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TNPSC · Computer Applications

TNPSC Computer Applications 2024

2024 · 199 questions · First 10 Solutions Free
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Q1 mcq
Relocatable programs
a.
cannot be used with fixed partitions
b.
can be loaded almost anywhere in memory Correct Answer
c.
do not need a linker
d.
can be loaded only at one specific location
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Relocatable programs are designed without fixed memory address bindings so that they can be dynamically loaded into any available region of memory.
Q2 mcq
A linker program
a.
places the program in the memory for the purpose of execution
b.
relocates the program to execute from the specific memory area allocated to it
c.
link the program with other programs needed for its execution Correct Answer
d.
interfaces the program with the entities generating its input data
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
A linker takes one or more object files generated by a compiler/assembler and combines them into a single executable file, linking external references and library routines needed for execution.
Q3 mcq
In an absolute loading scheme, which loader function is accomplished by assembler
a.
linking
b.
loading
c.
allocation
d.
reallocation Correct Answer
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
In an absolute loading scheme, the allocation and relocation functions are performed by the programmer or assembler, while the loader is only responsible for placing the binary code into memory.
Q4 mcq
The following ______ file is an output of the assembler.
a.
Program file
b.
Object file Correct Answer
c.
Date file
d.
Task file
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
An assembler translates assembly language source instructions into machine code, producing an object file as its primary output.
Q5 mcq
Choose the option of task not performed by the macro processor
a.
Recognize macro definition
b.
Recognize calls
c.
Compile the macro Correct Answer
d.
Expand calls and substitute arguments
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
A macro processor recognizes macro definitions, identifies macro calls, and performs text expansion with argument substitution. It does not compile macros; compilation is handled by the language compiler/assembler.
Q6 mcq
In a two pass assembler, the task of the second pass is to
a.
separate the symbol, mnemonic opcode and operand fields
b.
build symbol table
c.
construct intermediate code
d.
synthesize the target program Correct Answer
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Pass 1 of a two-pass assembler constructs the symbol table and defines locations, while Pass 2 synthesizes the target machine code using the symbol table and mnemonic opcode definitions.
Q7 mcq
PL/I provides the following mechanisms for reserving the data space, match it : (a) Static (b) Automatic (c) Controlled (d) Block structure 1. Allows the programmer to control the space allocation 2. Scope of declaration of variables 3. Compile time 4. Storage is allocated when block is referenced
a.
(a)-4, (b)-1, (c)-2, (d)-3
b.
(a)-3, (b)-1, (c)-2, (d)-4
c.
(a)-3, (b)-4, (c)-1, (d)-2 Correct Answer
d.
(a)-4, (b)-2, (c)-1, (d)-3
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
In PL/I: Static storage is allocated at compile time (3); Automatic storage is allocated upon entering the block (4); Controlled storage allows programmer-driven allocation via ALLOCATE/FREE (1); Block structure controls variable scoping (2).
Q8 mcq
A Graph which depicts the flow of information among the attributes instances in a parse tree is
a.
Weighted Graph
b.
Structured Graph
c.
Dependency Graph Correct Answer
d.
Finite Graph
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
A dependency graph is a directed graph that represents the dependencies and data flow among attribute instances in an annotated parse tree.
Q9 mcq
A symbol is said to be ______ if it has different meanings depending on its context.
a.
Overrided
b.
Overloading Correct Answer
c.
Coercions
d.
Cohesion
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Overloading refers to the ability of an operator, function, or symbol to take on different meanings or behaviors depending on the context and types of arguments.
Q10 mcq
DAG stands for ______
a.
Discontinued Acyclic Graph
b.
Designated Acyclic Graph
c.
Differently Acyclic Graph
d.
Directed Acyclic Graph Correct Answer
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
DAG stands for Directed Acyclic Graph, which is a directed graph containing no directed cycles, widely used in intermediate code representation and optimization.
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Q11 mcq
In code generation, the size of heap cannot be determined at
a.
Compile time
b.
Run time
c.
Access time
d.
Transfer time
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Q12 mcq
Synthesized attributes can be evaluated during a single ______ of a parse tree
a.
Post order traversal
b.
Pre order traversal
c.
Bottom-up traversal
d.
Top-down traversal
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Q13 mcq
Identify the operator grammar
a.
$E \to E+E \mid E-E \mid E*E \mid AB \mid -E \mid id$
b.
$E \to EAE \mid -E \mid id, \quad A \to + \mid - \mid *$
c.
$E \to E+E \mid E-E \mid E*E \mid -E \mid id$
d.
$E \to E+E \mid E-E \mid E*E \mid -E \mid E \mid id$
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Q15 mcq
______ is the language of finite automata
a.
Type 0
b.
Type 1
c.
Type 2
d.
Type 3
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Q16 mcq
An NFA's transition function returns
a.
A Boolean value
b.
A State
c.
A set of States
d.
An edge
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Q17 mcq
Consider the grammar defined by the following production rules, with two operators * and + $$T \to P$$ $$P \to U \mid T * U$$ $$Q \to P + Q \mid P$$ $$U \to id$$ which one of the following is TRUE?
a.
+ is left associative, while * is right associative
b.
+ is right associative, while * is left associative
c.
Both + and * are right associative
d.
Both + and * are left associative
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Q18 mcq
The address of the actual parameter is passed to the callee as the value of the corresponding formal parameter is called as
a.
Call by value
b.
Call by reference
c.
Call by result
d.
Call by name
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Q19 mcq
The second phase of a compiler is known as
a.
Code optimization
b.
Semantic analysis
c.
Syntax analysis
d.
Lexical analysis
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Q20 mcq
The following parser is most powerful
a.
Operator precedence
b.
Canonical LR
c.
LALR
d.
SLR
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Q21 mcq
In HTML, ------ tag is used to display the bullet-style list that does not order its item by letter or number.
a.
<ol>
b.
<dl>
c.
<ul>
d.
<li>
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Q22 mcq
Which tag is used to add columns to table?
a.
<th>
b.
<td>
c.
<tr>
d.
<tc>
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Q23 mcq
In HTML, the values assigned to ------ and ------ attributes specify the number of rows (or) columns occupied by a cell.
a.
rowspan, colspan
b.
rspan, cspan
c.
colspan, rowspan
d.
cspan, rspan
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Q24 mcq
In Email, BCC stands for
a.
Blue Carbon Copy
b.
Bind Carbon Copy
c.
Bit Carbon Copy
d.
Blind Carbon Copy
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Q25 mcq
Which of the following is mandatory for sending an email?
a.
Body
b.
Sender mail ID
c.
Subject
d.
Attachment
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Q26 mcq
Which of the following statements about email are false? (1) Using the CC feature will hide all other recipients from each other. (2) You can only send emails from a laptop computer. (3) You can add attachments of any file size to an email. (4) You can add signatures to your emails to give personal contact details.
a.
(1), (2), (3)
b.
(1), (3), (4)
c.
(1), (4)
d.
(2), (3), (4)
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Q27 mcq
How many frames need to be displayed to achieve the effect of smooth motions of objects?
a.
20 fps
b.
24 fps
c.
28 fps
d.
32 fps
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Q28 mcq
------ provide an integrated environment for combining text, graphics, audio, video and animation into an interactive presentation.
a.
Creating
b.
Morphing
c.
Scheduling
d.
Authoring
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Q29 mcq
Which of the following is a term that applies to the spacing between characters of text?
a.
Leading
b.
Kerning
c.
Tracking
d.
Points
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Q30 mcq
Which is the actual visual element provides an entry point to another document?
a.
Anchor
b.
Pointer
c.
Architecture
d.
Abstraction
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Q31 mcq
Multimedia includes (1) Text (2) Graphics (3) Sound (4) Animation (5) Memory
a.
(1), (2), (3), (4)
b.
(2), (3), (4)
c.
(1), (2), (3), (4), (5)
d.
(3), (4)
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Q32 mcq
Optical character recognition system consists of a scanner and some
a.
Hardware
b.
Firm ware
c.
Middleware
d.
Software
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Q33 mcq
In which, information is accessed through a touch screen and viewed on a monitor?
a.
Information Kiosk
b.
Digital representation
c.
Analog representation
d.
Information sharing
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Q34 mcq
What is frame rate?
a.
It measures number of frames per second
b.
It measures number of frames per minute
c.
It measures number of frames per word
d.
It measures number of frames per sentence
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Q35 mcq
Which one is correct to the given statement? "From the microphone (or) audio cassette player a sound card receives a sound as an analog signal?"
a.
MIDI files
b.
WAV files
c.
PDF files
d.
Ordinary files
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Q36 mcq
The branch of science dealing with the study of sound is
a.
Soundology
b.
Acoustics
c.
Waveology
d.
Sonateology
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Q37 mcq
Which one of the following is the search engine?
a.
Windows
b.
Google
c.
Linux
d.
MS Word
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Q38 mcq
Which among these is not a web browser?
a.
Chrome
b.
WWW
c.
Opera
d.
Netsurf
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Q39 mcq
------ is not a search engine.
a.
Google
b.
Yandex
c.
Gmail
d.
Bing
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Q40 mcq
Which of the following is not a browser?
a.
Android
b.
Safari
c.
Chrome
d.
Opera
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Q41 mcq
If $n$ people to meet each day for lunch at a round table. If $n$ is even the number of possible ways such that each day no two people sit together, who have sat together before is
a.
$\frac{n-1}{2}$
b.
$\frac{n+1}{2}$
c.
$\frac{n-2}{2}$
d.
$\frac{n+2}{2}$
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Q42 mcq
The size of an $r$-regular $(p, q)$ graph is given by
a.
$q = \frac{p \times r}{2}$
b.
$q = p \times r$
c.
$q = p + r$
d.
$q = \frac{p + r}{2}$
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Q43 mcq
Consider the following two statements and choose the correct option: S1: Let $\mathbb{N}$ be the set of Natural numbers. Then $(\mathbb{N}, +)$ and $(\mathbb{N}, \times)$ are monoids. S2: The set of all semi group endomorphisms of a semi group is a semi group under the operation of composition.
a.
S1 is True and S2 is False
b.
S1 is False and S2 is True
c.
Both S1 and S2 are True
d.
Both S1 and S2 are False
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Q44 mcq
Choose the right answer among: (i) A graph which contains a triangle can be bipartite. (ii) The complete graph $K_n$ is regular of degree $n - 1$. (iii) The max number of edges in a simple graph with $n$ vertices is $\frac{n(n-1)}{2}$. (iv) A complete bipartite graph $K_{m,n}$ is not regular if $m \neq n$.
a.
(i) only
b.
(i), (ii) only
c.
(ii), (iii), (iv) only
d.
(i), (ii), (iv) only
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Q45 mcq
Let $P$, $Q$ and $R$ be three variables. Determine the total number of min terms and max terms produced from these variables.
a.
8
b.
16
c.
32
d.
64
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Q46 mcq
By addition of which property, semi group becomes monoid?
a.
Closure
b.
Associative
c.
Identity
d.
Inverse
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Q47 mcq
The identity element of the group of integers with the binary operation $*$ defined by $a * b = a + b + 2$ $\forall a, b \in \mathbb{Z}$ is
a.
1
b.
0
c.
-1
d.
-2
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Q49 mcq
Which one of the following statements is FALSE?
a.
The multiplicative group $\{1, -1\}$ is a subgroup of the multiplicative group $\{1, -1, i, -i\}$
b.
Identity element of a subgroup is same as that of the group
c.
The intersection of any two subgroups of a group $(G, *)$ is again a subgroup of $(G, *)$
d.
The union of any two subgroups of a group $(G, *)$ is a subgroup of $(G, *)$
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Q50 mcq
Let $T(n)$ denote the worst time units for binary search of a file with $n$ records. Find $T(27)$.
a.
3
b.
4
c.
5
d.
6
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Q51 mcq
If every student gets a separate chair and still some chairs are left vacant, it is an example of
a.
One-One onto function
b.
One-One into function
c.
Many-One onto function
d.
Many-One into function
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Q52 mcq
Let $A = \{1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7\}$ and $B = \{w, x, y, z\}$ then the number of functions from $A$ onto $B$ is
a.
$4^7$
b.
$7^4$
c.
8400
d.
4800
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Q53 mcq
Which of the following sets are closed with respect to addition and subtraction?
a.
$\{1, 3, 5, 7, \dots\}$
b.
$\{1, 2, 3, 4, 5\}$
c.
The set of all natural numbers
d.
The set of integers
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Q54 mcq
Let $X = \{1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 12\}$. Find the least upper bound of $\{2, 3\}$ under the relation $R = \{(a,b): a \text{ divides } b\}$.
a.
3
b.
4
c.
6
d.
12
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Q55 mcq
Among the following statements, which one does not holds?
a.
If $n$ is a positive integer, then $1\cdot 2 + 2\cdot 3 + 3\cdot 4 + \dots + n(n+1) = \frac{n(n+1)(n+2)}{3}$.
b.
If $n$ is a positive integer greater than 4, than $2^n > n^2$
c.
Whenever $n$ is a non-negative integer, then 5 divides $n^5 - n$
d.
$1^2 + 2^2 + 3^2 + \dots + n^2 = \left[\frac{n(n+1)}{2}\right]^2 \quad (n \in N)$
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Q56 mcq
$P(n) = 10^n + 3\cdot 4^{n+2} + 5$ is divisible by ------ for all positive integer values of $n$.
a.
7
b.
5
c.
4
d.
9
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Q57 mcq
The digraph of $R$, the ------ of a vertex is the number of edges terminating at the vertex and the ------ of a vertex is the number of edges leaving the vertex.
a.
in degree ; out degree
b.
out degree ; in degree
c.
in degree ; in degree
d.
out degree ; out degree
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Q58 mcq
How many proper subsets does a set with $n$ elements have?
a.
$n!$
b.
$2^n - 2$
c.
$n$
d.
$n - 1$
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Q59 mcq
If the function $f : \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}$ defined by $f(x) = \begin{cases} 3x-4, & x > 0 \\ -3x+2, & x \le 0 \end{cases}$, then value of $f^{-1}(0)$ and $f^{-1}(2)$ is
a.
$\{\frac{4}{3}\}$ and $\{0, 2\}$
b.
$\{2\}$ and $\{-4\}$
c.
$\{-3\}$ and $\{2\}$
d.
$\{2, -4\}$ and $\{0\}$
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Q60 mcq
Let $\mathbb{N}$ be the set of positive integers. If $f$ and $g$ are mapping on $\mathbb{N}$. $f(n) = n + 7$ for all $n \in \mathbb{N}$ $g(n) = 2n$ for all $n \in \mathbb{N}$ then $g \circ f$ is
a.
$n + 13$
b.
$2n + 15$
c.
$n - 17$
d.
$2n + 14$
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Q61 mcq
Using the two phase locking protocol find the values of $X$ and $Y$ after the transaction $T_1$ and $T_2$ with initial values of $X = 20, Y = 30$. $T_1$: read-lock(Y) read-item(Y) unlock(Y) write-lock(X) read-item(X) $X = X + Y$ write-item(X) unlock(X) $T_2$: read-lock(X) read-item(X) unlock(X) write-lock(Y) read-item(Y) $Y = X + Y$ write-item(Y) unlock(Y)
a.
$X = 50, Y = 70$ after $T_1$ followed by $T_2$ $X = 70, Y = 50$ after $T_2$ followed by $T_1$
b.
$X = 80, Y = 50$ after $T_1$ followed by $T_2$ $X = 70, Y = 50$ after $T_2$ followed by $T_1$
c.
$X = 50, Y = 80$ after $T_1$ followed by $T_2$ $X = 70, Y = 50$ after $T_2$ followed by $T_1$
d.
$X = 20, Y = 70$ after $T_1$ followed by $T_2$ $X = 70, Y = 80$ after $T_2$ followed by $T_1$
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Q62 mcq
In object databases (ODBs), the complex type is constructed from other types by nesting of type constructors, choose the correct collection of types (i) atom (ii) struct (iii) union (iv) collection
a.
(i), (ii), (iii)
b.
(ii), (iii), (iv)
c.
(i), (ii), (iv)
d.
(i), (iii), (iv)
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Q63 mcq
The advantages of OODBMS are (i) Enriched Model Capabilities (ii) Extensibility (iii) More Expressive query language (iv) No support for schema evolution
a.
(i), (iii) and (iv) only
b.
(i), (ii) and (iii) only
c.
(ii) and (iii) only
d.
(iii) and (iv) only
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Q64 mcq
In object-oriented database, OID has any one of the characteristics (i) It is generated by the system (ii) It is unique (iii) It is used only by the system (iv) It is dependent to the state of the object
a.
(i) and (ii) only
b.
(i), (iv) and (ii) only
c.
(i), (ii) and (iii) only
d.
(iv) only
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Q65 mcq
------ is guaranteed by concurrency control protocol.
a.
Cascadeless
b.
Conflictness
c.
Serializability
d.
Reliability
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Q66 mcq
A ------ provides a way to describe the design of a database at the physical, logical and view levels.
a.
Data model
b.
Data isolation
c.
Data values
d.
Data independence
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Q67 mcq
------ is a statement that a system executes automatically when there is any modification to the database.
a.
Trigger
b.
Predicates
c.
Views
d.
Tuples
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Q68 mcq
Which one consists of a set of atomic values?
a.
Attributes
b.
Tuples
c.
Relations
d.
Domains
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Q69 mcq
The main disadvantages of Network data model is ------ and ------
a.
complicated relations and few storage space
b.
simple relations and few storage space
c.
complicated relations and great demand of storage space
d.
simple relations and great demand of storage space
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Q70 mcq
Choose the function(s) of advanced DBMS from the following.
a.
Querying the data
b.
Ease use of data by everyone
c.
Access data without synchronization
d.
Unprotect the data
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Q71 mcq
2NF relations are those that are in 1NF with all the attribute types dependent on the ------ key
a.
Primary
b.
Foreign
c.
Composite
d.
Alternate
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Q72 mcq
The normal form which is based on the concept of Transitive dependency is ------
a.
First Normal Form
b.
Second Normal Form
c.
Third Normal Form
d.
Trival Normal Form
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Q73 mcq
Third normal form is based on the concept of ------
a.
Functional dependency
b.
Partial dependency
c.
Transitive dependency
d.
Full functional dependency
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Q74 mcq
Choose the DML command from the following:
a.
Create
b.
Grant
c.
Insert
d.
Drop
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Q75 mcq
Identify the TRUE statement about normalization. (i) It plays important role in functional dependencies (ii) It is based on multivalue dependencies (iii) It allows redundancy of data
a.
(i) only
b.
(i) and (iii) only
c.
(i) and (ii) only
d.
(ii) and (iii) only
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Q76 mcq
Who introduce the relational database rules?
a.
Atul Kahate
b.
James Gorsling
c.
E F Codd
d.
Dennis Ritchie
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Q77 mcq
The ------ allow composite attributes of E-R designs to be represented directly.
a.
Structured types
b.
Inheritance
c.
Complex data types
d.
Persistence
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Q78 mcq
Which tree starts with a single root node at level (0) zero?
a.
B+ Tree
b.
B Tree
c.
Search Tree
d.
Sub Tree
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Q79 mcq
Consider the following functional dependency $G = \{A \rightarrow BCDE, CD \rightarrow E\}$ and choose the minimum cover of $G$
a.
$\{A \rightarrow BCD, CD \rightarrow E\}$
b.
$\{A \rightarrow BC, A \rightarrow D, C \rightarrow DE\}$
c.
$\{A \rightarrow BCD, C \rightarrow DE\}$
d.
$\{A \rightarrow BC, A \rightarrow D, C \rightarrow D\}$
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Q80 mcq
Identify the phases involved in DB design. (i) Conceptual DB design (ii) Logical DB design (iii) Physical DB design
a.
(i) only
b.
(ii) only
c.
(i), (ii) and (iii) only
d.
(ii) and (iii) only
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Q81 mcq
A stack-organized computer uses instruction of ------
a.
Two-addressing
b.
Indirect addressing
c.
Three-addressing
d.
Zero addressing
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Q82 mcq
The pipelining process is also called as ________
a.
Super scalar operation
b.
Assembly line operation
c.
Von Neumann cycle
d.
Deadlock
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Q83 mcq
The ________ represents an organization that includes many processing unit under the supervision of a common control unit.
a.
Single Instruction stream, Single Data stream (SISD)
b.
Single Instruction stream, Multiple Data stream (SIMD)
c.
Multiple Instruction stream, Single Data stream (MISD)
d.
Multiple Instruction stream, Multiple Data stream (MIMD)
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Q84 mcq
The ________ is a addressing mode, in which the operand value is present in the instruction.
a.
Immediate Addressing
b.
Direct Addressing
c.
Indirect Addressing
d.
Register Addressing
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Q85 mcq
Which one of the following is true for a typical RISC architecture?
a.
Makes use of micro programmed control unit
b.
Has much smaller cache than CISC processors
c.
Supports many addressing modes
d.
Make use of hardwired control unit
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Q86 mcq
In which computer architecture, programs and Data are stored in the same memory?
a.
Von Neumann architecture
b.
SPARC architecture
c.
Harvard architecture
d.
CISC architecture
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Q87 mcq
Find the result of the reverse polish notation $3\ 4\ *\ 5\ 6\ *\ +$
a.
34
b.
56
c.
42
d.
36
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Q88 mcq
The following one or more are the characteristics of the RISC Architecture (1) Large variety of Addressing Modes (2) Fixed length instruction format (3) Variable length instruction format (4) Few Addressing Modes
a.
(1), (3)
b.
(2), (4)
c.
(1), (2)
d.
(3), (4)
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Q89 mcq
Consider a three-address RISC instruction set architecture. Which one of the following correctly characterizes an effect of doubling the number of registers in the processors?
a.
Instruction size would increase by 1 bit
b.
Instruction size would increase by 2 bits
c.
Instruction size would increase by 3 bits
d.
Instruction size would remain unaffected
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Q90 mcq
The Von Neumann bottleneck can be attributed to which one of the following?
a.
Mismatch between the speeds of the secondary and primary storages.
b.
Mismatch between the speeds of the CPU and the primary storage
c.
Slow speed of input / output devices
d.
Low clock speeds
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Q91 mcq
Forbidden Latency means ________
a.
Distance between all the checkmarks
b.
Distance between any two checkmarks in the same row of the reservation table
c.
Distance between all the checkmarks in the same row of the reservation table
d.
Distance between any two checkmarks in the same column of the reservation table
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Q91 mcq
Forbidden Latency means------
a.
Distance between all the checkmarks
b.
Distance between any two checkmarks in the same row of the reservation table
c.
Distance between all the checkmarks in the same row of the reservation table
d.
Distance between any two checkmarks in the same column of the reservation table
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Q92 mcq
The process of efficient allocation of the vectors is known as
a.
Vectorization
b.
Optimization
c.
Code generation
d.
Code motion
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Q93 mcq
Vector processors are best classified into which one of the following Flynn's classifications of computers.
a.
SISD
b.
SIMD
c.
MISD
d.
MIMD
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Q94 mcq
Explore the suitable applications from the given list where vector processing is utmost important. (1) Aerodynamics and space flight simulations (2) Artificial intelligence and expert systems (3) Petroleum explorations (4) Mapping the human genome
a.
(1) and (2) only
b.
(3) and (4) only
c.
(2) only
d.
All (1), (2), (3) and (4)
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Q95 mcq
In an Interprocessor Arbitration process, which bus initiate the transfer of data item accompanied by handshaking control signals to indicate when the data are transferred from the source and received by the destination.
a.
System Bus
b.
Synchronous Bus
c.
Asynchronous Bus
d.
I/O Bus
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Q96 mcq
------is set, when an updates are made only in the cache by write back technique.
a.
Tiny bit
b.
Mark bit
c.
Middle bit
d.
Dirty bit
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Q97 mcq
Booth algorithm gives a procedure for multiplying binary in signed ------representation.
a.
1's complement
b.
BCD
c.
ASCII
d.
2's complement
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Q98 mcq
The highest hierarchy is given to which series of memory available below due to access speed (1) Primary memory (2) Cache memory (3) Auxiliary memory
a.
(2), (1), (3)
b.
(3), (1), (2)
c.
(1), (2), (3)
d.
(2), (3), (1)
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Q99 mcq
Which is designed to combine the memory access time of expensive, High-Speed Memory with the Large Memory Size of Less Expensive, Lower-Speed Memory.
a.
Associative Memory
b.
Auxiliary Memory
c.
Cache Memory
d.
Virtual Memory
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Q100 mcq
TLB stands for
a.
Transport Least aside Buffer
b.
Translation Look aside Buffer
c.
Translation Least aside Buffer
d.
Transport Look aside Buffer
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Q101 mcq
A list of all elements that hash to the same value is known as
a.
Double hashing
b.
Group chaining
c.
Separate chaining
d.
Linear probing
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Q102 mcq
____ algorithm solves the single source shortest path problem if all edge weights are greater than or equal to zero.
a.
Floyd-Warshall
b.
Warshall
c.
Bellman-Ford
d.
Dijkstra's
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Q103 mcq
Mention the name of the traversal method performs the following operations. (a) Traverse the left subtree of N(L) (b) Traverse the right subtree of N(R) (c) Process the root Node (N)
a.
Post order
b.
In order
c.
Pre order
d.
Prepost order
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Q104 mcq
-----finds the location of an element in a data structure without making any comparisons.
a.
Sorting
b.
Searching
c.
Hashing
d.
Recursion
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Q105 mcq
Graphs cannot be implemented by which of the following methods.
a.
Adjacency matrix
b.
Path matrix
c.
Adjacency list
d.
Path list
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Q106 mcq
Degree of a vertex in a graph is the number of ----- connected to a vertex.
a.
Path
b.
Order
c.
Loop
d.
Edges
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Q107 mcq
The average running time of searching an element in a binary search tree is
a.
$O(\log n)$
b.
$O(n \log n)$
c.
$O(\log 2n)$
d.
$O(n \log 2n)$
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Q108 mcq
Consider the graph have 7 vertices. How many number of elements in the adjacency matrix?
a.
14
b.
30
c.
40
d.
49
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Q109 mcq
Breadth First Search program would be best implemented using -----data structure.
a.
Queue
b.
Stack
c.
List
d.
Arrays
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Q110 mcq
A stack is based on the ----- principle.
a.
Round Robin
b.
FCFS
c.
FIFO
d.
LIFO
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Q111 mcq
The order of tasks, to perform pop operation under linked implementation of stack is (1) Returning the retrieved value (2) Updating the stack pointer (3) Checking whether the stack is empty (4) Retrieving the top element of the stack
a.
(3), (2), (4), (1)
b.
(3), (4), (2), (1)
c.
(4), (3), (2), (1)
d.
(4), (2), (3), (1)
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Q112 mcq
A ----- allows insertion and deletion of elements at both ends.
a.
Queue
b.
Circular Queue
c.
Double-ended Queue
d.
Priority Queue
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Q113 mcq
Which of the following algorithm is used to solve the merge sort?
a.
Dynamic programming
b.
Divide-and-conquer
c.
Greedy method
d.
Backtracking
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Q114 mcq
In Big-oh notations the computing time is represented by $O(1)$ means
a.
Linear
b.
Cubic
c.
Exponential
d.
Constant
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Q115 mcq
Any algorithm which sorts the n number using tree by comparison only must have the worst computing will be
a.
$O(n^2)$
b.
$O(n \log_2 n)$
c.
$O(n \log 2n)$
d.
$O(\log_2 n)$
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Q116 mcq
In file handling sequence of bytes refers to
a.
Text stream
b.
File stream
c.
Binary stream
d.
Character stream
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Q117 mcq
----- mode can be used to read data from the data file.
a.
"r"
b.
"a"
c.
"w"
d.
None of the above
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Q118 mcq
Which one of these is the correct statement about eof( )?
a.
Returns true if a file open for reading has reached the next character
b.
Returns true if a file open for reading has reached next word
c.
Returns true if a file open for reading has reached the end
d.
Returns true if a file open for reading has reached the middle
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Q119 mcq
The file organization which is used when logical sequence of record is generally different from physical sequence is
a.
Linked organization
b.
Sequential organization
c.
Random organization
d.
Inverted files
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Q120 mcq
Choose the best indexing method for sequentially order file
a.
Hash index
b.
Tree index
c.
Primary key index
d.
Trie index
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Q121 mcq
Smart card is a
a.
Plastic embedded with a microchip containing stored-up funds
b.
Scanning device
c.
Device used to listen music
d.
Device used to record audio and video
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Q122 mcq
Cell reference in a Spreadsheet represents (i) A way to reference a website from a cell (ii) The address of a cell, formed by its column letter and row number (iii) A reference to a file saved on the computer (iv) The content of a cell
a.
(i) only
b.
(i) and (ii) only
c.
(ii) only
d.
(iii) and (iv) only
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Q123 mcq
The distance between written text and the edge of a paper is called
a.
Alignment
b.
Indent
c.
Ruler line
d.
Margin
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Q124 mcq
----- is characterized by the processing, storage, generation, manipulation and rendition of multimedia information.
a.
Multimedia elements
b.
Multimedia systems
c.
Multimedia applications
d.
Multimedia tools
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Q125 mcq
----- is a useful feature when printing multiple sets of a document.
a.
Merge
b.
Collate
c.
Multiple pages
d.
Copy
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Q126 mcq
-----is a file that contains the information to be merged with the names and addresses.
a.
Data source
b.
Record
c.
Main document
d.
Field
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Q127 mcq
----- Tally version is best for accounting solution for business management.
a.
Tally. ERP 9
b.
Tally. PRE 9
c.
Tally. EPR 9
d.
Tally. 9EPR
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Q128 mcq
The statistical package SPSS will be used for analysing the data using (1) t-test and chi square test (2) Segmentation analysis (3) Cluster analysis (4) ANOVA
a.
(1), (2), (4)
b.
(1), (3), (4)
c.
(2), (4)
d.
(2), (3), (4)
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Q129 mcq
The most desirable form of coupling between modules is a combination------ and------ coupling.
a.
content, common
b.
common, control
c.
content, control
d.
stamp, data
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Q130 mcq
The primary objective of the analysis phase is to (i) Analyze the capabilities and structure of the previous system. (ii) Prioritize the alternatives for a new systems (iii) Determine the basic structure and approach for the new system (iv) Understand and document the needs and requirement of the system
a.
(iii) only
b.
(iv) only
c.
(i), (ii) only
d.
(ii), (iv) only
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Q131 mcq
A------is prepared during or as a result of the interactions that takes place between users and designers at the design reviews.
a.
Workstations
b.
Special forms
c.
Working prototype
d.
Methodology
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Q132 mcq
The lower degree of cohesion is
a.
Logical cohesion
b.
Coincidental cohesion
c.
Procedural cohesion
d.
Communicational cohesion
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Q133 mcq
Restating or repeating the interviewee's statement to ensure that you have cleanly and correctly received their message. This method is called
a.
Signposting
b.
Summarising
c.
Confirming
d.
Listening
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Q134 mcq
A data processing method whereby data about many transactions is collected as a single file which is then processed is called as
a.
Online processing
b.
Batch processing
c.
Remote batch processing
d.
File processing
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Q135 mcq
Structured programming is a methodology that involves (i) The systematic design, development and management of the program. (ii) Functional modularisation (iii) Centralized processing
a.
(i) and (ii) only
b.
(ii) and (iii) only
c.
(i) and (iii) only
d.
(i) only
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Q136 mcq
-----testing is also called behavioral testing.
a.
White-box
b.
Black-box
c.
Gray-box
d.
Blue-box
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Q137 mcq
Choose the option which is not a type of system tests?
a.
Recovery testing
b.
Security testing
c.
Stress testing
d.
Production testing
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Q138 mcq
------ is concerned with exercising the internal logic of a program and traversing particular execution paths.
a.
Performance testing
b.
Acceptance testing
c.
Integrated testing
d.
Structural testing
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Q139 mcq
The set of activities that ensure that software correctly implements a specific function
a.
Verification
b.
Validation
c.
Testing
d.
Processing
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Q140 mcq
------ technique merge the data and process concerns into singular constructs.
a.
Object modeling
b.
Data modeling
c.
Process modeling
d.
Flow modeling
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Q141 mcq
COCOMO models defines the relationship between the ----- of a project.
a.
Size, effort and duration
b.
Inputs and outputs
c.
Computer and personnel attributes
d.
Reliability and accuracy
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Q142 mcq
In cost estimation model, ----- is used to measure the project deviations in terms of schedule and costs.
a.
Schedule performance index
b.
Performance index
c.
Cost performance index
d.
Cost variance
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Q143 mcq
----- is the basic equation used to build the COCOMO model.
a.
$\text{(effort)} = c(\text{size})^k$
b.
$\text{(effort)} = (\text{size})^k$
c.
$\text{(size)} = (\text{effort})^k$
d.
$\text{(size)} = c(\text{effort})^k$
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Q144 mcq
From the given, ----- is not considered as a project resource.
a.
people
b.
reusable software
c.
environmental
d.
application
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Q145 mcq
Pick the attributes used to estimate the size of the project (i) Length (ii) Functionality (iii) Complexity (iv) Reuse
a.
(i), (ii), (iii) only
b.
(i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
c.
(ii) and (iv) only
d.
(i) and (ii) only
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Q146 mcq
Find the option(s) that is (are) used to estimate software size (i) Fuzzy logic sizing (ii) Function point sizing (iii) Component sizing
a.
(i) and (ii)
b.
(ii) and (iii)
c.
(i) and (iii)
d.
(i), (ii) and (iii)
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Q147 mcq
Product complexity of "Application programs, Utility Programs and System Programs" are derived by
a.
Putnam
b.
Norden
c.
Boehm
d.
Rayleigh
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Q148 mcq
Putnam model describes the time and effort required to ----- a software project.
a.
Finish
b.
Start
c.
Deliver
d.
Relate
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Q149 mcq
The ----- follows the life cycle of software development and provides a framework for organizing data and information.
a.
Risk clinic
b.
Risk software
c.
Risk Taxonomy
d.
Risk plan
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Q150 mcq
In software risk management, the risk which is associated with the overall size of the software to be built or modified is identified by
a.
Business impact
b.
Process definition
c.
Technology to be built
d.
Product size
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Q151 mcq
----- risks threaten the quality and timeliness of the software to be produced.
a.
Technical
b.
Project
c.
Business
d.
Budget
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Q152 mcq
Risk Management Approach is classified into
a.
Reactive and Proactive
b.
Positive and Negative
c.
Certain and Uncertain
d.
Biased and Unbiased
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Q153 mcq
Among the below listed points, choose the correct one which is suitable to categorize as the benefits of risk management (1) It provides minimum - cost downside protection (2) Takecare's the control of stakeholders (3) Ensure the work of software engineer's (4) It isolates the failure of a sub project
a.
(1) only
b.
(1) and (3) only
c.
(3) and (4) only
d.
(1) and (4) only
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Q154 mcq
Choose the indirect approach used to estimate the size of the software.
a.
LOC
b.
Work breakdown structure
c.
COCOMO model
d.
Function points
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Q155 mcq
Identify the three different stages of COCOMO II model (i) Entry, Exit and Read (ii) Analysis, Design and Construction (iii) Application composition, Early design and Post architecture (iv) Organic, embedded and semi-detached
a.
(i) and (ii) only
b.
(ii) and (iv) only
c.
(iii) only
d.
(i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
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Q156 mcq
----- is "an uncertain event, that if it occurs, has a positive or negative effect on a project's objectives"?
a.
Risk
b.
Activity
c.
Effort
d.
Plan
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Q157 mcq
Select the objective(s) of using risk management tool in a software project from the following : (1) Defining risks (2) Identifying risks (3) Assessing their impact and probability (4) Tracking risks
a.
(1) and (2) only
b.
(3) only
c.
(1) and (4) only
d.
(1), (2), (3) and (4)
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Q158 mcq
Software project planning is an
a.
Time consuming process
b.
Continuous process
c.
Iterative process
d.
Conventional process
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Q159 mcq
From the given options, identify the project management standard used in project planning stages
a.
PRINCE
b.
PRINCE 1
c.
PRINCE2
d.
PRINCE 3
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Q160 mcq
The total difference between the total cost and the total income over the life of the project is called as
a.
Return on investment
b.
Net present value
c.
Net profit
d.
Payback period
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Q161 mcq
The clipping process in computer graphics is used for
a.
Adding graphics
b.
Copying
c.
Zooming
d.
Removing objects and lines
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Q162 mcq
The algorithm of hidden surface are
a.
Object-space method
b.
Image-space method
c.
Both (A) and (B)
d.
None of the above
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Q163 mcq
In which of the following are true with respect to the Bresenham's algorithm?
a.
It produces smooth polygons
b.
The results of this algorithm are 100 percent accurate
c.
Due to integer operations it's complexity gets reduced
d.
All of the above
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Q164 mcq
A viewing transformation maps a picture represented by,
a.
WCS ➔ PDCS
b.
NDCS ➔ PDCS
c.
WCS ➔ PDCS ➔ NDCS
d.
WCS ➔ NDCS ➔ PDCS
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Q165 mcq
The technique for not showing that part of the drawing in which one is not interested is called as
a.
Clipping
b.
Windowing
c.
Viewing
d.
Morphing
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Q166 mcq
----- strategy is used by the Cohen-Sutherland's algorithm.
a.
Recursion
b.
Incremental
c.
Midpoint division
d.
Divide and Conquer
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Q167 mcq
In computer graphics, a technique of transforming one object into another is called as
a.
Translation
b.
Scaling
c.
Morphing
d.
Double buffering
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Q168 mcq
The segment names are usually taken as
a.
Characters
b.
Boolean
c.
Numbers
d.
Alphanumeric
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Q169 mcq
The value of the determinant for each reflection matrix is identically equal to -1 called as
a.
Pure reflection
b.
Reflection
c.
Refraction
d.
Pure refraction
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Q170 mcq
The process of applying a tangential force to any object which distorts the shape of the object known as
a.
Scaling
b.
Shearing
c.
Shrinking
d.
Morphing
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Q171 mcq
The Hardware devices which give position information are known as
a.
Selectors
b.
Projectors
c.
Locators
d.
Blocker
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Q172 mcq
------is a process that the scanning s/w uses to increase the received resolution of an image.
a.
Interpolation
b.
Extrapolation
c.
Expansion
d.
None of the above
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Q173 mcq
Specify the order of Input modes to execute programs in a graphics package. (1) Sample mode (2) Event mode (3) Request mode
a.
(1), (2), (3)
b.
(3), (1), (2)
c.
(2), (1), (3)
d.
(3), (2), (1)
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Q174 mcq
The distance between the actual line location and the nearest pixel termed as
a.
Variable
b.
Constant value
c.
Distance variable
d.
Decision variable
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Q175 mcq
The most commonly used method in Raster-Scan system is
a.
Beam - Penetration method
b.
Shadow - Mask method
c.
Line - Penetration method
d.
Shadow - Penetration method
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Q176 mcq
The wrap-around effect means
a.
The new coordinates achieved should be less than the device coordinates
b.
The new coordinates achieved should be equal to the device coordinates
c.
The new coordinates achieved should be greater than the device coordinates
d.
The new coordinates achieved should be greater than or equal to the device coordinates
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Q177 mcq
Negative rotation angles produces
a.
Anticlockwise rotations
b.
Counter clockwise rotations
c.
Clockwise rotations
d.
None of the above
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Q178 mcq
A truncated pyramidal volume is used for
a.
Parallel projections
b.
Perspective projections
c.
Geometric projections
d.
Symmetric projection
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Q179 mcq
------transformation is also called as twist or torque or tilt transformation.
a.
Scaling
b.
Rotation
c.
Shearing
d.
Translation
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Q180 mcq
-----is a type of transformation in which the object is held stationary while the coordinate system is transformed relative to the object.
a.
Rotation
b.
Geometric transformation
c.
Coordinate transformation
d.
Scaling
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Q181 mcq
Identify the integrity error occurs when a foreign-key value in one table has no matching primary key value in the related table
a.
Referential integrity
b.
Key integrity
c.
Domain integrity
d.
Entity integrity
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Q182 mcq
Cost-benefit analysis is associated with
a.
Technical feasibility
b.
Economical feasibility
c.
Analytical feasibility
d.
Functional feasibility
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Q183 mcq
----- are directed graphs in which the nodes specify processing activities and the arcs specify data items transmitted between processing nodes.
a.
Flowchart
b.
Data Flow Diagrams (DFD)
c.
Structure Charts
d.
HIPO Diagram
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Q184 mcq
Identify the method used for collecting data about requirements by analyst.
a.
User requirement gathering techniques
b.
Identify control techniques
c.
User decision requirement techniques
d.
Fact-finding techniques
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Q185 mcq
Match the symbols used in DFD : (a) Circle 1. Data flow (b) Line 2. Data store (c) Rectangle 3. Process (d) Two parallel lines 4. Entities
a.
3 1 4 2
b.
4 1 3 2
c.
2 1 3 4
d.
3 1 2 4
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Q186 mcq
Match the following (a) Tangible cost 1. Not easily measured (b) Intangible cost 2. Non recurring (c) Direct cost 3. Outlays of cash (d) Fixed cost 4. Dollar figure
a.
3 1 4 2
b.
2 3 4 1
c.
3 2 1 4
d.
4 1 2 3
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Q187 mcq
Match the following : (a) DFD 1. Visual table (b) HIPO 2. Condition and Action (c) Decision table 3. Logical construction (d) Warnier orr 4. Bubble chart
a.
4 1 2 3
b.
2 4 1 3
c.
3 4 1 2
d.
2 3 4 1
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Q188 mcq
HIPO stands for
a.
Horizontal Input Produce Output
b.
Hierarchical Input Process Output
c.
Horizontal Input Process Output
d.
Hierarchical Input Produce Output
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Q189 mcq
A person who uses analysis and design techniques to solve business problems using information technology is called as
a.
System Engineer
b.
System Administrator
c.
System Analyst
d.
System Builders
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Q190 mcq
Identify from the following, to whom the system analyst have to interact. (i) managers of organizations (ii) users in the organizations (iii) programming team (iv) data entry operator
a.
(iii) and (iv)
b.
(i), (ii) and (iii)
c.
(ii), (iii) and (iv)
d.
(ii) and (iii)
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Q191 mcq
A problem analysis phase model includes only entities and relationship but no attributes - it is called
a.
key based data model
b.
fully attributed data model
c.
context data model
d.
normalized data model
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Q192 mcq
Pick the most important and fundamental phases of SDLC from the following
a.
Preliminary investigation
b.
Requirement analysis
c.
Design, testing and implementation
d.
All the above
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Q193 mcq
Identify the most important skills of a system analyst? Among the following : (1) Communication (2) Understanding (3) Problem solving (4) Good looking (5) Sensitivity (6) Computer knowledge
a.
(1), (2), (4), (5)
b.
(1), (2), (5), (6)
c.
(1), (2), (3), (6)
d.
(1), (2), (3), (5)
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Q194 mcq
----- is a well-defined, structured work unit that can be carried out by one individual.
a.
Function
b.
Program
c.
Task
d.
Structure
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Q195 mcq
Identify the factor that probably not a method to classify projects. (1) Size (2) Scope (3) Risk (4) Economic value (5) Open source
a.
(1), (2), (3)
b.
(1), (2), (3), (4)
c.
(1), (2), (5)
d.
(5)
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Q196 mcq
How much percentage of time, is allocated for design phase of a business application development using the SDLC model?
a.
25%
b.
30%
c.
35%
d.
40%
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Q197 mcq
A process that involves continuously improving and detailing a plan as more detailed information become available is termed as
a.
project analysis
b.
project enhancing
c.
progressive deliberation
d.
progressive elaboration
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Q198 mcq
----- is responsible for delivering a potentially releasable increment at the end of each sprint in Agile
a.
Scrum master
b.
Product owner
c.
Development team
d.
Agile coach
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Q199 mcq
Before publicize the plan in project planning, ----- is the activity need to be performed.
a.
Strategic planning
b.
Project planning
c.
Business area analysis
d.
Resource allocation
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Q200 mcq
Match the following : (a) Steering committee - 1. Manager (b) Information system committee - 2. User (c) User-Group committee - 3. Vice President
a.
(a)-1, (b)-3, (c)-2
b.
(a)-3, (b)-1, (c)-2
c.
(a)-2, (b)-1, (c)-3
d.
(a)-1, (b)-2, (c)-3
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