← COMBINED TECHNICAL SERVICES EXAMINATION IN INTERVIEW POSTS - II
TNPSC · Business Administration

TNPSC Business Administration 2026

2026 · 200 questions · First 10 Solutions Free
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Q1 mcq
Retained earnings are created by
a.
Investment Decision
b.
Financing Decision
c.
Liquidity Decision
d.
Dividend Decision Correct Answer
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Dividend decisions determine the proportion of net profits to be distributed to shareholders as dividends and the proportion to be retained in the business as retained earnings.
Q2 mcq
Deciding the best mix of debt and equity to fund the organization is __________
a.
Investment Decision
b.
Financing Decision Correct Answer
c.
Risk Management
d.
Financial Planning
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
The financing decision relates to determining the optimal capital structure, i.e., the best mix of debt and equity required to fund the organization's operations and investments.
Q3 mcq
Which of the following is part of the scope of Financial Management?
a.
Financial Planning
b.
Financial Reporting
c.
Risk Management
d.
(A), (B) and (C) Correct Answer
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
The scope of financial management encompasses financial planning, financial control/reporting, capital budgeting, working capital management, and financial risk management.
Q4 mcq
The shift from traditional finance functions to a broader role in the business strategy is a response to the increasing need for
a.
Short term financial decision making
b.
Integration of financial decisions with corporate strategy Correct Answer
c.
Accurate financial reporting for stakeholders
d.
Cost-cutting measures in financial operations
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Modern financial management integrates financial decisions with overall corporate strategy to create sustainable value and competitive advantage.
Q5 mcq
The beta coefficient in finance measures
a.
The risk of an asset relative to the market Correct Answer
b.
The total risk of an investment
c.
The expected return on a portfolio
d.
The potential profit of an investment
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Beta is a measure of systematic risk that gauges the volatility or risk of a security or asset in comparison to the market as a whole.
Q6 mcq
In the evolution of finance functions, what was the primary factor that led to the shift from a controller role to a core comprehensive financial management role?
a.
focus on cost control
b.
expansion of global markets
c.
shift from budgeting to strategic financial planning Correct Answer
d.
increased regulation of financial markets
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
The evolution of the finance function moved beyond simple scorekeeping and budgeting toward strategic financial planning and decision making.
Q7 mcq
__________ numerator is the difference over time between realized or expected return and benchmark.
a.
Profit ratio
b.
Sharp ratio Correct Answer
c.
Beta ratio
d.
Alpha ratio
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
In the Sharpe ratio, the numerator represents the excess return, which is the difference between the portfolio's expected/realized return and the benchmark risk-free rate.
Q8 mcq
The concepts of microeconomics relevant to financial management are (i) Beware of the various financial institutions (ii) Supply and demand relationships and profit maximisation (iii) Measurement of utility performance, risk and the determination of value (iv) Understand how monetary policy affects the availability of funds
a.
(ii) only
b.
(i) and (iv) only
c.
(ii) and (iii) only Correct Answer
d.
(iii) and (iv) only
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Microeconomic concepts applied in financial management include supply and demand relationships, profit maximization, marginal analysis, utility theory, risk analysis, and valuation of assets. Monetary policy is a macroeconomic concept.
Q9 mcq
Modern approach of financial management covers the areas of (i) Financing decision (ii) Investing decision (iii) Dividend decision
a.
(i) only
b.
(i), (ii) and (iii) only Correct Answer
c.
(i) and (ii) only
d.
(iii) only
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
The modern approach to financial management is analytical and decision-oriented, encompassing three major interrelated decisions: investment decisions, financing decisions, and dividend decisions.
Q10 mcq
________ measures the dispersion around the expected value.
a.
Standard deviation Correct Answer
b.
Expected value of a return
c.
Probability
d.
Sensitivity analysis
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Standard deviation is a statistical measure of the dispersion or spread of possible outcomes around the expected value (mean), commonly used to quantify total risk.
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Q11 mcq
Current ratio is a measure of ________
a.
risk
b.
return
c.
assets
d.
liabilities
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Q12 mcq
The guidelines of working capital financing have been formulated on the basis of reports submitted by ________ committee.
a.
Tandon and Chore
b.
Pandey
c.
Vishwanathan
d.
James Raj
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Q13 mcq
One of the popular method for valuing investment opportunities by using time value of money.
a.
future value
b.
interest rates
c.
opportunity cost
d.
discounted cash flow
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Q14 mcq
Operating cycle =
a.
Inventory Period
b.
Inventory Period + Accounts Receivable Period
c.
Inventory Period – Accounts Receivable Period
d.
Accounts Receivable Period
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Q15 mcq
________ refers to a firm’s investment in short-term assets, cash, short-term securities, accounts receivables and inventories.
a.
reserve working capital
b.
working capital
c.
fluctuating working capital
d.
temporary working capital
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Q16 mcq
Identify the factor, which is NOT a determinant of working capital
a.
size of business
b.
nature of business
c.
seasonal fluctuation
d.
technology upgradation
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Q17 mcq
The term ________ refers to the process of determining the present value of a future cash flow.
a.
discounting
b.
compounding
c.
accumulating
d.
decrementing
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Q18 mcq
According to the Modigliani-Miller proposition I (without taxes), the value of a firm is
a.
dependent on its capital structure
b.
independent of its capital structure
c.
a function of the company’s cost of equity
d.
a result of its debt financing
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Q19 mcq
A company with high liquidity risk should focus on
a.
short term financing
b.
long term investments
c.
diversifying its product line
d.
reducing dividends
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Q20 mcq
________ the sources of Long term Finance is mostly likely to involve a high cost for the firm.
a.
Retained earnings
b.
Equity shares
c.
Debentures
d.
Long term bank loans
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Q21 mcq
The disadvantages of extending credit to customer is __________
a.
Increased sales revenue
b.
Risk of bad debts
c.
Improved customer relationships
d.
Improved liquidity
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Q22 mcq
__________ is the interest that is received on the original amount (principal) as well as on any interest earned withdrawn during earlier periods.
a.
fixed interest
b.
floating interest
c.
simple interest
d.
compound interest
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Q23 mcq
The overall cost is called __________
a.
fixed cost of capital
b.
floating cost of capital
c.
weighted average cost of capital
d.
market cost of capital
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Q24 mcq
In order to calculate capital adequately ratio, the bank are required to take into consideration, which of the following risks? (a) Credit risk (b) Market risk (c) Operational risk Choose the most appropriate answers :
a.
(a) and (c) only
b.
(a) and (b) only
c.
(b) and (c) only
d.
(a), (b) and (c) only
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Q25 mcq
The optimum capital structure is supported by which combination of the following? (i) Traditional theory (ii) Net income theory (iii) Pecking order theory (iv) Net operating income theory Choose the correct answer from the code given below :
a.
only (i), (ii) and (iii)
b.
only (i), (ii) and (iv)
c.
only (ii), (iii) and (iv)
d.
only (i), (iii) and (iv)
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Q26 mcq
Business has only one Social responsibility to make profits stated by __________
a.
F.H. Knight
b.
Milton Friedman
c.
J. F. Westan
d.
A.K. Das Gupta
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Q27 mcq
Business forecasts for short periods normally do not exceeds
a.
a year
b.
3 months
c.
6 months
d.
1 month
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Q28 mcq
Match the following : (a) Diffusion indices β€” 1. $Y = a + bX$ (b) Correlation and regression β€” 2. Complete system approach (c) Simultaneous equation method β€” 3. Barometric techniques (d) Regression method β€” 4. $D_x = a + b_1 A + b_2 P_x + b_3 P_y$
a.
(a)-1, (b)-2, (c)-3, (d)-4
b.
(a)-3, (b)-4, (c)-2, (d)-1
c.
(a)-2, (b)-1, (c)-4, (d)-3
d.
(a)-4, (b)-1, (c)-3, (d)-2
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Q29 mcq
Rearrange the correct sequence of phases of Business cycle : (1) Expansion (2) Depression (3) Contraction (4) Prosperity
a.
(1), (4), (2), (3)
b.
(1), (2), (4), (3)
c.
(1), (4), (3), (2)
d.
(1), (3), (4), (2)
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Q30 mcq
The break point is defined as the point at which?
a.
Total revenue minus total cost
b.
Total revenue equal to total cost
c.
Total profit is maximized
d.
Total profit is minimized
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Q31 mcq
If a firm’s marginal revenue is below its marginal cost, an increase in production will usually
a.
Increase profits
b.
Decrease profits
c.
Profits unchanged
d.
Increase marginal revenue
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Q32 mcq
Select the right formula from the choices
a.
Business Profit = Total Sales Revenue – Explicit Costs
b.
Business Profit = Total Sales Revenue + Explicit Costs
c.
Business Profit = Total Sales Revenue $\times$ Explicit Costs
d.
Business Profit = Total Sales Revenue $\div$ Explicit Costs
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Q33 mcq
From the following, _________ is not a characteristics of managerial economics.
a.
Supervision and control
b.
Sales forecasting
c.
Investment analysis
d.
Advice on trade
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Q34 mcq
Which model based on view that manager salaries, their states and other rewards related to companies size?
a.
Baumol
b.
Theoretical
c.
Empirical
d.
Pricing
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Q35 mcq
Which of the following best defines the nature of managerial economics?
a.
It is a branch of micro economics at focus on the behaviour of individual consumer
b.
It is a branch of macro economics that studies aggregate economic phenomena
c.
It is the application of economic theory and methodology to business management decision
d.
It is the study of national income and employment levels
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Q36 mcq
Which of the following is not a right reason to say that β€œmanagement is a science”? 1. Ingenuity and creativity 2. Systematic study 3. Established principles 4. Predictive capability
a.
2
b.
1
c.
4
d.
3
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Q37 mcq
The control function of management cannot be performed without __________
a.
planning
b.
organising
c.
staffing
d.
directing
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Q38 mcq
From the following which of the management functions closely related?
a.
Planning and organising
b.
Planning and control
c.
Staffing and control
d.
Planning and staffing
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Q39 mcq
The plans and policies are formulated by __________ management.
a.
Operating management
b.
Middle management
c.
Top management
d.
Quality management
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Q40 mcq
Assertion [A] : Administration is mainly concerned with determination of major objectives and policies. Reason [R] : Planning and control are the main functions involved in administration.
a.
Both [A] and [R] are true; but [R] is not the correct explanation for [A]
b.
[A] is true but [R] is false
c.
[A] is false but [R] is true
d.
Both [A] and [R] are true; but [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
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Q41 mcq
Choose the wrong answers from the below : (a) Narrow span of management – single superior, less subordinate (b) Wide span of management – more superior, less subordinate (c) Tall span of management – less management levels (d) Flat span of management – more management levels
a.
(a), (b), (c) are wrong
b.
(b), (c), (d) are wrong
c.
(c), (d), (a) are wrong
d.
(a), (b), (d) are wrong
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Q42 mcq
Orientation for an employee is conducted
a.
when he is new to organisation
b.
when he is 5 years experienced
c.
when he is 15 years experienced
d.
when he retires
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Q43 mcq
Identify the internal source of recruitment. (i) placement agencies (ii) transfer (iii) campus recruitment (iv) promotion (v) job fairs
a.
(i) and (ii) only
b.
(iii) and (iv) only
c.
(ii) and (iv) only
d.
(iii) and (v) only
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Q44 mcq
From the given points, which is not a benefit of management by exception (MBE)? (1) Saving time of management (2) Better use of knowledge (3) Focus on major problem (4) Employee disengagement
a.
(1) only
b.
(2) only
c.
(3) only
d.
(4) only
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Q45 mcq
Which of the following is not an example of financial incentive?
a.
perquisites
b.
job enrichment
c.
profit sharing
d.
co-partnership
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Q46 mcq
The classical approach was developed through three main streams. They are __________
a.
administrative theory, bureaucracy & economic gain
b.
autocracy, bureaucracy & democracy
c.
scientific management, administrative theory & bureaucracy
d.
scientific management, autocracy & bureaucracy
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Q47 mcq
Every subordinate should receive orders from and be accountable to only one supervisor is __________
a.
scalar chain
b.
unity of command
c.
centralization
d.
unity of direction
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Q48 mcq
Based on Metcalfe suggestion, the system manager prepared __________ two types of cards.
a.
White & blue
b.
Time & material
c.
Labour & officer
d.
Entry & exit
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Q49 mcq
Because management is practised in the real world, management theory should be
a.
Implemented effectively
b.
Reviewed according to the situation
c.
Grounded in reality
d.
Understood in a proper manner
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Q50 mcq
__________ is a situation in which the whole is greater than its parts.
a.
Espirit de corps
b.
Motivation
c.
Synergy
d.
Unity of direction
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Q51 mcq
In the context of traditional marketing how does the concept of the β€œ4Ps” limit the relationship between customer and businesses?
a.
It prioritizes product over customer satisfaction
b.
It focuses primarily on price, neglecting customers preferences
c.
It assumes a one way communication model from business to customer
d.
It encourages deep customer engagement
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Q52 mcq
The adoption of a customer-oriented marketing approach emphasizes the creation of : Give appropriate answer.
a.
genetic products that appeal to the mass product
b.
short-term sales goals at the expense of customer satisfaction
c.
tailored solutions that meet the unique needs and preferences of customers
d.
high production volume to maximize profits at the cost of quality
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Q53 mcq
A business that focuses on maximizing customer satisfaction through personalized services is most likely using
a.
the selling concept
b.
the societal marketing concept
c.
the marketing concept
d.
the production concept
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Q54 mcq
Match the following : (a) Societal marketing concept - 1. focus on customer acquisition (b) Modern marketing concept - 2. focus on social responsibility and ethics (c) Traditional marketing concept - 3. emphasis on short-term sales (d) Relationship marketing concept - 4. focus on building long-term customer relationships
a.
(a)-1, (b)-2, (c)-3, (d)-4
b.
(a)-3, (b)-2, (c)-4, (d)-1
c.
(a)-2, (b)-4, (c)-3, (d)-1
d.
(a)-4, (b)-3, (c)-2, (d)-1
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Q55 mcq
In marketing, the concept of a β€œbrand” is closely related to :
a.
The image a company projects through advertising
b.
A product’s physical characteristics
c.
A set of expectations and perceptions in the consumer mind
d.
The cost of manufacturing project
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Q56 mcq
The concept of differentiation in marketing primarily aims at achieving the following out comes
a.
Lowering production cost
b.
Gaining a competitive advantage
c.
Reducing promotional expenses
d.
Increasing market penetration
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Q57 mcq
__________ is based on machine learning, helps build a comprehensive database of customer profiles, identifying crucial touch points and additional sales opportunities
a.
Customer relationship management
b.
Sales management
c.
Retail management
d.
Management intelligence
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Q58 mcq
The theme underlying reciprocal buying is __________
a.
meta-marketing
b.
event marketing
c.
one to one marketing
d.
business to business marketing
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Q59 mcq
__________ reflects the sum of perceived tangible and intangible benefits and costs to customers.
a.
Belief
b.
Value
c.
Segment
d.
Demand
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Q60 mcq
The avenues for __________ include areas of innovation, manufacturing, logistics, retailing and service.
a.
social marketing
b.
turbo marketing
c.
event marketing
d.
over marketing
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Q61 mcq
The marketing system is designed to serve for the __________
a.
Marketers needs
b.
Consumer needs
c.
Supplier needs
d.
Government needs
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Q62 mcq
How the marketing stage is also known as __________
a.
Production oriented stage
b.
Consumer oriented stage
c.
Sales oriented stage
d.
Marketing oriented stage
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Q63 mcq
Goal of modern marketing is creation of satisfied __________
a.
retailers
b.
customers
c.
competitors
d.
producers
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Q64 mcq
Market includes both place and region in which buyers and sellers are in free competition with one another __________
a.
Pyle
b.
H.E. Mitchel
c.
Jevons
d.
Harry L. Hansen
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Q65 mcq
β€œMarketing is the economic process by which goods and services are exchanged and their values determined in terms of money” is given by
a.
Duddy and Reizan
b.
Hansen
c.
Paul Mazur
d.
Kotler
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Q66 mcq
Independent individuals or organisations that directly help in the free flow of goods and services between marketing organisations and its markets.
a.
Potential customer
b.
Competitors
c.
Suppliers
d.
Marketing intermediaries
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Q67 mcq
Choose the wrong matches type. Which of the following is incorrectly paired?
a.
IDBI – Industrial Development Bank of India
b.
ICICI – Industrial Credit Investment Corporation of India
c.
PLC – Program Loudness Control
d.
HDFC – Housing Development Finance Corporation
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Q68 mcq
The National consumer disputes redressal commission only entertain the complaints when the goods (or) services and compensation value is more than __________ in amounts.
a.
10 lakhs
b.
20 lakhs
c.
50 lakhs
d.
100 lakhs
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Q69 mcq
__________ is the process by which a firm approaches its customers on one-to-one basis and markets its product directly to them.
a.
Mass marketing
b.
Direct marketing
c.
Event marketing
d.
Tele marketing
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Q70 mcq
Which concept is situated between impression and click based pricing, depending on pricing scheme employed for planting the viral seed?
a.
Revenue based pricing
b.
Cost per impression
c.
Fixed cost pricing
d.
Viral lift - seed
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Q71 mcq
Most direct marketers apply __________ formula to select customers according to last purchase, how much they spent, how many time purchased, since becoming a customer.
a.
RFM (Recency, Frequency, Monetary Amount)
b.
CPM (Cost Per Mille)
c.
CPA (Cost Per Action)
d.
CLV (Customer Lifetime Value)
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Q72 mcq
Match the following AT & T three prong approach : (a) Direct tracking 1. Measuring the change in number that relate to sale/brand recognition (b) Qualitative research 2. Measuring the pure exposure that the brand is getting (c) Quantitative analysis 3. Understanding the feelings that the exposure provides to target audience
a.
(a)-1, (b)-2, (c)-3
b.
(a)-3, (b)-1, (c)-2
c.
(a)-2, (b)-3, (c)-1
d.
(a)-2, (b)-1, (c)-3
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Q73 mcq
Match the following : Ethical marketing concept and description. (a) Transparency 1. Using customer data without explicit consent (b) Fairness 2. Clearly stating all terms and conditions of a promotion (c) Respect for privacy 3. Donating a percentage of profits to environmental conservation (d) Social responsibility 4. Avoiding predatory pricing targeting vulnerable groups
a.
(a)-2, (b)-1, (c)-4, (d)-3
b.
(a)-3, (b)-4, (c)-1, (d)-2
c.
(a)-4, (b)-3, (c)-2, (d)-1
d.
(a)-2, (b)-4, (c)-1, (d)-3
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Q74 mcq
The new consumer protection act introduced in India is __________
a.
1986
b.
1996
c.
2006
d.
2019
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Q75 mcq
Consumer rights means the right to acquire the knowledge about __________
a.
right to seek redressal
b.
right to be informed
c.
right to consumer education
d.
right to provide quality product
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Q76 mcq
A Government policy crucial for shaping marketing practices in regulated industries is
a.
subsidy allocation
b.
trade tariffs
c.
tax incentives
d.
environmental regulations
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Q77 mcq
A company mails one or more product catalogues to selected persons who have a high likelihood of placing an order is
a.
indirect marketing
b.
mass marketing
c.
catalogue marketing
d.
event marketing
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Q78 mcq
Effective direct marketing belongings to good __________
a.
customer relationship
b.
customer database
c.
customer knowledge
d.
customer income
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Q79 mcq
__________ are specific measures to evaluate the efficiency and effectiveness of an e-marketer’s operation.
a.
HR Index
b.
Value
c.
Performance metrics
d.
Profit
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Q80 mcq
The future of direct marketing in India depends on the following : (i) Reaching out to non-metro/non-urban markets (ii) Enhancing the credibility of the offer (iii) Wider use of debit and credit cards (iv) Emergence of specialised database firms
a.
(i) and (ii) only
b.
(i), (ii) and (iii) only
c.
(i), (iii) and (iv) only
d.
(i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
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Q81 mcq
The state consumer disputes redressal commission can entertain complaints when the goods (or) service and compensation value is between
a.
10 lakhs to 20 lakhs
b.
20 lakhs to 50 lakhs
c.
10 lakhs to 100 lakhs
d.
20 lakhs to 100 lakhs
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Q82 mcq 1 mark
__________ is the primary focus of neo marketing.
a.
emphasing traditional advertising channels like TV and radio
b.
creating value through personalised and consumer centre approach
c.
increasing market share by lowering product prices
d.
promoting products exclusively through celebrity endorsements
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Q83 mcq 1 mark
The device which brings together many catalogue companies to create a new searchable database of products for buyers is called
a.
catalogue aggregator
b.
e-catalogue
c.
ERP
d.
community building
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Q84 mcq 1 mark
__________ involves the use of the telephone and call centres to attract prospects, sell to existing customers and provide service by taking orders and answering questions.
a.
telesales
b.
telecoverage
c.
teleprospecting
d.
telemarketing
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Q85 mcq 1 mark
__________ has become a commercial activity causing so many harmful effects.
a.
organic farming
b.
food adulteration
c.
recycling
d.
renewable energy production
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Q86 mcq 1 mark
__________ objective is the idea of promotion is to influence, stimulate, maintain and create demand for a product.
a.
specific
b.
communication
c.
demand
d.
supply
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Q87 mcq 1 mark
The marketer conducts the surveys covering the entire market is known as __________
a.
census survey
b.
sampling survey
c.
market research
d.
consumer survey
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Q88 mcq 1 mark
Arrange the procedure generally followed in marketing research process. 1. Defining the problem 2. Deciding source of information 3. Deciding information needed 4. Preparation of the report 5. Tabulation, analysis and interpretation of data 6. Deciding research methods
a.
1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
b.
1, 3, 2, 5, 4, 6
c.
1, 3, 2, 6, 5, 4
d.
1, 2, 3, 5, 6, 4
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Q89 mcq 1 mark
Goodwill, favourable reaction, donations, and hidden potential future buyers are few of responses which company expects from __________
a.
customers
b.
intermediaries
c.
competitors
d.
public
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Q90 mcq 1 mark
In a competitive market where few large sellers who compete for a larger market share is known as __________
a.
perfect competition
b.
monopoly
c.
oligopoly
d.
monopolistic competition
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Q91 mcq
Which one of the following statements best characteristics marketing research __________?
a.
Research is a continuous process providing a constant flow of information
b.
Research conducted on special project basis
c.
Research is performed when specific information is required
d.
Research is the basic for making informed marketing decisions.
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Q92 mcq
The following is not a part of the microenvironment of a company.
a.
Suppliers
b.
Competitors
c.
Government
d.
Customers
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Q93 mcq
The concept of β€œMarketing Mix” was developed by
a.
Philip Kotler
b.
Stapleton
c.
N.H. Borden
d.
Albert W. Emery
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Q94 mcq
Some companies keep the prices of their new products very high. They are said to be following __________ strategy.
a.
Skimming
b.
Penetration
c.
Competitive
d.
Promotional pricing
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Q95 mcq
Public is a constituent of the following
a.
environmental scanning
b.
macro environment
c.
micro environment
d.
global environment
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Q96 mcq
__________ is the process of gathering information about a company’s environment.
a.
Climatic factors
b.
Climatic scanning
c.
Environmental analyzing
d.
Environmental scanning
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Q97 mcq
If we want to select a sample of 20 students from 160 students, under this method $k^{\text{th}}$ item is picked up from the sample frame and $k$ is __________ (sample interval).
a.
10
b.
9
c.
8
d.
11
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Q98 mcq
Match the following macro environment concepts : (a) Demographic environment - 1. It affects the success of business org as well as its success (b) Economic environment - 2. It creates opportunities and threats in market (c) Technological environment - 3. It consists of factors related to management of public affairs and their business (d) Political environment - 4. It is the study of population characteristics
a.
(a)-4, (b)-1, (c)-2, (d)-3
b.
(a)-1, (b)-3, (c)-4, (d)-2
c.
(a)-2, (b)-3, (c)-1, (d)-4
d.
(a)-4, (b)-2, (c)-1, (d)-3
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Q99 mcq
Identify the odd one out in a product level
a.
core benefit
b.
basic product
c.
augmented product
d.
brand name
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Q100 mcq
____________ is an act of designing the company’s offering and image to occupy a distinctive place in the target market’s mind.
a.
segmentation
b.
targeting
c.
positioning
d.
planning
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Q101 mcq
The research which is exploring new facts through the study of past is called ____________
a.
Philosophical research
b.
Mythological research
c.
Historical research
d.
Foundational research
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Q102 mcq
Research is a ____________ as it involves a set of basic predefined standard procedure involving systematic collection, analysis and interpretation of data.
a.
Social process
b.
Scientific process
c.
Collective process
d.
Psychological process
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Q103 mcq
____________ means to put a fence around it, to separate it by a careful distinction from like questions found in related situation of need.
a.
Problems
b.
Review
c.
Research
d.
Reward
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Q104 mcq
The main aim of ____________ is to find out the truth which is hidden and which has not been discovered as yet.
a.
Analysis
b.
Study
c.
Research
d.
Survey
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Q105 mcq
Identify the statement that are true with regard to data analysis. I. Measures of central tendency help in locating the centre of a relative frequency distribution. II. Mode refers to the middle value in a distribution. III. Median is a positional average. IV. Standard deviation measures the direction of variation.
a.
I and III are true
b.
II and III are true
c.
I, II and IV are true
d.
II and IV are true
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Q106 mcq
If the Regression equation of $Y$ on $X$ is $Y = 2 + 3X$ and $X$ on $Y$ is $X = 4 - 2Y$ then the correlation coefficient between $X$ and $Y$ is
a.
0.6
b.
0.8
c.
0.9
d.
1
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Q107 mcq
The following is not a measure of central tendency?
a.
Mode
b.
Range
c.
Mean
d.
Median
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Q108 mcq
Systematic sampling comes under the
a.
Probability sampling
b.
Non-probability sampling
c.
Judgmental sampling
d.
Snow-ball sampling
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Q109 mcq
Econometric and statistical tools for analyzing an individual’s choices is
a.
Decision theory
b.
Dividend theory
c.
Research
d.
Reporting
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Q110 mcq 1 mark
Match the following : (a) TAT β€” 1. Telephonic interview (b) CATI β€” 2. Personal interview (c) Probing β€” 3. Observation (d) Audit β€” 4. Projective techniques
a.
4 1 2 3
b.
4 1 3 2
c.
1 2 3 4
d.
2 3 4 1
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Q111 mcq 1 mark
____________ system is responsible for the online management of product information and content.
a.
Content Management System (CMS)
b.
Payment Gateway
c.
Customer Relationship Management
d.
Supply Chain Management
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Q112 mcq 1 mark
____________ aspect of web strategy focuses in ensuring that a website performs efficiently under varying levels of traffic
a.
Website aesthetics
b.
Performance optimization and load testing
c.
Increasing the number of web pages
d.
Expanding the range of product offered
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Q113 mcq 1 mark
Which refers to all forms of human expression that can be put into a tangible medium such as text, DVDs CDs or any digital media?
a.
Transaction provider
b.
Content provider
c.
Service provider
d.
Community provider
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Q114 mcq 1 mark
In e-commerce, which one is the major challenges of B2C __________
a.
Supplier – oriented e-market place
b.
Vertical and horizontal e-market place
c.
Building customer legality
d.
Buyer – oriented e-market place
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Q115 mcq 1 mark
Online retail stores often called ____________
a.
E-Tailers
b.
Brick-Mortar Stores
c.
Wholesalers
d.
Retailers
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Q116 mcq 1 mark
____________ function in e-commerce involves the automation of product listings, pricing and inventory updates across multiple sales channels.
a.
Supply Chain Management (SCM)
b.
Payment Processing
c.
Customer Relationship Management (CRM)
d.
Inventory Management System
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Q117 mcq
In partial e-commerce ____________ includes a mix of digital and physical dimensions.
a.
Product
b.
Delivery agent
c.
Customization
d.
Process
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Q118 mcq
The primary role of an electronic payment system in e-commerce
a.
To facilitate business to business transactions
b.
To provide customer support services
c.
To enable sure and efficient transactions between consumers and merchants
d.
To host online websites for businesses
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Q119 mcq
____________ is not a key feature of E-commerce platforms.
a.
Secure payment gateways
b.
Content management system
c.
Shopping cart functionality
d.
E-mail marketing automation
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Q120 mcq
A E-Commerce function is essential for managing and analysing customer interactions and data is
a.
Customer Relationship Management (CRM)
b.
Inventory Management
c.
Financial Accounting
d.
Human Resource Management (HRM)
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Q121 mcq
A function of E-Commerce involves attracting and retaining customers through various online strategies is
a.
Order management
b.
Logistics
c.
Digital marketing
d.
Customer support
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Q122 mcq
____________ function of E-Commerce is focused on managing digital transactions and order fulfillment.
a.
Customer Relationship Management
b.
Supply Chain Management
c.
Order Processing
d.
Digital Marketing
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Q123 mcq
Why data integration is a critical component of information management in ERP systems?
a.
It ensures that data is manually entered into each system
b.
It prevents the use of real time data
c.
It allows for seamless sharing and utilization across different functional areas
d.
It isolates data to avoid overlap between departments
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Q124 mcq
The following person or employees is NOT a primary stake holder in e-Governance
a.
Government Agencies
b.
Citizens
c.
Private Sector
d.
Only Government employees
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Q125 mcq
A database that stores current and historical data of potential interest to decision makers throughout the company is
a.
Data Server
b.
DBMS
c.
Data Storage Systems
d.
Data Warehouse
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Q126 mcq
____________ is a primary key in a database.
a.
An attribute that uniquely identifies a record
b.
An attribute that can have duplicate values
c.
An attribute used to link tables
d.
An attribute that is always optional
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Q127 mcq
____________ is a key characteristic of an international information system.
a.
Localized software
b.
Global standardization
c.
Single currency
d.
National compliance
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Q128 mcq
____________ is a key component of Knowledge Management Systems (KMS).
a.
Data Warehousing
b.
Data Mining
c.
Knowledge Repositories
d.
Business Process Reengineering
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Q129 mcq
The one used for academic testing is ____________
a.
MICR
b.
OCR
c.
MOR
d.
POS
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Q130 mcq
A Supply Chain Management (SCM) system in (MIS) is not used for?
a.
Optimizing shipping and logistics
b.
Tracking inventing levels
c.
Managing customer relationship
d.
Planning production based on demand forecasts
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Q131 mcq
A mistake committed in book-keeping
a.
Wrong entry
b.
Commission error
c.
Omission error
d.
Error
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Q132 mcq
The original entries are entered in ____________
a.
Ledger
b.
Journal
c.
Trail Balance
d.
Balance Sheet
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Q133 mcq
Purchase return book records ____________
a.
Cash purchase
b.
Credit sales
c.
Return of sold goods
d.
Return of goods purchased on credit
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Q134 mcq
When the credit side of the trial balance exceeds the debit total, difference will be
a.
Debited to the Suspense Account
b.
Credited to the Suspense Account
c.
Debited to the Miscellaneous Account
d.
Credited to the Miscellaneous Account
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Q135 mcq
How should an auditor approach understanding a computerized accounting system?
a.
By relying solely on user manuals
b.
By examining the system documentation, work flows and conducting interviews with IT staff and users
c.
By using financial statement analysis only
d.
By comparing the system with competitor’s systems
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Q136 mcq
____________ focuses on evaluating the effectiveness and efficiency of an organization’s operations.
a.
Financial Audit
b.
Compliance Audit
c.
Operational Audit
d.
Information System Audit
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Q137 mcq
____________ best describes a contingent liability.
a.
A liability that is recognized and recorded on the balance sheet
b.
A potential liability that depends on the outcome of a future event
c.
A liability that has already been settled and paid
d.
A liability that is guaranteed by a third party
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Q138 mcq
Match the correct meaning to the items of trading account (a) This item is usually shown as the first item β€” 1. Purchase return (b) It shows the gross amount of buying saleable goods β€” 2. Opening stock (c) It showing the return of goods to the suppliers β€” 3. Direct expenses (d) It refers to those utilise the cash which are incurred for making the goods saleable β€” 4. Purchases
a.
(a)-3, (b)-4, (c)-1, (d)-2
b.
(a)-2, (b)-1, (c)-4, (d)-3
c.
(a)-4, (b)-3, (c)-1, (d)-2
d.
(a)-2, (b)-4, (c)-1, (d)-3
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Q139 mcq
The β€œcurrent ratio” is calculated as
a.
Current Assets/Current Liabilities
b.
Total Assets/Total Liabilities
c.
Current Liabilities/Current Assets
d.
Total Equity/Total Assets
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Q140 mcq
Which of the following are features of manufacturing account? (1) Cost of production (2) Cost of purchased goods (3) Sale of scrap (4) Finished goods consumed
a.
(2) and (3) only
b.
(1) and (4) only
c.
(3) and (4) only
d.
(1) and (3) only
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Q141 mcq
____________ pairs correctly matches the work study objectives.
a.
Time study – To determine the standard time for tasks
b.
Method study – To increase the time taken for tasks
c.
Work measurement – To reduce productivity
d.
Motion study – To complicate work processes
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Q142 mcq
Which factor may not be kept in mind while selecting a job (or) work is ____________
a.
Economic consideration
b.
Technical consideration
c.
Human consideration
d.
Security consideration
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Q143 mcq
An examination of the function of the purchased parts and materials in an effort to reduce the cost and improve the performance of those items is ____________
a.
Cost analysis
b.
Function analysis
c.
Value analysis
d.
Performance analysis
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Q144 mcq
A detailed examination of the policies and capabilities of a supplier is ____________
a.
Vendor Analysis
b.
Vendor Certification
c.
Supplier Analysis
d.
Supplier Certification
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Q145 mcq
Concerned with the design, improvement and installation of integrated systems of men, materials and equipments to improve productivity is ____________
a.
Industrial Engineering
b.
Methods Analysis
c.
Motion Analysis
d.
Methods Engineering
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Q146 mcq
The following is not a part of method study ____________
a.
Stopwatch method
b.
SIMO chart
c.
Process charts
d.
Chrono cycle graph
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Q147 mcq
____________ is an international standard which provides a framework, regardless of size, activity and geographical location to manage and continuously improve occupational health and safety within the organization.
a.
ISO 9002
b.
ISO 14001
c.
ISO 27001
d.
ISO 45001
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Q148 mcq
____________ diagram also termed as the Ishikawa diagram.
a.
Scatter diagram
b.
Pareto diagram
c.
Cause and effect diagram
d.
Histogram diagram
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Q149 mcq
From the following which is not a classification of purchase system?
a.
Pre-purchase system
b.
Special purchase system
c.
Ordering system
d.
Post purchase system
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Q150 mcq
Identify the most important principle of Kaizen from the following
a.
Kaizen is a daily process, the purpose of which goes beyond simple productivity improvement
b.
Kaizen is a monthly process, the purpose of which goes beyond simple productivity improvement
c.
Kaizen is a weekly process, the purpose of which goes beyond simple productivity improvement
d.
Kaizen is a annual process, the purpose of which goes beyond simple productivity improvement
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Q151 mcq
The main goal of quality assurance is ____________
a.
set coding standards
b.
improve software project management
c.
reduce the technical and programmatic risks in developing the software
d.
specify corrective actions
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Q152 mcq
Who among the following is associated with contribution to quality control in operation management?
a.
Charles Babbage
b.
Henry Ford
c.
Frank Gilbrath
d.
W. Edwards Deming
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Q153 mcq
Match correctly the quality in products/services : (a) Physical standards - 1. Methodology oriented (b) System standards - 2. Ways of interacting (c) Behavioural standards - 3. Ways of thinking/attitudes and motivational aspects (d) Philosophical standards - 4. Quantifiable standards
a.
1 4 3 2
b.
4 1 3 2
c.
4 1 2 3
d.
1 2 4 3
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Q154 mcq
Application of technology or process to the raw material to add use value is known as ____________
a.
Product
b.
Production
c.
Application of technology
d.
Combination of technology and process
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Q155 mcq
Below the given statement identify the appropriate objectives of operation management : I. Operations management concerned with the utilisation of Resources II. Operations management aims at enhancing efficiency and productivity III. Operations Management aims at employee development IV. Operation Management ensures right quantity rather than right quality
a.
I, III and IV
b.
I and II
c.
II and III
d.
I, II and III
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Q156 mcq
Which of the following is an example of a key performance indicator?
a.
Percentage of sales from new products
b.
Operating income
c.
Lead time to fill customer orders
d.
All of the above
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Q157 mcq
Identify the correctly matched pairs with regard to Function – Process – Output : I. Finance – Budgeting process – Budget II. Sales – Forecast – Invoices III. HR – Capital approval – Salary statement IV. Production – Payroll process – Training schedule
a.
I, II and III are correct
b.
I and II are correct
c.
I is correct
d.
I, II, III and IV are correct
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Q158 mcq
Below given the operation’s infrastructure strategies, identify the odd one.
a.
Capacity strategy
b.
Organization strategy
c.
Supplier strategy
d.
Inventory strategy
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Q159 mcq
Identify the correct sequence of activities with regard to operations management in an organization : I. Improving performance of the operation II. Designing an operations strategy for the organization III. Planning and controlling the operation IV. Understanding the operations strategic objectives
a.
IV, II, III, I
b.
I, II, III, IV
c.
I, III, IV, II
d.
IV, III, II, I
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Q160 mcq
Find out the correctly match pairs : I. Fish bone diagram – Identifies root causes of problems II. Control chart – Monitors process stability over time III. Parento chart – Highlight the most significant factors IV. Histogram – Displays frequency distribution of data
a.
I, II and III
b.
I, III and IV
c.
I, II and IV
d.
II, III and IV
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Q161 mcq
Putting people into a convenient group on basis of some characteristics and make an assumption to perceive is called as ____________
a.
Stereotyping
b.
Perception
c.
Perceiving
d.
Group perception
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Q162 mcq
____________ is a study of the forces exerted by the group on the individual or by the individual on the group.
a.
group work
b.
group dynamics
c.
group behaviour
d.
group cohesiveness
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Q163 mcq
Match the following question based on Bruce Tuckman's stages of group development, which are affected by group dynamics : Column A (a) Forming (b) Storming (c) Norming (d) Performing Column B 1. Group norms are created 2. Group tasks are begun, carried out and completed 3. A group is created 4. Group members seek out others in the group who share similar interests
a.
3 4 1 2
b.
4 3 1 2
c.
4 3 2 1
d.
1 2 3 4
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Q164 mcq
How do friendship groups form within an organisation?
a.
By being assigned specific tasks by the organisation
b.
By members sharing common characteristics such as age, beliefs and values
c.
By being part of the organisational command structure
d.
By being formally created to achieve organizational goals
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Q165 mcq
"____________ is the set of assumptions beliefs, values and norms that are shared by an organization's members". By O'Reilly :
a.
Organizational dynamics
b.
Organizational culture
c.
Organizational behaviour
d.
Organizational change
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Q166 mcq
____________ refers to a system of shared assumptions, values and beliefs that show people what is appropriate and inappropriate behaviour.
a.
organisational culture
b.
organisational climate
c.
organisational change
d.
organisational behaviour
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Q167 mcq
When designing reward systems for teams, it is best to encourage cooperative efforts rather than ____________ ones.
a.
Collectivist
b.
Individualistic
c.
Cooperative
d.
Competitive
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Q168 mcq
Statement : Organisational commitment has become a significant concern in the 21st century. Reason : Factors like down sizing, tele community and globalisation have impacted organisational commitment.
a.
Statement is incorrect, but reason is correct
b.
Statement is correct, but reason is incorrect
c.
Both statement and reason are correct, but reason is not the correct explanation for the statement.
d.
Both statement and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation for the statement.
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Q169 mcq
How does Mc Guire’s comprehensive theory explain attitude change?
a.
Through the balance of beliefs
b.
Through the reward or incentive offered
c.
Through five stages : attention, comprehension, yielding, retention and action
d.
Through the similarity and proximity of beliefs
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Q170 mcq
The degree to which people believe they are masters of their own fate is called ____________
a.
Social learning
b.
Observational learning
c.
Locus of control
d.
Moral learning
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Q171 mcq
____________ of personality, involves struggle to achieve more and more in less time.
a.
β€˜A’ type
b.
β€˜B’ type
c.
β€˜C’ type
d.
β€˜D’ type
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Q172 mcq
Why does change in attitude occur accordingly to Reinforcement theory?
a.
Due to the balance between beliefs
b.
Due to the reward or incentive offered in the communication
c.
Due to the comprehensive nature of the theory
d.
Due to the similarity and proximity of beliefs
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Q173 mcq
Professor Philip Kotler says, β€œI like teaching”? It express ____________
a.
his attitude about his work
b.
his knowledge about his work
c.
his personality about his work
d.
his satisfaction about his work
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Q174 mcq
How are β€˜Love’ and β€˜Affection’ described in the context of primary emotions?
a.
As negative emotions
b.
As emotions with descriptors like acceptance, adoration and longing
c.
As emotions with descriptions like anxiety and dread
d.
As emotions that are not primary
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Q175 mcq
____________ is not correct for the Organisational Behaviour.
a.
Organisational Behaviour is an integral part of management
b.
Organisational Behaviour is a disciplinary approach
c.
Organisational Behaviour helps in analysis of behaviour
d.
Organisational Behaviour is goal-oriented
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Q176 mcq
Differences in behaviour in an individual overtime is called ____________
a.
Intra individual
b.
Inter individual
c.
Self individual
d.
Mind individual
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Q177 mcq
____________ is the capacity to do mental activities.
a.
Ability
b.
Creativity
c.
Intellectual ability
d.
Responsibility
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Q178 mcq
____________ is any relatively permanent change in behaviour that occurs as a result of experience.
a.
Conditioning
b.
Memorising
c.
Learning
d.
Teaching
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Q179 mcq
____________ is the beginning of contemporary organisational behaviour.
a.
Neo-classical approach
b.
Classical approach
c.
Modern approach
d.
Custodial approach
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Q180 mcq
____________ is desirable end-states of existence, the goals that a person would like to achieve during his/her lifetime.
a.
Terminal values
b.
Instrumental values
c.
General values
d.
Moral values
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Q181 mcq
____________ is an example of alternate work pattern.
a.
Job sharing
b.
Compressed work week
c.
Flexi work hours
d.
Telecommuting
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Q182 mcq
QWL improves the overall ____________ of the organisation.
a.
profit
b.
sales
c.
productivity
d.
revenue
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Q183 mcq
____________ improves skill levels of employees to ensure better job performance.
a.
Training
b.
Recruitment
c.
Selection
d.
Performance appraisal
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Q184 mcq
Assessing the performance of an employee in a job is ____________
a.
Training
b.
Development
c.
Recruitment
d.
Performance appraisal
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Q185 mcq
____________ HR challenges is related to ensuring that employees are compensated fairly based on performance.
a.
Training and development
b.
Labour relations
c.
Compensation and benefits
d.
Diversity management
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Q186 mcq
Attracting and motivating capable candidates to apply for jobs in an organisation is
a.
Recruitment
b.
Performance appraisal
c.
Selection
d.
Training
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Q187 mcq
QWL is the quality of relationships between ____________ and the total working environment.
a.
management
b.
employees
c.
department
d.
trade union
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Q188 mcq
Which of the following is not a valid way to facilitate diversity at workplace? (1) Develop awareness through training (2) Establish internally sanctioned employee support systems (3) Challenge each employee to question beliefs and traditions (4) Include employees while generating solutions
a.
(3)
b.
(4)
c.
(2)
d.
(1)
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Q189 mcq
Assertion [A] : All employees, regardless of level, can be developed. Reason [R] : Use of work teams, reductions in supervisory roles, allowing workers to participate in goal setting has changed the way managers view employee development.
a.
[A] is false but [R] is true
b.
Both [A] and [R] are true; and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
c.
[A] is true but [R] is false
d.
Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not a correct explanation of [A]
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Q190 mcq
The disadvantages in internal recruitment of employees does not include ____________
a.
It perpetuates the old concept of doing things
b.
Better morale and motivation is denied to the company
c.
Politics play greater role
d.
Candidate's current work may be affected
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Q191 mcq
____________ is the process of hiring employees among the shortlisted candidates and providing them a job in the organisation.
a.
Screening
b.
Placement
c.
Recruitment
d.
Selection
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Q192 mcq
Motivating, activating came under which function ____________
a.
maintenance
b.
directing
c.
controlling
d.
planning
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Q193 mcq
Which of the following best defines line authority?
a.
Management over a small staff in a public firm
b.
Management with flexible decision making powers
c.
A manager's right to advise for other manager or employees
d.
A manager's right to issue orders to other managers or employees
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Q194 mcq
Population and workforce influence human resource management because, 1. They form the basis for an organisation’s external supply of human resources. 2. They define the part of the workforce that is of interest to a particular employer. 3. Remuneration to employees is linked to cost of living directly or indirectly. 4. They are the prime constituents of organisational culture to be aligned to social expectations.
a.
1
b.
4
c.
3
d.
2
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Q195 mcq
The β€˜triple bottom line’ refers to an organisation’s 1. Economic, HR and CSR performance 2. Economic, social and environmental performance 3. Business, HR and environmental performance 4. Social, environmental and sustainability performance
a.
3
b.
2
c.
4
d.
1
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Q196 mcq
____________ is an area of management in integrating people in to work situation in a way that motivates them to work together productively.
a.
Human resource
b.
Human capital
c.
Human relations
d.
Human behaviour
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Q197 mcq
____________ controls very tactfully to win the confidence and cooperation of all line managers.
a.
HR supervisors
b.
HR managers
c.
HR developers
d.
HR department employees
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Q198 mcq
____________ should be sufficiently comprehensive, prescribe limits and yardsticks for future action in the organisation.
a.
Policies
b.
Rules
c.
Formulas
d.
Strategies
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Q199 mcq
Human Resource Manager is the bridge between the ____________ and the organisation.
a.
Customer
b.
Employee
c.
People
d.
Scientist
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Q200 mcq
____________ means discriminating against non-minority applicants and employees or claims that due to affirmative action quota systems, white males are discriminated against.
a.
Discrimination
b.
Reverse discrimination
c.
Past discrimination
d.
Employee discrimination
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