
d.
(i) and (ii) only
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Q136 mcq
Match the newly created state with the parent state : (a) Haryana (b) Uttarakhand (c) Gujarat (d) Chhattisgarh 1. Uttar Pradesh 2. Punjab 3. Madhya Pradesh 4. Bombay
a.
2 1 4 3
b.
1 2 3 4
c.
4 3 2 1
d.
1 3 2 4
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Q137 mcq
Which of the following is correctly paired? (1) Citizenship by Descent - A person born outside India on or after 26th January 1950, but before the 10th of December 1992. (2) Citizenship by Registration - A foreigner, not being an illegal migrant, can acquire Indian citizenship on application for registration with the Government of India. (3) Citizenship by Naturalization - If any new territory becomes a part of India, the Government of India shall specify the person of that territory who shall be a citizen of India.
a.
(1) and (3) only
b.
(1) only
c.
(2) only
d.
(2) and (3) only
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Q138 mcq
Which one of the following is not a part of Federal Legislature according to Government of India Act 1935?
a.
The King, represented by the Governor General
b.
The Council of State
c.
The Legislative Assembly
d.
Responsible Government
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Q139 mcq
The Preamble of the Indian Constitution under 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 substituted the phrase into
a.
Unity of the Nation
b.
Unity and Integrity of the Nation
c.
(A) and (B)
d.
Armed rebellion into internal disturbance
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Q140 mcq
Match correctly the devices and its properties: (a) Flat panel display readers - 1. Black and White (b) E-ink readers - 2. Print catridges are expensive (c) Dot-matrix printer - 3. Full colors (d) Inkjet printer - 4. Contact printers
a.
1 2 3 4
b.
3 1 4 2
c.
3 4 1 2
d.
4 3 1 2
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Q141 mcq
Match correctly the E-mail header fields to message transport: (a) To: (b) Cc: (c) Bcc: (d) From : 1. Person or people who created the message 2. Email address for blind carbon copies 3. Email address of secondary recipient 4. Email address of primary recipient
a.
4 2 3 1
b.
4 3 2 1
c.
1 4 2 3
d.
1 2 4 3
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Q142 mcq
Minisatellites are DNA
a.
DNA profiles detected with 32P labelled probes
b.
Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism (RFLP)
c.
Other name of PCR
d.
DNA consisting of a 10-60 bp long base pairs
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Q143 mcq
Which of the following statements on antibiotics are true? (i) Antibiotics are biologically active against a large number of microorganisms (ii) They enhance growth of fungi (iii) Minimum inhibitory concentration of an antibiotics effective against different microorganism.
a.
(i) only
b.
(i) and (iii) only
c.
(i) and (ii) only
d.
(ii) and (iii) only
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Q144 mcq
Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis (IBR) disease is caused by ________ in cattle.
a.
bacteria
b.
virus
c.
fungus
d.
protozoa
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Q145 mcq
Choose the correct steps in Enzyme Immobilization. (1) Copolymerisation and Encapsulation (2) Entrapment (3) Adsorption (4) Covalent bonding
a.
(3), (4), (2), (1)
b.
(1), (2), (3), (4)
c.
(2), (3), (4), (1)
d.
(4), (1), (2), (3)
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Q146 mcq
Consider the following statements : Assertion [A] : Bacillus thuringiensis formed crystals containing toxic insecticidal protein. But it is not killed by that toxic protein Reason [R] : Actually the Bt. toxin protein exist as inactive protoxins.
a.
[A] is true [R] is false
b.
Both [A] and [R] are true but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]
c.
Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
d.
[A] is false [R] is correct
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Q147 mcq
Which of the following is incorrectly paired? (i) Cellulose nitrate - 35 mm motion picture film (ii) Polyvinyl pyrrolidone - Additive for dyes (iii) Polystyrene - Substitute for blood plasma (iv) Polymethyl methacrylate - X-ray film
a.
(i) and (iii) only
b.
(ii) and (iv) only
c.
(iii) and (iv) only
d.
(i) and (ii) only
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Q148 mcq
Match the following Scientists from Tamilnadu with their respective fields. (a) Sir Chandra Sekara Venkataraman - 1. Function of ribosomes (b) Venki Ramakrishnan - 2. Light scattering (c) Mylswamy Annadurai - 3. Green Revolution in India (d) M.S. Swaminathan - 4. Chandrayan - I
a.
2 1 4 3
b.
1 2 3 4
c.
4 2 3 1
d.
4 3 2 1
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Q149 mcq
Consider the following statements: Assertion [A] : Corrosion reaction in Nickel - Metal hydride battery cell, accelerates water loss by changing the balance between positive and negative electrode. Reason [R] : Corrosion reduces the active material in the negative electrode, shifting the capacity balance toward positive electrode and reducing the material available for hydrogen absorption.
a.
[A] is true but [R] is false
b.
Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
c.
[A] is false but [R] is true
d.
Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]
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Q150 mcq
Among the following, the one which is not a precursor test for Gaganyaan is
a.
Pad Abort Test (PAT)
b.
Integrated Air Drop Test (IADT)
c.
Test vehicle flights
d.
Lunar landing simulation test
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Q151 mcq
Which committee in India reported that the Dowry Prohibition Act 1961, has failed to curb the evils of dowry?
a.
Advisory committee on the issues of Women Pradhan (2023)
b.
The Standing Committee on HRD (2020)
c.
The Committee on the status of Women (1974)
d.
Committee on empowerment of Women (1997)
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Q152 mcq
Which of the following Act was enacted by the Government of India under Article 253 of Indian Constitution?
a.
Mental Health Act 1987
b.
Persons with Disabilities Act 1995
c.
National Trust for welfare of person with Autism, cerebral palsy, Mental Retardation and Multiple Disability Act 1999
d.
Rehabilitation Council of India Act 1992
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Q153 mcq
Match the following: (a) Anemia Mukt Bharat - 1. 2021 (b) Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan - 2. 2017 (c) The Mental Health Care Act - 3. 2018 (d) Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act - 4. 2016
a.
4 3 2 1
b.
3 1 4 2
c.
3 4 2 1
d.
4 1 2 3
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Q154 mcq
Which of the following programme was launched in 2014, to improve quality of life of children?
a.
Rashtriya Bal Swasthya Karyakram
b.
Rashtriya Kishor Swasthya Karyakram
c.
Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram
d.
Janani Suraksha Yojana
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Q155 mcq
Choose the right matches. (1) National Literacy Mission - Launched in 1989 (2) Successes of the Ernakulam Literacy Campaign - 1990 (3) Continuing Education for Neo-Literates - Approved in 1995 (4) National Adult Education Programme - 1976
a.
(1) and (2) are correct
b.
(2) and (3) are correct
c.
(3) and (4) are correct
d.
(1) and (4) are correct
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Q156 mcq
Consumer confidence survey is released by which one of the following institution?
a.
National Consumer Forum
b.
NITI Aayog
c.
Reserve Bank of India
d.
NABARD
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Q157 mcq
D'Ering Memorial Wildlife Sanctuary is located in which state?
a.
Tamil Nadu
b.
Arunachal Pradesh
c.
Shillong
d.
Manipur
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Q158 mcq
Which of the following statements are true about the Union Budget 2025-2026 on education sector? (i) To nurture innovation and entrepreneurship among students, 50,000 "Atal Tinkering" Labs will be established in government schools over the next five years. (ii) All government secondary schools will receive broadband connectivity under the Bharat Project. (iii) Centre of Excellence in "AI" for education will be established.
a.
(i) only
b.
(i) and (iii) only
c.
(i) and (ii) only
d.
(i), (ii) and (iii)
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Q159 mcq
Which are the objectives of a Kalaignar Kaivinai Thittam? (i) To provide financial assistance to all artisans in the state. (ii) To provide Skill Development and Entrepreneurship Development Training for starting new Industrial units and expanding existing units. (iii) To provide 50% subsidy upto a maximum of Rs. 50,000.
a.
(i) only
b.
(ii) and (iii) only
c.
(i) and (ii) only
d.
(i) and (iii) only
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Q160 mcq
As per 2011 census, arrange the district rank-wise based on their Literacy rate. (1) The Nilgiris (2) Chennai (3) Thoothukudi (4) Kanyakumari
a.
(2), (3), (4), (1)
b.
(2), (1), (3), (4)
c.
(4), (2), (3), (1)
d.
(3), (2), (1), (4)
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Q161 mcq
Samagra Shiksha subsumes three erstwhile schemes viz
a.
Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan, School Education, Teacher Education
b.
Teacher Education, Higher Education, School Education
c.
Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan, Rastriya Madyamik Shiksha Abhiyan and Teacher Education
d.
Higher Education, Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan, Teacher Education
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Q162 mcq
Match the correct answer : (a) National Food Security Mission — 1. Augmenting Mechanisation in agriculture (b) Rainfed Area Development Programme — 2. Improving rainfed farming (c) National Agricultural Development Programme — 3. Increase production of rice and pulses (d) Drought Prone Area Programme — 4. Promotion of horticulture in rainfed area
a.
2 1 4 3
b.
3 4 1 2
c.
4 2 3 1
d.
1 3 2 4
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Q163 mcq
Consider the following statements: Assertion [A]: Tamilnadu Government Declared the Cauvery Delta Zone as a protected special Agricultural Zone. Reason [R]: In the Agriculture Budget 2023-24, the Government has allotted Rs.1,000 Crores to build Infrastructure in the Cauvery Delta Zone.
a.
[A] is true but [R] is false
b.
Both [A] and [R] true, and [R] is the correct explanation of [A].
c.
[A] is false but [R] is true
d.
Both [A] and [R] true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]
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Q164 mcq
Which of the following is incorrectly paired? (1) NEET - National Eligibility Cum Entrance Test (2) NEP - National Education Policy (3) NCF - National Council Framework (4) NCTE - National Commission for Teacher Education
a.
(1) and (3) are incorrect
b.
(1) and (2) are incorrect
c.
(2) and (3) are incorrect
d.
(3) and (4) are incorrect
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Q165 mcq
Which is/are the features of Tamilnadu State Budget 2025-26? (i) 1% less stamp duty if property and other assets is registered in the name of women for properties worth upto Rs.10 lakh. (ii) Rs. 2,000 stipend for children who lost both parents to continue their education. (iii) Earned leave surrender system will be restored to encash by surrending upto 30 days of earned leave.
a.
(i) only
b.
(ii) and (iii) only
c.
(i) and (ii) only
d.
(i) and (iii) only
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Q166 mcq
Arrange the following gases in ascending order of their Global Warming Potential (GWP) (i) $\text{CO}_2$ (ii) $\text{CH}_4$ (iii) $\text{SF}_6$ (iv) CFC-11 (v) $\text{N}_2\text{O}$
a.
(i), (ii), (iii), (v), (iv)
b.
(i), (ii), (v), (iv), (iii)
c.
(i), (v), (ii), (iv), (iii)
d.
(i), (ii), (iv), (v), (iii)
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Q167 mcq
Match the type of hazards with the relevant example. Column A: (a) Natural Hazard (b) Social Hazard (c) Biological Hazard (d) Technological Hazard Column B: 1. Oil spill 2. Bird Flu 3. War 4. Tsunami
a.
4 3 2 1
b.
3 2 1 4
c.
2 1 4 3
d.
1 4 3 2
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Q168 mcq
Consider the following statements: (1) The definition of 'Critical Wildlife Habitat' is incorporated in the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. (2) India is the first country in the world to have made provisions for the Protection and Conservation of the environment in its constitution. (3) No alteration of boundaries of a Sanctuary/National park shall be made except on the recommendation of the National Tiger Conservation Authority. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a.
(1), (2) and (3) only
b.
(1) and (3) only
c.
(2) only
d.
(2) and (3) only
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Q169 mcq
Which one of the following is an incorrect match? (a) Evolutionary time Hypothesis - Fisher (1960) (b) Climate Stability Hypothesis - Schmidt-Nielsen (1964) (c) Productive Hypothesis - Connell and Orias (1964) (d) Spatial heterogeneity Hypothesis - Simpson (1964)
a.
(d)
b.
(a)
c.
(b)
d.
(c)
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Q170 mcq
Consider the following statements : Assertion [A] : Detergent induced soil pollution depresses the growth of soil micro organism. Reason [R] : The presence of detergents makes the soil acidic. Choose the appropriate answers from the options :
a.
[A] is false, but [R] is true
b.
[A] is true but [R] is false
c.
Both [A] & [R] are true; and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
d.
Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A] is correct
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Q171 mcq
Find the incorrect statement: (i) Tamil Nadu excels other states in lignite coal reserves and production. (ii) It has 90% of reserves in the country. (iii) Neyveli lignite field is located in Villupuram District.
a.
(i) only
b.
(i) and (ii) only
c.
(iii) only
d.
(ii) only
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Q172 mcq
Among the districts of Tamil Nadu, which has 482 million tonnes of Iron ore reserves with a low grade?
a.
Salem
b.
Trichy
c.
Madurai
d.
Coimbatore
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Q173 mcq
Choose the right pair of Sheep variety and its District : Sheep Variety - Districts (1) Mecheri - Salem (2) Madras Red - Tiruvallur (3) Ramnad white - Pudhukottai (4) Kilakarisal - Kanchipuram
a.
(1) and (3) are correct
b.
(1) and (2) are correct
c.
(2) and (3) are correct
d.
(3) and (4) are correct
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Q174 mcq
Match the following soils with their characteristics: (a) Saline soil - 1. Clayey (b) Black soil - 2. Sandy (c) Alluvial soil - 3. Infertile (d) Red soil - 4. Porous and loamy
a.
3 1 4 2
b.
4 3 2 1
c.
2 1 3 4
d.
1 2 3 4
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Q175 mcq
Choose the correct statement(s) pertaining to the key objectives of Sustainable Development Goal 2? (1) Eliminate all forms of malnutrition, focusing on stunting and wasting in children and anaemia in women. (2) Maintain the genetic diversity of alien seeds, culivated invasive plants and farmed animals. (3) Ensure modern agricultural practices to enhance the food production.
a.
Both (1) and (2) are correct
b.
Both (2) and (3) are correct
c.
Only (1) is correct
d.
Only (3) is correct
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Q176 mcq
Match correctly the India's rank on Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI) 2026 based on the main four categories of evaluation : Categories : Rank (a) Greenhouse gas emissions : 1. 36 (b) Renewable energy : 2. 26 (c) Energy use : 3. 14 (d) Climate policy : 4. 25
a.
4 1 2 3
b.
4 2 1 3
c.
1 2 3 4
d.
4 3 2 1
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Q177 mcq
Study the following figure carefully and answer the given questions. Which region represents Dancers who are neither Singers nor actors?
a.
2
b.
3
c.
6
d.
7
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Q178 mcq
One morning at 7 O'clock Raju started walking with his friend back towards the Sun. Then he turned towards left, walked straight and then turned towards right and walked straight. Then he again turned towards left. Now in which direction is he facing?
a.
West
b.
South
c.
North
d.
East
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Q179 mcq
Jayashree was facing North-West direction. If she was playing carrom with Hemalatha in the standard seating pattern, in which direction was Hemalatha facing?
a.
North-West
b.
North-East
c.
South-West
d.
South-East
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Q180 mcq
A, B, C, D, E, F and G are members of a family consisting of four adults and three children, two of whom F and G are girls. A and D are brothers and A is a doctor. E is an engineer married to one of the brothers and has two children. B is married to D and G is their child. Who is C?
a.
G's father
b.
F's father
c.
E's daughter
d.
A's son
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Q181 mcq
Five girls are sitting in a row. Rashi is not adjacent to Sulekha or Abha. Anuradha is not adjacent to Sulekha. Rashi is adjacent to Monika. Monika is at the middle in the row. Then Anuradha is adjacent to whom?
a.
Rashi
b.
Sulekha
c.
Abha
d.
Monika
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Q182 mcq
'A + B' means 'A is the father of B' 'A - B' means 'A is the wife of B' 'A × B' means 'A is the brother of B' 'A ÷ B' means 'A is the daughter of B' If P + R ÷ Q, which of the following is true?
a.
P is the brother of Q
b.
P is the son of Q
c.
P is the husband of Q
d.
P is the father of Q
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Q183 mcq
In a certain code, 'il be pee' means 'roses are blue', 'sik hee' means 'red flowers' and 'pee mit hee' means 'flowers are vegetables'. How is 'red' written in that code?
a.
hee
b.
sik
c.
be
d.
none of these
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Q184 mcq
If the word 'REPRINT' be written as 'FGBFXJK' in coded form, how can 'RENT' be written following the same coding.
a.
FBJK
b.
FXJK
c.
FGJK
d.
FBXK
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Q185 mcq
If ROAST is coded as PQYUR in a certain language, then how will SLOPPY be coded in that language?
a.
QNMRNA
b.
MRNAQN
c.
NRMNQA
d.
RANNMQ
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Q186 mcq
Choose the best alternative : 18 : 30 :: 36 : ?
a.
54
b.
62
c.
64
d.
66
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Q187 mcq
Choose one out of the four given alternatives, which mentions the quality to the three given words Earth : Mercury : Saturn
a.
Mars
b.
Moon
c.
Jupiter
d.
Planets
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Q189 mcq
An address is given below which has been reproduced against the four alternatives; Of them, three have some mistake or the other, while one is exactly the same, select the option that is exactly the same as the given address. Mr. B. JAYAPRAKASH, M.Sc., M.Sc., M.A., No: 14/33, Station Road, Annanur, Chennai - 600077.
a.
Mr. B. JAYAKUMAR, M.Sc., M.Sc., M.A., No: 14/33, Station Road, Annanur, Chennai - 600077.
b.
Mr. B. JAYAPRAKASH, M.Sc., No: 14/33, Station Road, Annanur, Chennai - 600077.
c.
Mr. B. JAYAPRAKASH, M.Sc., M.Sc., M.A., No: 14, Station Road, Annanur, Chennai - 600077.
d.
Mr. B. JAYAPRAKASH, M.Sc., M.Sc., M.A., No: 14/33, Station Road, Annanur, Chennai - 600077.
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Q190 mcq
Statement: (A) Vijay Adithiya is a good reader (B) Readers are intelligent Choose the correct conclusion :
a.
All intelligent are Readers
b.
Vijay Adithiya is intelligent
c.
Both (A) and (B)
d.
None of the above
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Q191 mcq
Rearrange these letters "UEAGTFI" to form a meaningful word and select from the options the word which is opposite to the formed word.
a.
Weariness
b.
Brisk
c.
Tension
d.
Sweating
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Q192 mcq
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: $$\frac{(0.08)^2 - (0.02)^2}{0.08 - 0.02}$$
a.
0.06
b.
0.1
c.
0.16
d.
0.04
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Q193 mcq
If $+$ means $-$, $-$ means $+$, $\times$ means $\div$ and $\div$ means $\times$, find the value of $12 + 6 \div 3 - 8 \times 2$
a.
-2
b.
2
c.
4
d.
8
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Q194 mcq
Choose the right option that is wrong argument : Statement: Should all the universities in India have the same syllabus? Arguments I : Yes, because immigration of the students from one university to another will not create problem. II : No, because the universities will lose their distinctive character.
a.
Both I and II are strong
b.
Neither I nor II is strong
c.
Only I is strong
d.
Only II is strong
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Q195 mcq
Find the missing number. $$\begin{matrix} 9 & 8 & 8 \\ 8 & 5 & 16 \\ 3 & 25 & 4 \\ 6 & 10 & ? \end{matrix}$$
a.
4
b.
8
c.
12
d.
20
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Q196 mcq
In a town, 60% people watches the news on television, 40% read a newspaper and 30% read a newspaper and watched the news on television also. What percent of the people neither watched the news on television nor read a newspaper?
a.
30
b.
40
c.
60
d.
70
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Q197 mcq
Data on 450 candidates, who took an examinations in Telugu, English and Hindi are given below: Passed in all subjects 167, Failed in all subjects 60, Failed in Telugu 175, Failed in English 199, Failed in Hindi 191 Passed in Telugu only 62, Passed in English only 48, Passed in Hindi only 52. How many failed in one subject only?
a.
152
b.
144
c.
61
d.
56
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Q198 mcq
If first day of a year which is not a leap year is Sunday, then find the last day of that year?
a.
Sunday
b.
Monday
c.
Tuesday
d.
Wednesday
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Q199 mcq
On what dates of March 2035 does Sunday fall?
a.
7th, 14th, 21st, 28th
b.
1st, 8th, 15th, 22nd
c.
8th, 15th, 22nd, 29th
d.
2nd, 9th, 16th, 23rd
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Q200 mcq
Choose the set of numbers from the four alternative sets, that is similar to the given set: (3, 18, 36).
a.
(2, 10, 16)
b.
(4, 24, 48)
c.
(6, 42, 48)
d.
(12, 72, 96)
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