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TNPSC · Environmental and Chemical Engineering

TNPSC Environmental and Chemical Engineering 2025

2025 · 200 questions · First 10 Solutions Free
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Q1 mcq
The Occupational Health Services convention was held during the year
a.
1975
b.
1985 Correct Answer
c.
1995
d.
1997

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Q2 mcq
Choose the right matches among type: 1. PLIBEL - Identification of Ergonomic Hazards. 2. DMQ - Fire safety and rescue 3. QEC - Work place risk assessment 4. RULA - Emergence management
a.
1 and 3 are correct Correct Answer
b.
1 and 2 are correct
c.
2 and 3 are correct
d.
3 and 4 are correct

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Q3 mcq
The probability of adverse effects on human health resulting from some defined condition of exposure to a particular environmental agent or combination of agents is known as:
a.
Risk Correct Answer
b.
Hazard
c.
Vulnerable
d.
Threat

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Q4 mcq
The toxicants that damage kidney (nephrotoxics) are
a.
Lead, Chromium, Cadmium
b.
Chromium, Arsenic, Mercury
c.
Cadmium, Arsenic, Chromium
d.
Mercury, Cadmium, Lead Correct Answer

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Q5 mcq
Choose the characteristics of disasters from the following: 1. Usually occurs because of one of the danger sources 2. Seriously and substantially impact the most vulnerable groups 3. Results in serious imbalance in community functions 4. Results in significant losses in human lives, materials and environment
a.
2, 3 and 4
b.
1, 2 and 3
c.
1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Answer
d.
2 and 4

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Q6 mcq
Cognitive ergonomics tool is formulated around the concepts of
a.
By ignoring fundamental principles of human actions
b.
Human abnormal behaviour analysis
c.
Mental work and cognitive tool Correct Answer
d.
Problems of design

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Q7 mcq
Types of Hazards in workplace are: 1. Mechanical, vibrational and noise 2. Heat and temperature 3. Flammability 4. Pressure Hazard
a.
1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Answer
b.
1, 2, and 3
c.
3 and 4
d.
2 alone

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Q8 mcq
Major Hazardous risk associated with pesticide manufacturing industries are
a.
Toxic chemical and flammable material
b.
Highly reactive (or) corrosive and extreme condition of temperature
c.
Large mechanical equipment pressure of collision
d.
Toxic chemical and highly reactive (or) corrosive Correct Answer

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Q9 mcq
Assertion [A]: The Bill and Melinda Gates foundation has pledged $200 million for medical aid to developing countries to fight AIDS, TB and malaria as establishment of emergency preparedness. Reason [R]: Antiretroviral therapy and antibodies to combat mother to child transmission had proven results in AIDS control.
a.
Both [A] and [R] are false
b.
[A] is true but [R] is false
c.
[A] is false but [R] is true
d.
Both [A] and [R] are true Correct Answer

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Q10 mcq
Choose the right matches among gloves type: 1. Type 1 glove - 650 rms voltage 2. Type 2 glove - 1300 rms voltage 3. Type 3 glove - 3300 rms voltage 4. Type 4 glove - 6600 rms voltage
a.
1 and 3 are correct Correct Answer
b.
1 and 2 are correct
c.
2 and 3 are correct
d.
3 and 4 are correct

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Q11 mcq
Which of the following statements are true about emergency evacuation? (i) Precise estimate of evacuation route is of primary importance (ii) Wardrop's system optimal flow is best suited to decide evacuation route (iii) Hoppe and Tardos introduced a first polynomial time algorithm for evacuation
a.
(i) only
b.
(i) and (iii) only
c.
(i) and (ii) only
d.
(ii) and (iii) only
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Q12 mcq
The provision of facilities to maintain the health and well-being of individuals at the work place is known as:
a.
Safety
b.
Protection
c.
Welfare
d.
Near miss
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Q13 mcq
The process of characterizing the relationship between the dose of an agent received and the incidence of an adverse health effect is known as:
a.
Exposure assessment
b.
Risk characterization
c.
Dose response assessment
d.
Hazard identification
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Q14 mcq
Which of the following statements are correct about Electrical Equipment Safety? (i) Rubber gloves must be worn when working near live wires carrying 440 volts or more (ii) All portable electric tools shall be inspected at regular intervals (iii) Two experienced men are necessary when working with 440 volts or more
a.
(i) only
b.
(i) and (iii) only
c.
(i) and (ii) only
d.
(ii) and (iii) only
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Q15 mcq
Which of the following is a major pollutant from E-waste?
a.
Aluminum
b.
Copper
c.
(PBB) - Polybrominated biphenyl
d.
Zinc
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Q16 mcq
Select the correct benefits of EIA: a. Environmental condition for better design b. It helps to reduce project cost c. Ensures appropriate mitigation measures d. To understand extensive ecological indicators
a.
b, d
b.
a, b and c
c.
c, d
d.
b, c and d
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Q17 mcq
Environmental clearance notification is given by
a.
Ministry of Human Resources Development
b.
Ministry of Environment and Forest
c.
Ministry of Health
d.
Ministry of Commerce
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Q18 mcq
Which action involves the impact linkages between the natural and social environment?
a.
Impact Prediction and Assessment
b.
Cumulative Impacts
c.
Direct Impacts
d.
Alternate Impacts
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Q19 mcq
Assertion [A]: Expert committees for environmental assessment are constituted to ensure multidisciplinary inputs. Reason [R]: These committees cover sectors such as mining, thermal power, river valley, infrastructure and nuclear power.
a.
Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
b.
Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]
c.
[A] is true, but [R] is false
d.
[A] is false, but [R] is true
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Q20 mcq
Assertion [A]: CRZ notification 1991 aims to promote large-scale industrial development along coastal areas. Reason [R]: CRZ notification is intended to ensure conservation and proper management of coastal ecosystems.
a.
Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation
b.
Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not correct explanation
c.
[A] is true, but [R] is false
d.
[A] is false, but [R] is true
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Q21 mcq
What is the primary purpose of project screening in the EIA process?
a.
To finalize budget for mitigation
b.
To identify whether a proposed project requires EIA
c.
To approve project location
d.
To determine post-construction audit requirements
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Q22 mcq
Among following, identify criteria responsible to satisfy objective of National Environment Policy such as conservation of critical Environmental resources:
a.
Time and costs
b.
Projects for economic and social development
c.
Conservation of invaluable natural and manmade heritage
d.
Academic and Research Community
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Q23 mcq
The Environment Protection Act, 1986 requires ________ and is to be submitted to State Pollution Control Board.
a.
To disclose their discharge level
b.
Prohibition to discharge of polluting matter
c.
Environmental Audit
d.
Community reserves
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Q24 mcq
Which substance was added to the list of controlled substances in the Kigali Amendment to the Montreal protocol?
a.
Carbon dioxide
b.
Hydro fluoro Carbons (HFCs)
c.
Methane
d.
Nitrogen
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Q25 mcq
What is the first stage of environmental clearance process for site-specific projects like mining, river valley, ports?
a.
Environmental clearance
b.
Final Approval from State Government
c.
Site Clearance
d.
Construction permit
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Q26 mcq
Assertion [A]: EPA 1986 integrates various environmental laws providing unified approach. Reason [R]: Enacted in response to Bhopal Gas Tragedy to fill gaps in existing regulations.
a.
Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
b.
Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not correct explanation
c.
[A] is true, but [R] is false
d.
[A] is false, but [R] is true
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Q27 mcq
Assertion [A]: Air Act 1981 aims to Prevent, Control and abate air pollution in India. Reason [R]: Primarily enacted to regulate forest conservation and wildlife protection.
a.
Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation
b.
Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not correct explanation
c.
[A] is true, but [R] is false
d.
[A] is false, but [R] is true
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Q28 mcq
Assertion [A]: 24-hour average NO2 standard under NAAQS is the same for industrial and ecologically sensitive areas. Reason [R]: NO2 has similar harmful effects in all areas.
a.
Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is correct explanation
b.
Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] not correct explanation
c.
[A] is true, but [R] is false
d.
[A] is false, but [R] is true
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Q29 mcq
According to Water Act 1974, which of the following is not a power granted to CPCB?
a.
To plan nation wide programs for pollution control
b.
To advise Central Govt on water pollution
c.
To levy and collect water cess from industries
d.
To coordinate activities of State Boards
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Q30 mcq
Assertion [A]: 24-hour PM2.5 standard allows exceedance only up to three times a year. Reason [R]: PM2.5 can penetrate deep into lungs causing severe health issues.
a.
Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is correct explanation
b.
Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] not correct explanation
c.
[A] is true, but [R] is false
d.
[A] is false, but [R] is true
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Q31 mcq
Assertion [A]: Water Cess Act 1977 was amended in 2003. Reason [R]: Amendment removed requirements for industries to maintain water records.
a.
Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is correct explanation
b.
Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] not correct explanation
c.
[A] is true, but [R] is false
d.
[A] is false, but [R] is true
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Q32 mcq
Violating which provisions of the Water Act will impose penalties? (i) Failure to provide information about discharging effluents (ii) For prohibiting discharge of polluting matter (iii) Discharging coloured effluent (iv) For prohibiting discharge of solid wastes
a.
(i) and (ii)
b.
(iii) and (iv)
c.
(ii), (iii) and (iv)
d.
(i), (ii) and (iv)
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Q33 mcq
The notification amended to obtain environmental clearance for development projects comes under
a.
Disposal of fly ash notification
b.
Coastal Regulation notification
c.
Doon valley notification
d.
Environmental Impact Assessment notification
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Q34 mcq
Assertion [A]: Producers have obligation of EPR to meet recycling targets for batteries. Reason [R]: EPR ensures producers are responsible for entire lifecycle including end-of-life management.
a.
Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
b.
Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not correct explanation
c.
[A] is true, but [R] is false
d.
[A] is false, but [R] is true
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Q35 mcq
Assertion [A]: Local bodies are responsible for collection, treatment and disposal under SWM Rules 2016. Reason [R]: The rules assign the task of monitoring and authorizing waste management to local bodies.
a.
Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is correct explanation
b.
Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] not correct explanation
c.
[A] is true, but [R] is false
d.
[A] is false, but [R] is true
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Q36 mcq
As per Solid Waste Management Rules 2016, which of the following is not included in solid waste?
a.
Street Sweepings
b.
E-Waste
c.
Horticulture Waste
d.
Market Waste
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Q37 mcq
Which of the following items was included in the ban under Plastic Waste Management Amendment Rules 2021 from 01.07.2022?
a.
Plastic carry bags below 120 microns
b.
Ear buds with plastic sticks
c.
PVC banners above 100 microns
d.
Non-woven plastic bags above 60 GSM
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Q38 mcq
What is a key objective of the E-Waste (Management) Rules, 2022?
a.
Promote open dumping
b.
Ban all electronics manufacturing
c.
Promote Circular Economy through Extended Producer Responsibility
d.
Limit the role of producers
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Q39 mcq
Which of the following is an essential element of ISWM for achieving sustainability?
a.
Emphasis on disposal and incineration
b.
Focus on resource recovery and minimizing waste generation
c.
Focus only on waste collection
d.
Ignoring recycling
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Q40 mcq
Why does waste generation tend to be higher in urban areas than in rural areas?
a.
Urban areas use more natural fertilizers
b.
Urban lifestyles involve more consumption and packaging
c.
Rural areas generate more hazardous waste
d.
Urban areas have fewer people
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Q41 mcq
Methods used to remove submicron particulates of size 0.5 µm to 1 µm from polluted air: (1) venturi scrubber (2) spray tower (3) fabric filters (4) gravitational settling chambers
a.
(1) and (3)
b.
(2) and (3)
c.
(2) and (4)
d.
(1) and (4)
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Q42 mcq
Organic solvent vapours are adsorbed from gaseous pollutants using which of the following?
a.
Iron oxide
b.
Alkaline alumina
c.
Bauxite
d.
Activated carbon
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Q43 mcq
Acceptable indoor noise level for Radio and TV studios is
a.
30-35 dB (A)
b.
40-45 dB (A)
c.
25-30 dB (A)
d.
25-35 dB (A)
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Q44 mcq
The maximum permissible standards of SO2 for residential area in the Revised NAAQS in India is
a.
30 $µg/m³$
b.
120 $µg/m³$
c.
50 $µg/m³$
d.
60 $µg/m³$
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Q45 mcq
Which involves forcing or pumping in fresh air, causing vitiated air to be exhausted out through an exhaust fan?
a.
Vacuum system
b.
Plenum system
c.
Air conditioning system
d.
Air cooler system
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Q46 mcq
How much is the noise standard for passenger cars as per Environment Rules 1986 in dB
a.
? (A) 82
b.
85
c.
89
d.
75
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Q47 mcq
Which is responsible for changing oligotrophic water into eutrophic water in ecosystems?
a.
Calcium and phosphate
b.
Potassium and phosphorus
c.
Nitrogen and phosphorus nutrient species
d.
Chloride and sodium
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Q48 mcq
The Montreal protocol is aimed to phase out the production of
a.
SO2
b.
NO2
c.
VOCs
d.
CFCs
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Q49 mcq
The cleaning capability of cyclonic scrubber wet collectors is about
a.
2500 litres of gas/min
b.
2000 litres of gas/min
c.
1500 litres of gas/min
d.
2250 litres of gas/min
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Q50 mcq
An organic carcinogenic compound present in cigarette smoke is
a.
Carbon dioxide
b.
Sulphur dioxide
c.
Benzo (a) pyrene
d.
Benzyl azo Nitrine
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Q51 mcq
Choose the right matches in connection with Air Pollution: (1) Solid waste disposal is area source (2) Power plants are point source (3) Onsite incineration is point source (4) Railyard locomotives is area source
a.
(1) and (3) are correct
b.
(2) and (3) are correct
c.
(2) and (4) are correct
d.
(3) and (4) are correct
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Q52 mcq
Petrol engines receive ________ than Diesel engine.
a.
High fuel content mixture
b.
Low fuel content mixture
c.
Moderate fuel content mixture
d.
Equal fuel content mixture
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Q53 mcq
Fluidised bed combustion (FBC) is a new type of combustion chamber because it
a.
(iv) increases the efficiency of coal combustion as well as heat transfer
b.
(ii) reduces coal combustion
c.
(iii) and (ii)
d.
(i) only
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Q54 mcq
'London Smog' occurred in
a.
December 1952
b.
November 1952
c.
December 1954
d.
October 1952
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Q55 mcq
Exposure to NO2 even in small concentration for longer periods leads to
a.
Lungs problem
b.
Liver problem
c.
Kidneys problem
d.
Heart problem
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Q56 mcq
Which model is primarily used for evaluating impact of air quality management practices for multiple pollutants at multiple scales?
a.
CAMX
b.
CMAQ
c.
UAM
d.
CALGRID
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Q57 mcq
What does the dispersion model describe?
a.
The rate of pollutant emission over time
b.
How pollutants or particles spread in the environment
c.
Temperature changes in a given area
d.
Chemical reaction rate of pollutants
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Q58 mcq
Which field test is typically used in transient simulations?
a.
grain size analysis
b.
slug test
c.
isotope tracing
d.
soil classification
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Q59 mcq
Assertion [A]: Bubble aeration is a process where gas transfer occurs across gas-water interface. Reason [R]: Oxygen transfer occurs in three phases: formation, rise and bursting.
a.
Both [A] and [R] are correct and [R] is correct explanation
b.
Both [A] and [R] are correct, but [R] is not correct explanation
c.
[A] is correct, but [R] is incorrect
d.
[A] is incorrect, but [R] is correct
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Q60 mcq
In the Oxygen sag curve model, the lowest point of dissolved oxygen typically occurs in
a.
zone of degradation
b.
zone of active decomposition
c.
zone of recovery
d.
zone of clean water
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Q61 mcq
The greater the number of confirming observations, the more probable the model is not flawed; such a model is said to be
a.
Weak
b.
Robust
c.
Adequate
d.
Frail
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Q62 mcq
Standard deviation of sampling distribution of mean is (Notations are as usual)
a.
$σ$ / n
b.
$σ$ / $√n$
c.
$σ$ / $n²$
d.
$√(σ$ / n)
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Q63 mcq
In stratified sampling, the population is divided into
a.
Groups with equal sizes
b.
Homogenous sub groups
c.
Randomly selected groups
d.
Heterogeneous clusters
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Q64 mcq
What does the theory of testing of hypothesis employ to make decisions?
a.
Large population data
b.
Sample theory and statistical techniques
c.
Experimental design only
d.
Visual data representation
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Q65 mcq
In which situation a test of significance is NOT typically applied?
a.
Testing if machine fills exactly 500 ml
b.
Comparing productivity of two processes
c.
Calculating mean rainfall for last 10 years
d.
Checking if IQ meets standard
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Q66 mcq
A study claims forest fires in Uttarakhand have increased by 13%. Which represents null and alternative hypothesis?
a.
Ho: Increase is less than 13%, Ha: Increase is 13%
b.
Ho: Increase exactly 13%, Ha: Increase is not 13%
c.
Ho: Increase is more than 13%, Ha: Increase is 13%
d.
Ho: No increase, Ha: Increase is exactly 13%
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Q67 mcq
The analysis in which the model is used to inspect the system and gain insight into how it works is
a.
Exploratory analysis
b.
Case analysis
c.
Model validation analysis
d.
Problem definition
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Q68 mcq
Assertion
a.
: In modelling, a variable changes freely in time and space. Reason (R): A state variable represents a state or compartment in the model. (A) Both true and [R] is correct explanation
b.
Both true but [R] not correct explanation
c.
[A] true, [R] false
d.
[A] false, [R] true
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Q69 mcq
Which error/errors arise during computer representation of algorithm that operationalises the model?
a.
Computational errors
b.
Procedural errors
c.
Propagation errors
d.
Both (A) and (B)
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Q70 mcq
Why is soil depth considered a critical factor in Environmental modeling?
a.
Affects air quality
b.
Controls water flow into and through the soil
c.
Increases temperature
d.
Limits soil organisms
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Q71 mcq
Rotating biological contactor treatment system is
a.
An attached growth process
b.
A suspended growth process
c.
A combination of attached and suspended growth process
d.
Neither attached nor suspended
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Q72 mcq
In sludge processing, choose the correct sequence: (1) Conditioning (2) Dewatering (3) Thickening (4) Digestion (5) Disposal
a.
(1)->(2)->(3)->(4)->(5)
b.
(2)->(1)->(3)->(4)->(5)
c.
(3)->(4)->(1)->(2)->(5)
d.
(4)->(1)->(2)->(3)->(5)
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Q73 mcq
Which gas consumes more alkalinity in an anaerobic digester during digestion?
a.
Carbon dioxide
b.
Methane
c.
Oxygen
d.
Ammonia
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Q74 mcq
When recirculation ratio in a high rate trickling filter is unity, the recirculation factor is
a.
1
b.
> 1
c.
< 1
d.
Zero
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Q75 mcq
Sequence of operations in UASB reactor for municipal wastewater treatment: (i) Pumping -> Screening -> Degritting (ii) Sludge blanket settling -> Drying -> Gas collection (iii) Sludge blanket settling -> Gas collection -> Drying (iv) Degritting -> Pumping -> Screening
a.
(i), (ii) correct
b.
(i), (iv) correct
c.
(ii), (iii) correct
d.
(i), (iii) are correct, (ii) and (iv) are incorrect
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Q76 mcq
Biological sludge does not settle and leaves small amount of clear supernatant at the top is called
a.
Sludge Bulking
b.
Sludge Filtering
c.
Sludge Thickening
d.
Sludge Digesting
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Q77 mcq
National Research Council empirical equation for trickling filter performance: VF $=$ (W / 5.08)[E1 / (1 - $E1)]²$ where W stands for
a.
Carbon dioxide
b.
Dissolved oxygen
c.
Chemical oxygen demand
d.
Biological oxygen demand
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Q78 mcq
Sequencing Batch Reactors processes majorly used in
a.
Fertilizer Industry
b.
Sugar Mill Industry
c.
Petroleum Industry
d.
Steel Industry
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Q79 mcq
Which statement best distinguishes performance of activated sludge process from trickling filter?
a.
ASP uses less energy and produces less sludge
b.
TF removes nutrients better
c.
ASP handles shock loads better due to active biomass control
d.
TF achieves better effluent quality
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Q80 mcq
Unless sludge age is greater than cell doubling time, cells wash out. Relation between sludge age $(θc$) and growth rate $(μ$) is
a.
$μ$ $θc$ $=$ 1
b.
$μ$ + $θc$ $=$ 1
c.
$μ$ - $θc$ $=$ 1
d.
$μ$ / $θc$ $=$ 1
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Q81 mcq
Which pollutant shows resistance to microbial degradation?
a.
Aliphatic derivatives
b.
Carbohydrates
c.
Proteins
d.
Aromatic derivatives / Recalcitrant aromatics
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Q82 mcq
Which of the following aerators is not a mechanical type aerator?
a.
Fine bubble aerator
b.
Vertical axis aerator
c.
Aspirator type aerator
d.
Cage rotors and brushes
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Q83 mcq
In membrane process, suspended solids, bacteria and protozoa are removed by
a.
Ultrafiltration
b.
Nanofiltration
c.
Hyperfiltration
d.
Microfiltration
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Q84 mcq
Consider statements about Aerated lagoons: (i) recommended for complete aerobic biological treatment (ii) basins 2-4 m deep (iii) need continuous supply of oxygen (iv) need not involve microorganisms
a.
(i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
b.
(i), (ii) and (iii)
c.
(iv) only
d.
(i), (ii) and (iv)
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Q85 mcq
Secondary settling tank functions: (i) Clarification of liquid overflow (ii) Thickening of sludge underflow (iii) Bulking of sludge by filamentous microbes
a.
(i) and (ii) are correct, (iii) is incorrect
b.
(i) and (iii) correct
c.
(ii) and (iii) correct
d.
(i) correct
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Q86 mcq
The secondary settling tanks in trickling filters primarily produce:
a.
Solid Effluent
b.
Sludge
c.
Clear effluent and biomass sludge
d.
Concentrated substrate solids
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Q87 mcq
Assertion [A]: Increasing Qr/Q indefinitely always improves efficiency. Reason [R]: Higher return flow recycles more microorganisms increasing retention time.
a.
Both true and [R] explains [A]
b.
Both true, but [R] does not explain [A]
c.
[A] is false, but [R] is true
d.
Both false
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Q88 mcq
Principal approaches to process control in activated sludge: (1) Organics that escaped treatment (2) Controlling waste activated sludge (3) Not maintaining DO (4) Regulating amount of return activated sludge
a.
(2) and (3) are correct
b.
(1) and (4) are correct
c.
(4) and (2) are correct
d.
(3) and (1) are correct
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Q89 mcq
Among below statements which one is wrong assumption?
a.
Liquid waste flows at constant rate Q
b.
Mixed liquor is withdrawn at rate not equal to inflow rate Q
c.
Mixed instantaneously and homogeneously
d.
Influent does not contain active microbes
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Q90 mcq
Aerobic suspended growth process used in mechanised plants: (i) Activated sludge (ii) Aerated lagoons (iii) Waste stabilization ponds (iv) UASB. Which one is irrelevant?
a.
(ii)
b.
(iv)
c.
(iii)
d.
(i)
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Q91 mcq
Microorganisms are NOT categorized in which of the following ways?
a.
By Phylum
b.
By Carbon Source
c.
By Electron Acceptor type
d.
By Phyto Chemical
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Q92 mcq
Reactor design in wastewater treatment requires knowledge from all except:
a.
Thermodynamics
b.
Fluid Mechanics
c.
Microeconomics
d.
Heat and Mass transfer
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Q93 mcq
Which of the following is a key characteristic of a batch reactor?
a.
Continuous inflow and outflow
b.
Constant biomass due to recycling
c.
No inflow or outflow during the reaction phase
d.
Biomass grows on attached media only
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Q94 mcq
In an aerated lagoon, volatilisation from surface can cause odour problems due to
a.
Inorganic acids
b.
Organic acids
c.
Heavy metals
d.
Microbial load
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Q95 mcq
Arrange microbial growth phases in correct order: (a) Exponential growth phase (b) Endogenous growth phase (c) Retarded growth phase
a.
(c)->(a)->(b)
b.
(a)->(c)->(b)
c.
(b)->(a)->(c)
d.
(c)->(b)->(a)
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Q96 mcq
American architect Paul Soleri proposed the concept of 'Ecological Architecture' (Arcology) in the year
a.
1950
b.
1956
c.
1960
d.
1966
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Q97 mcq
LEED: Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design was developed in USA in the year
a.
1996
b.
1997
c.
1998
d.
1999
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Q98 mcq
The U.S. EPA impact analysis estimated annual costs for existing source to be ________ million.
a.
$20.83
b.
$19.12
c.
$21.73
d.
None of the above
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Q99 mcq
The 'Nature Conservancy' was born of an older organisation called Ecologist Union on
a.
June 5, 1960
b.
October 10, 2010
c.
September 11, 1950
d.
None of the above
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Q100 mcq
Green buildings are designed to reduce overall impact on
a.
Land Resources
b.
Water Potential
c.
Human health and natural environment
d.
Economic trade
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Q101 mcq
Emissions trading is set out in Article 17 of the
a.
Montreal protocol
b.
Kyoto protocol
c.
Earth summit 1972
d.
None of the above
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Q102 mcq
USGBC stands for
a.
U.S. Government Bank Council
b.
United Nations Governing Committee
c.
U.S. Green Building Council
d.
U.S. Governing Building Committee
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Q103 mcq
Which of the following is used for green building certification in India?
a.
IGBC
b.
GBI
c.
GBCI
d.
ICGB
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Q104 mcq
In environmental auditing, 'non-conformance' refers to
a.
A legal violation
b.
A financial loss
c.
A marketing failure
d.
A deviation from established environmental policies or standards
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Q105 mcq
ISO commitment enabled Life Cycle Assessment (LCA) guidelines in the year
a.
1960
b.
1970
c.
1994
d.
1999 / 1997
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Q106 mcq
Which country introduced ecolabelling first (Blue Angel) in the year 1978?
a.
Germany
b.
USA
c.
UK
d.
Japan
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Q107 mcq
The scheme of eco-labelling (Ecomark) was introduced by MoEF in India in the year
a.
1991
b.
1996
c.
1992
d.
1990
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Q108 mcq
________ is a voluntary International Standard for Environmental Management Systems (EMS).
a.
ISO 14001
b.
ISO 11002
c.
ISO 12202
d.
ISO 2020
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Q109 mcq
Which of the following is not true when it comes to 'Ecolabelling'?
a.
Identifies overall environmental preference
b.
It is a self-styled environmental symbol
c.
Awarded by impartial third party
d.
Provides information to consumers
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Q110 mcq
ISO 26000 is the recognised standard for
a.
Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR)
b.
Council for Scientific Research
c.
Common Science Research Board
d.
Committee on Social Response
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Q111 mcq
Which of the following country has been invited to open talks on joining OECD?
a.
India
b.
Israel
c.
Brazil
d.
China
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Q112 mcq
Which SDG emphasizes healthy lives and promoting well-being for all ages?
a.
Quality education
b.
Good health and well being
c.
Gender equality
d.
Life on land
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Q113 mcq
What project helped mainstream the concept of competencies in education policy circles?
a.
UNESCO Global Schools Project
b.
United Nations SDG Taskforce
c.
OECD'S Definition and Selection of Competencies (DeSeCo)
d.
International Baccalaureate initiative
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Q114 mcq
Match International Convention Treaty with agenda: (a) Montreal protocol - 3. Ozone layer (b) Stockholm convention - 1. Persistent organic pollutants (c) Kyoto protocol - 4. Greenhouse gas emission (d) Rio-declaration - 2. Sustainable development
a.
(a)-3, (b)-1, (c)-4, (d)-2
b.
(a)-2, (b)-3, (c)-4, (d)-1
c.
(a)-3, (b)-4, (c)-2, (d)-1
d.
(a)-2, (b)-1, (c)-4, (d)-3
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Q115 mcq
According to EPA Clean Air Act 1970, which pollutant remains more difficult to control?
a.
NOx
b.
Pb
c.
SO2
d.
CO
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Q116 mcq
Assertion [A]: Most significant pollutant from bagasse-fired boilers is particulate matter. Reason [R]: Auxiliary fuels used during startup when moisture is high.
a.
[A] false, [R] true
b.
Both true and [R] is correct explanation
c.
[A] false, [R] true
d.
Both true, but [R] not correct explanation
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Q117 mcq
Paper mill wastewater percolates from field had no colour and no lignin due to soil's:
a.
Base exchange capacity
b.
Acid exchange capacity
c.
Presence of monovalent salts
d.
Presence of magnesium ions
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Q118 mcq
Identify fungus involved in degradation of chlorinated lignin derivatives in paper industry:
a.
White rot fungus
b.
Red rot fungus
c.
Grey mould
d.
Blue mould
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Q119 mcq
Treatment necessary for petrochemical wastewater before biological treatment:
a.
Flotation
b.
Flocculation
c.
Filtration
d.
Oxidation / API separator (Oil removal)
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Q120 mcq
Assertion [A]: Mechanical collectors and wet scrubbers control PM in bagasse boilers. Reason [R]: Bagasse fly ash is abrasive due to silica and alumina.
a.
[A] true, [R] false
b.
Both true and [R] explains [A]
c.
[A] false, [R] true
d.
Both true, but [R] not explanation
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Q121 mcq
The source of mercury in Minamata bay was traced to a
a.
Chemical plant
b.
Pulp and paper plant
c.
Paint industry
d.
Leather industry
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Q122 mcq
Which of the following are incorrectly matched? (1) Odour and Taste - Chemical pollutants (2) Total Dissolved solids - Physical pollutants (3) Arsenic pollution - Herbicides and Pesticides (4) Chromium - Electroplating
a.
(1) and (2)
b.
(1) and (4)
c.
(2) and (3)
d.
(2) and (4)
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Q123 mcq
Raw materials used for manufacture of pesticide BHC (Benzene Hexachloride):
a.
Benzene and Chlorine
b.
Benzene and Hexane
c.
Benzene and Ethanol
d.
Benzene and Methanol
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Q124 mcq
Cement is made by heating limestone with clay at ________ °C in a kiln.
a.
1600°C
b.
1450°C
c.
1200°C
d.
850°C
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Q125 mcq
In sugar production, the mixture of crystals and syrup is called
a.
Massecuite
b.
Solution
c.
Molasses
d.
Bagasse
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Q126 mcq
Flue Gas Desulfurization (FGD) units in power plants are primarily designed to
a.
Remove particulate matter
b.
Reduce SO2 emissions
c.
Capture CO2
d.
Neutralize acid rain
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Q127 mcq
According to CPCB norms, treated effluent limits for large pulp and paper mills:
a.
BOD < 100 mg/L, pH 4-10
b.
BOD < 30 mg/L, TSS < 50 mg/L, pH 6.5-8.5
c.
TDS < 500 mg/L, BOD < 60 mg/L
d.
COD < 500 mg/L, pH 5-9
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Q128 mcq
________ types of plastic (SPI resin codes) are recyclable.
a.
1, 2, 4, 5
b.
2, 3, 5, 6
c.
1, 3, 5, 7
d.
1, 2, 4, 6
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Q129 mcq
Inertial separators are primarily used for
a.
Collection of medium size and coarse particles
b.
Collection of fine particles
c.
Collection of respirable particles
d.
Collection of toxic gases
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Q130 mcq
Areas where cleaner production measures can be taken: (i) Change of input materials (ii) Technology change (iii) Onsite reuse and recycling (iv) Good operating practices
a.
Only (i)
b.
Only (iv)
c.
Only (i) and (ii)
d.
(i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
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Q131 mcq
In IWWM, water reclamation and reuse primarily aims to
a.
Increase freshwater withdrawals
b.
Minimize wastewater generation
c.
Conserve water resources by treating wastewater for safe reuse
d.
Eliminate need for treatment
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Q132 mcq
What do Volatile Suspended Solids (VSS) primarily represent in wastewater analysis?
a.
Inorganic mineral particles
b.
Organic matter that can be burned off at high temperature
c.
Dissolved solids
d.
Heavy metals
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Q133 mcq
Indian organization involved in production of blue-green algae coated granulated compost:
a.
Indian Agricultural Research Institute (IARI)
b.
ICMR
c.
Botanical Survey of India (BSI)
d.
IISc
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Q134 mcq
Name of device for continuously measuring wastewater flow at or near ground surface in open channel:
a.
Venturi meter
b.
Turbine flow meter
c.
Vortex flow meter
d.
Parshall flume
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Q135 mcq
While discharging treated wastewater into receiving water, at least ________ ppm of DO must be present.
a.
4
b.
6
c.
10
d.
2
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Q136 mcq
Treatment method of industrial waste depends on: (i) Nature of waste (ii) BOD and COD (iii) Total solids
a.
(i) only
b.
(ii) only
c.
(i) and (ii) only
d.
(i), (ii) and (iii)
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Q137 mcq
Which wastes contain suspended matter in solid form, but little polluting matter in solution?
a.
Coal washeries
b.
Tanneries
c.
Electroplating
d.
Dairies
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Q138 mcq
Smoke particles are generally less than ________ µm.
a.
0.5
b.
1.0
c.
0.75
d.
0.25
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Q139 mcq
A prominent method of natural disposal of sewage is
a.
Dilution
b.
Mechanical straining
c.
Sewage farming
d.
Self purification
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Q140 mcq
What does COD stand for?
a.
Carbon Oxygen Demand
b.
Combined Oxygen Demand
c.
Chemical Oxygen Demand
d.
Chemical Oxygen Degree
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Q141 mcq
Microorganisms in wastewater are removed / destroyed by
a.
Heating process
b.
Hydrogenation process
c.
Natural process
d.
Oxidation process / Disinfection
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Q142 mcq
Usage of microelectrodes in wastewater analysis to determine: (1) Cyanide (2) Oxygen (3) Redox potential (4) Radioactive elements
a.
(1) and (4)
b.
(3) and (1)
c.
(2) and (3) are correct
d.
(3) and (4)
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Q143 mcq
Reaction CO2 + 8H3O+ + 8e- -> CH4 + 10H2O occurs under which condition in water bodies?
a.
Anaerobic decomposition
b.
Aerobic with sulphate
c.
Aerobic with nitrate
d.
Aerobic with oxygen
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Q144 mcq
How is ECOSAN concept most beneficial in agricultural field?
a.
Recovery of toxic metals
b.
Complete recovery of all nutrients from feces, urine and greywater
c.
Removal of toxic chemicals
d.
Recovery from microbial contaminants
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Q145 mcq
In acidic conditions, the protonated metal oxide surface electrostatically attracts
a.
Cations
b.
Anions
c.
Amphoteric ions
d.
Organic compounds
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Q146 mcq
Which of the following gases does not absorb infrared radiation?
a.
O2
b.
H2O
c.
CO2
d.
CH4
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Q147 mcq
Which water contaminant leads to skeletal fluorosis and hypocalcification?
a.
Chloride
b.
Fluoride
c.
Phosphate
d.
Calcium
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Q148 mcq
In hydrocarbon analysis, flame ionization detector (FID) response is roughly proportional to number of
a.
C-atoms
b.
O-atoms
c.
H-atoms
d.
N-atoms
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Q149 mcq
The indicator cannot be stored in solution for long because it
a.
Undergoes change in colour
b.
Undergoes reduction
c.
Evaporates quickly
d.
Decomposes over time
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Q150 mcq
Methods involved in green synthesis / chemical recycling of PET: (1) Closed loop recycling (2) Open loop recycling (3) Methanolysis (4) Transesterification
a.
(1), (3) and (4) are correct
b.
(3), and (4) are correct
c.
(2), and (3) are correct
d.
(2), (3) and (4)
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Q151 mcq
Match atmospheric gases with percentage: (a) Nitrogen - 3. 78% (b) Oxygen - 1. 21% (c) Argon - 2. 0.93% (d) Carbon Dioxide - 4. 0.04%
a.
(a)-3, (b)-1, (c)-2, (d)-4
b.
(a)-1, (b)-2, (c)-3, (d)-4
c.
(a)-4, (b)-3, (c)-1, (d)-2
d.
(a)-2, (b)-4, (c)-1, (d)-3
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Q152 mcq
If sulfur is returned to atmosphere from oceans, production of ________ is an important pathway.
a.
(CH3)2S (Dimethyl sulfide)
b.
NH4HS
c.
CaSO4
d.
Na2SO3
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Q153 mcq
Which of the following is most important among biogenic hydrocarbons?
a.
Methane
b.
Both ethylene and methane
c.
Neither
d.
Ethylene
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Q154 mcq
As wind blows, soil particles dislodge and begin to roll on surface in a process called
a.
Soil mining
b.
Soil flying
c.
Soil washing
d.
Saltation
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Q155 mcq
Biodegradation of surface soil is inhibited due to presence of
a.
Carbon-rich, Nitrogen-poor nutrients
b.
Nitrogen-rich and phosphorus-poor
c.
Chloride-rich and sodium-poor
d.
Nitrogen-rich and carbon-poor
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Q156 mcq
Which waste is also known as 'end of life' (EOL)?
a.
Biomedical waste
b.
Radioactive waste
c.
E-waste
d.
Plastic waste
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Q157 mcq
Pioneering legislation for e-waste management:
a.
The SWISS EE - 1996
b.
The SWISS OREE - 1995
c.
The SWISS ORDEE - 1998
d.
The SWISS ORRDE - 1990
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Q158 mcq
Arrange layers of secure landfill in order from bottom up: (i) Polythene liner (ii) Cushion layer (iii) Clay layer (iv) Gravel / leachate collection layer
a.
(i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
b.
(iv), (ii), (i), (iii)
c.
(iii), (iv), (i), (ii)
d.
(ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
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Q159 mcq
Deliberately dismantling buildings to salvage materials for reuse is known as
a.
Recycling
b.
Waste segregation
c.
Deconstruction
d.
Source reduction
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Q160 mcq
Hazardous and Other Wastes (Management and Transboundary Movement) Rules published in
a.
2000
b.
2003
c.
2008 / 2009
d.
2016 / 2015
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Q161 mcq
State successfully running waste-to-electricity plants through anaerobic digestion in India:
a.
Gujarat
b.
Sikkim
c.
Tamil Nadu
d.
Assam
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Q162 mcq
Metal present in PCB and cables that acts as catalyst for dioxin formation:
a.
Mercury
b.
Fluoride
c.
Copper
d.
Magnesium
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Q163 mcq
Among the following polymers, which one is thermoplastic in nature?
a.
Aliphatic polyester
b.
Epoxy polymers
c.
Carboxymethyl cellulose
d.
Polystyrene
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Q164 mcq
Which polymer does not undergo hydrolysis and hydrobiodegradability?
a.
Polyesters
b.
Polyamides
c.
Polyurethanes
d.
Polypropylene
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Q165 mcq
Prime objectives of solid waste management: (i) Solid waste amounts to environmental threat (ii) Trim down disposal along with salvaging (iii) Energy from solid waste (iv) Reduce pollution load
a.
(i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
b.
(i), (ii), (iii)
c.
(ii), (iii)
d.
(i), (ii), (iv)
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Q166 mcq
During recycling of paper waste, ________ is used as bleaching agent.
a.
HCl or H2SO4
b.
CO2
c.
NaOH
d.
H2O2 or chlorine dioxide
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Q167 mcq
Excavating and re-disposing waste in a more controlled manner is called
a.
Leachate management
b.
Slope stabilization
c.
Phased approach
d.
Landfill mining
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Q168 mcq
Which of the following are resilient and almost impossible to compact?
a.
Plastics
b.
Tires
c.
Chemicals
d.
E-waste
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Q169 mcq
Applying specifically engineered microorganisms to break down contaminants is called
a.
In situ bioremediation
b.
Ex situ bioremediation
c.
Biostimulation
d.
Bioaugmentation
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Q170 mcq
Water body overly enriched with nutrients leading to excessive algal growth is called
a.
Oligotrophication
b.
Eutrophication
c.
Subtrophication
d.
Zerotrophication
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Q171 mcq
Capacity to consume oxygen by sewage is expressed in
a.
PPM - Parts Per Million / mg/L
b.
RPM
c.
MPL
d.
GPL
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Q172 mcq
When should wastes generated at traffic congested locations be collected?
a.
During early morning
b.
During night hours
c.
First part of the day
d.
Second part of the day
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Q173 mcq
Statements correct: (i) Density separation by air classifiers (ii) Iron recovery by magnetic separators (iii) Aluminium separation by eddy current separators
a.
(i) and (ii) only
b.
(ii) and (iii) only
c.
(i) and (iii) only
d.
(i), (ii) and (iii)
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Q174 mcq
Match proximate analysis with formulas: (a) Moisture - 2. % $=$ (Weight loss / Sample wt) * 100 (b) Volatile matter - 4. Total weight loss - moisture (c) Ash - 1. % $=$ (Residue wt / Sample wt) * 100 (d) Fixed carbon - 3. 100 - (%M + %Ash + %VM)
a.
(a)-2, (b)-4, (c)-1, (d)-3
b.
(a)-1, (b)-3, (c)-2, (d)-4
c.
(a)-3, (b)-1, (c)-4, (d)-2
d.
(a)-4, (b)-2, (c)-3, (d)-1
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Q175 mcq
Match waste types: (a) Garbage - 2. Attracts flies and insects (b) Rubbish - 3. Incinerated at 1400-1500°F (c) Ashes - 4. Cinders and clinkers (d) Bulky household waste - 1. Lawn mowers
a.
(a)-2, (b)-3, (c)-4, (d)-1
b.
(a)-3, (b)-4, (c)-1, (d)-2
c.
(a)-4, (b)-1, (c)-2, (d)-3
d.
(a)-1, (b)-2, (c)-3, (d)-4
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Q176 mcq
Waste subjected to decay with time evolving offensive odour and gases:
a.
Organic waste
b.
Inorganic waste
c.
Trade waste
d.
Ashes
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Q177 mcq
Solid wastes can be made to use for
a.
Packing
b.
Transportation
c.
Recycling
d.
Municipal earnings
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Q178 mcq
Rubbish consists of all non-putrescible wastes excluding
a.
Rags
b.
Paper
c.
Ashes
d.
Broken crockery
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Q179 mcq
Arrange stages of composting in order: (i) Stabilisation stage (ii) Sieving and grading (iii) Maturation stage (iv) High rate composting stage
a.
(i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
b.
(iii), (i), (iv), (ii)
c.
(iv), (i), (iii), (ii)
d.
(i), (iv), (iii), (ii)
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Q180 mcq
Incineration can reduce solid waste to about
a.
90% in volume and 75% in weight
b.
75% in volume and 90% in weight
c.
55% in volume and 80% in weight
d.
80% in volume and 55% in weight
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Q181 mcq
Which is most destructive in killing pathogens during chlorination?
a.
Hypochlorite ion
b.
Hypochlorous acid (HOCl)
c.
Monochloramine
d.
Dichloramine
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Q182 mcq
Which best represents activated carbon's ability to remove taste and odour?
a.
Solubility
b.
Adsorption capacity
c.
Chemical reactivity
d.
Ion exchange capacity
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Q183 mcq
Contents of secondary sedimentation tank in activated sludge process predominantly undergo:
a.
Type III zone settling
b.
Type II flocculent settling
c.
Type IV compression settling
d.
Flotation settling
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Q184 mcq
In wastewater treatment, particles that change size, shape and specific gravity on contact undergo
a.
Precipitation
b.
Flocculation / Type II settling
c.
Settling in contiguous zone
d.
Compression
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Q185 mcq
Compute hydraulic loading rate of ion-exchange column: flow rate 5000 $m³/h$, cross-sectional area 25 $m²$.
a.
12500 m/h
b.
12.5 m/h
c.
200 m/h
d.
20000 m/h
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Q186 mcq
In coagulation, adsorption-destabilization theme involves:
a.
Negatively charged, polynuclear Aluminium species
b.
Positively charged, mononuclear Aluminium species
c.
Positively charged, polynuclear Aluminium species
d.
Negatively charged, mononuclear Aluminum species
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Q187 mcq
In disinfection, bromine chloride gas reacts with water to give
a.
HOBr
b.
Br2Cl2
c.
HBr
d.
H2O2
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Q188 mcq
In Reverse Osmosis, pressure higher than osmotic pressure results in increase in
a.
Flux momentum
b.
Flux density / Water flux
c.
Flux volume
d.
Flux mass
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Q189 mcq
Desired Height-To-Diameter (H:D) for fixed-bed adsorption column ranges from
a.
1:3 to 1:5
b.
2:4 to 3:9
c.
6:1 to 9:3
d.
3:1 to 5:1
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Q190 mcq
Saturated dissolved oxygen concentration in tap water at 20°C is about
a.
12.48 mg/L
b.
6.80 mg/L
c.
9.17 mg/L
d.
14.23 mg/L
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Q191 mcq
In rectangular clarifier, flow $=$ 30,300 $m³/day$, overflow rate $=$ 24.4 $m³/day-m²$, detention time $=$ 6h. Required plan area is
a.
1242 $m²$
b.
2484 $m²$
c.
3726 $m²$
d.
4968 $m²$
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Q192 mcq
If effluent contains concentrated acids or bases with stringent limits, ________ neutralization system should be used.
a.
Continuous
b.
Batch
c.
Fed-Batch
d.
Semi-continuous
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Q193 mcq
If influent flow is constant and chemistry not critical, ________ neutralization is employed.
a.
Batch
b.
Semi-continuous flow
c.
Continuous flow
d.
Fed batch
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Q194 mcq
Solid-liquid interface for Type III and IV suspensions observed through plot of
a.
Time versus velocity
b.
Time versus distance settled / height
c.
Time versus viscosity
d.
Time versus density
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Q195 mcq
How are grits removed if primary treatment has no grit chamber?
a.
Removed in aeration basin and secondary clarifier
b.
Removed in trickling filter
c.
Removed in bio filters
d.
Removed in RBC
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Q196 mcq
Velocity of Bar screen and opening size:
a.
0.6 to 1.0 m/s and < 40 mm / 20-50 mm
b.
< 0.1 m/s and < 4 mm
c.
1.2 to 1.5 m/s and 45 to 60 mm
d.
> 2 m/s and 50 mm
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Q197 mcq
In wastewater plant, mechanical bar screens typically installed at an angle of ________ with horizontal.
a.
45° to 90° / 60° to 90°
b.
0° to 30°
c.
100° to 180°
d.
200° to 270°
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Q198 mcq
If concentration is 45 mg/L and flow is 50 L/s, total nitrogen load per day is
a.
194.4 kg N/d
b.
0.194 kg N/d
c.
96 kg N/d
d.
0.096 kg N/d
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Q199 mcq
In a grit chamber, if flume is not free-flowing, ________ is a function of difference in upstream and downstream heads.
a.
Discharge
b.
Velocity
c.
Pressure head
d.
Drift velocity
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Q200 mcq
For horizontal flow grit chamber, ideal settling theory assumes horizontal velocity is
a.
uniform over depth
b.
varying over depth
c.
uniform over length
d.
varying over length
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