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RRB RRB-PO-MAINS 2024

2024 · 200 questions · First 10 Solutions Free
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Q1 mcq
There are ten members in a family - A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I and J. H is the grandfather of F who is the sister of I. G is the son- in-law of E. D is the sister of H. J is the mother of F. E is the mother of A. C is father of B and the brother-in-law of H. E doesn’t have any siblings. A is the sibling of J. E has only one daughter. A and I are not of same gender. How is the brother-in-law of A related to H?
a.
Brother
b.
Son
c.
Uncle
d.
Father
e.
Son-in-law Correct Answer

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Q2 mcq
There are ten members in a family - A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I and J. H is the grandfather of F who is the sister of I. G is the son- in-law of E. D is the sister of H. J is the mother of F. E is the mother of A. C is father of B and the brother-in-law of H. E doesn’t have any siblings. A is the sibling of J. E has only one daughter. A and I are not of same gender. If K is the wife of B, then how many female members are there in the family?
a.
Five
b.
Seven
c.
Six Correct Answer
d.
Four
e.
Can’t be determined

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Q3 mcq
There are ten members in a family - A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I and J. H is the grandfather of F who is the sister of I. G is the son- in-law of E. D is the sister of H. J is the mother of F. E is the mother of A. C is father of B and the brother-in-law of H. E doesn’t have any siblings. A is the sibling of J. E has only one daughter. A and I are not of same gender. Which of the following statements is true? I. B is the child of H. II. I is the son of J. III. There are three married couples in the family.
a.
Only I
b.
Only III Correct Answer
c.
Both I and III
d.
Both II and III
e.
Only II

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Q4 mcq
A certain number of persons are seated in a row facing north. Some of the persons like different colours. The total number of persons in the row is four times the number of persons sitting to the right of the one who likes white. The person who likes blue sits second to the left of N who sits 3rd to the right of the one who likes red. Two persons sit between O and M who sits sixth to the right of N. The person who likes brown sits exactly between P and Q who is adjacent to O. Four persons sit between R and S. O sits third from one end and is two places to the left of the one who likes purple. The one who likes orange sits second from the right end. Two persons sit between O and the one who likes brown. The one who likes green sits exactly between P and S. The one who likes white sits immediate right of M. The one who likes grey sits third to the left of T who sits third to the left of the one who likes purple. Neither N nor immediate neighbour of N likes green. Who sits second to the left of the one who sits 3rd to the right of S?
a.
The person who likes blue
b.
The person who likes grey Correct Answer
c.
O
d.
The person who likes white
e.
R 1 www.bankersadda.com | Adda247 App

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Q5 mcq
A certain number of persons are seated in a row facing north. Some of the persons like different colours. The total number of persons in the row is four times the number of persons sitting to the right of the one who likes white. The person who likes blue sits second to the left of N who sits 3rd to the right of the one who likes red. Two persons sit between O and M who sits sixth to the right of N. The person who likes brown sits exactly between P and Q who is adjacent to O. Four persons sit between R and S. O sits third from one end and is two places to the left of the one who likes purple. The one who likes orange sits second from the right end. Two persons sit between O and the one who likes brown. The one who likes green sits exactly between P and S. The one who likes white sits immediate right of M. The one who likes grey sits third to the left of T who sits third to the left of the one who likes purple. Neither N nor immediate neighbour of N likes green. How many persons are seated to the left of M?
a.
14
b.
15
c.
13
d.
10 Correct Answer
e.
12

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Q6 mcq
A certain number of persons are seated in a row facing north. Some of the persons like different colours. The total number of persons in the row is four times the number of persons sitting to the right of the one who likes white. The person who likes blue sits second to the left of N who sits 3rd to the right of the one who likes red. Two persons sit between O and M who sits sixth to the right of N. The person who likes brown sits exactly between P and Q who is adjacent to O. Four persons sit between R and S. O sits third from one end and is two places to the left of the one who likes purple. The one who likes orange sits second from the right end. Two persons sit between O and the one who likes brown. The one who likes green sits exactly between P and S. The one who likes white sits immediate right of M. The one who likes grey sits third to the left of T who sits third to the left of the one who likes purple. Neither N nor immediate neighbour of N likes green. Which colour does the person who sits immediate left of R likes?
a.
Green
b.
Grey
c.
Purple
d.
Orange
e.
Blue Correct Answer

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Q7 mcq
A certain number of persons are seated in a row facing north. Some of the persons like different colours. The total number of persons in the row is four times the number of persons sitting to the right of the one who likes white. The person who likes blue sits second to the left of N who sits 3rd to the right of the one who likes red. Two persons sit between O and M who sits sixth to the right of N. The person who likes brown sits exactly between P and Q who is adjacent to O. Four persons sit between R and S. O sits third from one end and is two places to the left of the one who likes purple. The one who likes orange sits second from the right end. Two persons sit between O and the one who likes brown. The one who likes green sits exactly between P and S. The one who likes white sits immediate right of M. The one who likes grey sits third to the left of T who sits third to the left of the one who likes purple. Neither N nor immediate neighbour of N likes green. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which of the following does not belong to that group?
a.
Q, M Correct Answer
b.
R, P
c.
S, The one who likes white
d.
O, M
e.
T, The one who likes grey
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Two persons gap between all options except option (a)
Q8 mcq
A certain number of persons are seated in a row facing north. Some of the persons like different colours. The total number of persons in the row is four times the number of persons sitting to the right of the one who likes white. The person who likes blue sits second to the left of N who sits 3rd to the right of the one who likes red. Two persons sit between O and M who sits sixth to the right of N. The person who likes brown sits exactly between P and Q who is adjacent to O. Four persons sit between R and S. O sits third from one end and is two places to the left of the one who likes purple. The one who likes orange sits second from the right end. Two persons sit between O and the one who likes brown. The one who likes green sits exactly between P and S. The one who likes white sits immediate right of M. The one who likes grey sits third to the left of T who sits third to the left of the one who likes purple. Neither N nor immediate neighbour of N likes green. How many persons sit between O and the person who likes blue?
a.
11
b.
12
c.
10 Correct Answer
d.
9
e.
14

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Q9 mcq
statements are followed by four conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer: Statements: F > G = B ≤ I ≤ J < O = U, M ≥ N ≥ O = R ≥ Q, Z > S = W ≥ U > P Conclusions: I. G ≤ N II. S > Q III. Q ≥ I IV. P < M
a.
Only conclusions II and III are true
b.
Only conclusion I is true
c.
Both conclusions II and IV are true
d.
Only conclusion IV is true Correct Answer
e.
Both conclusions III and IV are true

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Q10 mcq
statements are followed by four conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer: Statements: A ≥ X = Q > S < B, H < I ≤ W = K ≤ S = R, M ≥ I = C ≤ E Conclusions: I. X > C II. H < B III. A > M IV. R ≥ E
a.
Only conclusion II is true
b.
Either conclusion III or IV is true
c.
Both conclusions II and IV are true
d.
Only conclusion IV is true
e.
Both conclusions I and II are true 2 www.bankersadda.com | Adda247 App Correct Answer

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Q11 mcq
statements are followed by four conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer: Statements: X < Y ≥ Z = K > B, F = G ≥ H < X = J, K < L ≥ M = N Conclusions: I. M > Y II. F > Z III. B < N IV. N ≤ Y
a.
Only conclusions I and IV are true
b.
Both conclusions II and III are true
c.
None is true
d.
Both conclusions III and IV are true
e.
Either conclusion I or IV is true
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Q12 mcq
statements and answer whether the data given in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. In a certain coded language, what is the code for the word ‘Library’? Statement I: In a certain coded language, “New books are important” is coded as md px rt uv“” and “Library now open” is coded as “zn cx gt”. Statement II: In a certain coded language, “Library is city” is coded as “zn iq yb” and “New library is open” is coded as “yb px cx zn”.
a.
If statement I alone is sufficient
b.
If both statements I and statement II together are sufficient
c.
If statement I and statement II together are not sufficient
d.
If either statement I or statement II is sufficient
e.
If statement II alone is sufficient
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Q13 mcq
statements and answer whether the data given in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Six persons –A, B, C, D, E and F live on a six-floor building, but not necessarily in the same order. The bottommost floor is numbered as 1, the floor immediately above it is numbered as 2, and so on till the topmost floor is numbered as 6. On which floor number does F lives? Statement I: C lives below B. There is gap of three floors between the floor on which D and F live. D lives above F who lives two floors below E. A lives above B and D. Statement II: A lives below F and above B. B lives immediately above C. C lives below E.
a.
If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
b.
If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
c.
If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
d.
If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
e.
If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
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Q14 mcq
statements and answer whether the data given in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. What is the direction of Point T with respect to Point S? Statement I: Arun starts walking from Point A and walks for 5km in the north direction to reach Point T, then turns right and walks for 6km to reach Point F. Then he turns left and walks for 6km to reach Point G. From Point G he turns right and walks for 2km to reach Point S. Statement II: Arun starts walking from Point G and walks 7km in the east direction to react Point T, then turns right and walks for 8 km to reach Point A. From Point A, he turns left and walks for 4km to reach Point E. Then, from Point E, he turns left and walks for 3 km to reach Point S.
a.
If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
b.
If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
c.
If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
d.
If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
e.
If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question. 3 www.bankersadda.com | Adda247 App Directions (15–19): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions below: Seven persons- A, B, C, D, E, F and G, were born in seven different years: 1961, 1964, 1968, 1975, 1982, 1986 and 1994. They are from seven different countries: Denmark, Switzerland, Poland, Latvia, Armenia, Bangladesh and Sweden. Their ages are calculated using the base year 2024. Each person is from a different country and no two persons are born in the same year. All the information is not necessarily in the same order. The person who belongs to Latvia is 4 years elder than F. The sum of ages of E and F is double the age of the person who belongs to Poland. The age of the person who belongs to Armenia is twice of the age of D. B is immediately younger than the one who belongs to Sweden. D doesn’t belong to Sweden. As many persons elder to G as younger to D. There is a gap of seven years between the one who belongs to Switzerland and A. C is elder than the person who belongs to Denmark. The one who belongs to Bangladesh is not the youngest person.
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Q15 mcq
Who among the following persons is two persons younger than the one born in 1964?
a.
The one who belongs to Latvia
b.
The one who belongs to Switzerland
c.
The one who belongs to Poland
d.
The one who belongs to Armenia
e.
None of these
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Q16 mcq
What is the age difference between the one who belongs to Armenia and the one from Latvia?
a.
14 years
b.
18 years
c.
12 years
d.
16 years
e.
None of these
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Q17 mcq
How many persons were born between G and the one who belongs to Bangladesh?
a.
One
b.
Three
c.
Two
d.
None
e.
Four
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Q18 mcq
Which among the following statements is true?
a.
C belongs to Poland.
b.
G belongs to Latvia.
c.
The person from Denmark was born in 1986.
d.
C is 42 years old.
e.
F belongs to Sweden.
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Q19 mcq
Which among the following combinations is correct?
a.
A – 42 years – Sweden
b.
B – 49 years – Poland
c.
D – 38 years – Demark
d.
G – 60 years – Latvia
e.
All are incorrect
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Q20 mcq
Statement: Should the government prioritize the construction of new highways over the maintenance of existing roads? Arguments: I. Yes. New highways will boost economic activity and provide faster transportation routes. II. No. Maintaining existing roads is cheaper and can prevent accidents due to poor road conditions. III. Yes. New highways will create jobs and improve infrastructure development in remote areas. Give answer:
a.
if only argument I is strong
b.
if only argument II is strong
c.
if only argument III is strong
d.
if only I and II are strong
e.
if both I and III are strong 4 www.bankersadda.com | Adda247 App
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Q21 mcq
Statement: Should highway construction projects be delayed to conduct more environmental impact studies? Arguments: I. Yes. These studies help ensure that construction does not cause long-term environmental harm. II. No. Delaying projects will increase costs and hamper economic progress. III. Yes. Delays will allow for more community consultations, ensuring more sustainable development. Give answer:
a.
if only argument I is strong
b.
if only argument II is strong
c.
if both I and III are strong
d.
if both I and II are strong
e.
if neither I nor II is strong
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Q22 mcq
If in the given word “COURTEOUS” if we remove all the letters at odd position and then arrange all the letters in English Alphabetical order then find which letter is third from the right end in the new arrangement?
a.
O
b.
U
c.
E
d.
R
e.
None of these
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Q23 mcq
Eight boxes—P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W—are stacked one above the other, but not necessarily in the same order. Each box contains a different item. The box which contains strings is placed three boxes above Box T. The box which contains Jar is placed two boxes below Box T. Box V is placed immediately below the box which contains Strings. The number of boxes placed above Box V is one more than the number of boxes placed below the box which contains Glasses. Three boxes are placed between the boxes which contains Cups and Glasses. The box which contains Mirror is placed adjacent to the box which contains Cups. Three boxes are placed between the box which contains Mirror and Box P. Box R contains Rope. Box P is not the topmost box and doesn’t contains Wires. Box S doesn’t contain Mirror, Strings and Gloves. One box is placed between Box T and Box W. Box Q is placed below Box S. Which among the following boxes contains Gloves?
a.
The box placed three boxes below Box W.
b.
The box placed three boxes below Box T.
c.
The box placed immediately below Box T
d.
The box placed immediately below Box V.
e.
None of these.
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Q24 mcq
Eight boxes—P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W—are stacked one above the other, but not necessarily in the same order. Each box contains a different item. The box which contains strings is placed three boxes above Box T. The box which contains Jar is placed two boxes below Box T. Box V is placed immediately below the box which contains Strings. The number of boxes placed above Box V is one more than the number of boxes placed below the box which contains Glasses. Three boxes are placed between the boxes which contains Cups and Glasses. The box which contains Mirror is placed adjacent to the box which contains Cups. Three boxes are placed between the box which contains Mirror and Box P. Box R contains Rope. Box P is not the topmost box and doesn’t contains Wires. Box S doesn’t contain Mirror, Strings and Gloves. One box is placed between Box T and Box W. Box Q is placed below Box S. How many boxes are placed between Box P and the box which contains Mirror?
a.
As many boxes placed between P and T.
b.
Two
c.
As many boxes placed between W and V.
d.
Four
e.
Six
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Q25 mcq
Eight boxes—P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W—are stacked one above the other, but not necessarily in the same order. Each box contains a different item. The box which contains strings is placed three boxes above Box T. The box which contains Jar is placed two boxes below Box T. Box V is placed immediately below the box which contains Strings. The number of boxes placed above Box V is one more than the number of boxes placed below the box which contains Glasses. Three boxes are placed between the boxes which contains Cups and Glasses. The box which contains Mirror is placed adjacent to the box which contains Cups. Three boxes are placed between the box which contains Mirror and Box P. Box R contains Rope. Box P is not the topmost box and doesn’t contains Wires. Box S doesn’t contain Mirror, Strings and Gloves. One box is placed between Box T and Box W. Box Q is placed below Box S. The number of boxes placed above _______ is the same number of boxes placed below the box which contains _____.
a.
Box Q, Glasses
b.
Box T, Cups
c.
Box U, Mirror
d.
Box U, Rope
e.
Box P, Gloves 5 www.bankersadda.com | Adda247 App
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Q26 mcq
Eight boxes—P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W—are stacked one above the other, but not necessarily in the same order. Each box contains a different item. The box which contains strings is placed three boxes above Box T. The box which contains Jar is placed two boxes below Box T. Box V is placed immediately below the box which contains Strings. The number of boxes placed above Box V is one more than the number of boxes placed below the box which contains Glasses. Three boxes are placed between the boxes which contains Cups and Glasses. The box which contains Mirror is placed adjacent to the box which contains Cups. Three boxes are placed between the box which contains Mirror and Box P. Box R contains Rope. Box P is not the topmost box and doesn’t contains Wires. Box S doesn’t contain Mirror, Strings and Gloves. One box is placed between Box T and Box W. Box Q is placed below Box S. If Box S and Box W interchanged their items, then which among the following items does Box W contain?
a.
Mirror
b.
Glasses
c.
Cups
d.
Rope
e.
Jar
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Q27 mcq
Eight boxes—P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W—are stacked one above the other, but not necessarily in the same order. Each box contains a different item. The box which contains strings is placed three boxes above Box T. The box which contains Jar is placed two boxes below Box T. Box V is placed immediately below the box which contains Strings. The number of boxes placed above Box V is one more than the number of boxes placed below the box which contains Glasses. Three boxes are placed between the boxes which contains Cups and Glasses. The box which contains Mirror is placed adjacent to the box which contains Cups. Three boxes are placed between the box which contains Mirror and Box P. Box R contains Rope. Box P is not the topmost box and doesn’t contains Wires. Box S doesn’t contain Mirror, Strings and Gloves. One box is placed between Box T and Box W. Box Q is placed below Box S. Which of the following statements is/are correct? I. Box S is placed immediately above Box P. II. Box T doesn’t contain Cups III. Box P doesn’t contain Gloves.
a.
Only I
b.
Only II
c.
Only III
d.
Both I and II
e.
All I, II, and III
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Q28 mcq
Statement: "The recent skirmishes along the India-China border have led to heightened tensions, but the government of India maintains that diplomatic talks will bring a long-term solution, and defence readiness is a precautionary measure to ensure national security in case of any escalation." – a statement by a government spokesperson. Assumptions: I. India believes that diplomacy is more effective than military engagement in resolving the border dispute with China. II. The government fears that military escalation might still occur despite diplomatic efforts. Which of the following assumption(s) is/are implicit in the statement?
a.
Only I is implicit
b.
Only II is implicit
c.
Either I or II is implicit
d.
Neither I nor II is implicit
e.
Both I and II are implicit
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Q29 mcq
Statement: "In response to increased Chinese military presence near the Line of Actual Control (LAC), India is ramping up infrastructure development along the border, with the expectation that stronger logistics will not only support defence operations but also benefit local populations economically." – view of a defence analyst. Which of the following has been assumed in the above statement?
a.
Infrastructure development will strengthen India’s strategic position.
b.
Local populations near the border will benefit from improved roads and facilities.
c.
Chinese military activities are a direct threat to Indian sovereignty.
d.
Economic development of border areas will reduce migration from those regions.
e.
None of these
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Q30 mcq
numbers following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of an input & its rearrangement. Input: 23 16 82 97 36 49 88 58 91 73 Step 1- 21 23 82 36 49 88 58 91 73 92 Step 2- 41 21 23 82 49 88 58 73 92 86 Step 3- 63 41 21 23 82 49 88 92 86 68 Step 4- 87 63 41 21 23 88 92 86 68 44 Step 5- 93 87 63 41 21 92 86 68 44 18 Step 5 is the last step of the above input as per the rules followed in the above steps. As per the above rule followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input. Input: 60 53 46 12 91 82 77 66 21 37 6 www.bankersadda.com | Adda247 App What is the sum of third number from the right end and fourth number from the left end in Step 2?
a.
89
b.
78
c.
168
d.
90
e.
None of the
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Q31 mcq
numbers following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of an input & its rearrangement. Input: 23 16 82 97 36 49 88 58 91 73 Step 1- 21 23 82 36 49 88 58 91 73 92 Step 2- 41 21 23 82 49 88 58 73 92 86 Step 3- 63 41 21 23 82 49 88 92 86 68 Step 4- 87 63 41 21 23 88 92 86 68 44 Step 5- 93 87 63 41 21 92 86 68 44 18 Step 5 is the last step of the above input as per the rules followed in the above steps. As per the above rule followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input. Input: 60 53 46 12 91 82 77 66 21 37 6 www.bankersadda.com | Adda247 App How many numbers are divisible by 3 in Step 5?
a.
Three
b.
Four
c.
Two
d.
Five
e.
One
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Q32 mcq
numbers following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of an input & its rearrangement. Input: 23 16 82 97 36 49 88 58 91 73 Step 1- 21 23 82 36 49 88 58 91 73 92 Step 2- 41 21 23 82 49 88 58 73 92 86 Step 3- 63 41 21 23 82 49 88 92 86 68 Step 4- 87 63 41 21 23 88 92 86 68 44 Step 5- 93 87 63 41 21 92 86 68 44 18 Step 5 is the last step of the above input as per the rules followed in the above steps. As per the above rule followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input. Input: 60 53 46 12 91 82 77 66 21 37 6 www.bankersadda.com | Adda247 App What is the difference between the first number from right and left end in Step 3?
a.
27
b.
18
c.
17
d.
16
e.
None of thee
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Q33 mcq
numbers following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of an input & its rearrangement. Input: 23 16 82 97 36 49 88 58 91 73 Step 1- 21 23 82 36 49 88 58 91 73 92 Step 2- 41 21 23 82 49 88 58 73 92 86 Step 3- 63 41 21 23 82 49 88 92 86 68 Step 4- 87 63 41 21 23 88 92 86 68 44 Step 5- 93 87 63 41 21 92 86 68 44 18 Step 5 is the last step of the above input as per the rules followed in the above steps. As per the above rule followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input. Input: 60 53 46 12 91 82 77 66 21 37 6 www.bankersadda.com | Adda247 App Which among the following number is seventh to the right of third number from the left end in step 4?
a.
21
b.
72
c.
86
d.
48
e.
32
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Q34 mcq
numbers following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of an input & its rearrangement. Input: 23 16 82 97 36 49 88 58 91 73 Step 1- 21 23 82 36 49 88 58 91 73 92 Step 2- 41 21 23 82 49 88 58 73 92 86 Step 3- 63 41 21 23 82 49 88 92 86 68 Step 4- 87 63 41 21 23 88 92 86 68 44 Step 5- 93 87 63 41 21 92 86 68 44 18 Step 5 is the last step of the above input as per the rules followed in the above steps. As per the above rule followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input. Input: 60 53 46 12 91 82 77 66 21 37 6 www.bankersadda.com | Adda247 App Which among the following set of numbers is there in the final Step?
a.
88 71 65
b.
89 71 65
c.
72 48 32
d.
86 74 48
e.
72 48 31
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Q35 mcq
If in the given word “MAGNANIMOUS” if we remove all the repeating letters and replace all the vowels with immediately succeeding letter and all the consonants with immediately preceding letter then find how many letters comes after P as per the alphabetical series in the new arrangement?
a.
Three
b.
Five
c.
Two
d.
One
e.
Four
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Q36 mcq
Statement: The government has introduced a new immigration system that is designed to streamline the process for skilled workers. This system aims to attract talent from across the globe by providing quicker visa approvals and simplifying the application process for workers in high-demand fields. The new system also includes provisions for dependent workers, allowing families to settle in the country more easily. Conclusions: I. The new immigration system will help the country attract more skilled workers from abroad. II. The new immigration system ensures that only workers in high-demand fields are eligible to apply for visas. Which of the following can be concluded from the given statement?
a.
Only I follows
b.
Only II follows
c.
Both I and II follow
d.
Neither I nor II follows
e.
None of these 7 www.bankersadda.com | Adda247 App
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Q37 mcq
Statement: The introduction of a points-based immigration system is aimed at regulating the inflow of immigrants by prioritizing skills, qualifications, and age. The government believes that this will not only address labour shortages but also ensure that immigrants contribute significantly to the country's economy. Which of the following can be concluded from the above statement?
a.
The new system will benefit immigrants with high qualifications.
b.
Labor shortages will no longer be an issue after the system is implemented.
c.
Both the skill level and age of the applicant will play a role in the immigration process.
d.
The new system will be more beneficial for younger applicants than older ones.
e.
None of these Directions (38–40): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions below: Eight persons sit in two parallel rows – A, B, C and D sit in Row-1 and face north while P, Q, R and S sit in row 2 and face south, but not necessarily in same order. Each person has a different number of chocolates with them. The sum of total number of chocolates in row 1 is 139 and the sum of total number of chocolates in row 2 is 136. The person who sits opposite to B sits second to the right of the person who has 22 chocolates. Only one person sits between the one who has 16 chocolates and B. S is immediate neighbour of the one who has 22 chocolates. S sits second to the left of R who sits opposite to the one who has 64 Chocolates. One of the immediate neighbours of R has 29 chocolates. The sum of number of chocolates Q and R have is 70. The one who sits immediately to the right of B has 34 chocolates. B doesn’t sit opposite to Q. More than one person sits between D and A. D doesn’t sit opposite to Q.
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Q38 mcq
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and form a group. Which of the following does not belong to the group?
a.
Q
b.
B
c.
R
d.
C
e.
A
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Q39 mcq
What is the sum of the number of chocolates S, B and C have?
a.
86
b.
91
c.
98
d.
81
e.
96
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Q40 mcq
If R is related to B and in the same way S is related to A then who among the following is related to C?
a.
D
b.
Q
c.
P
d.
The one who has 16 chocolates
e.
The one who has 37 chocolates
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Q41 mcq
Where is the document temporarily stored during working on a PC?
a.
Hard Disk
b.
CD-ROM
c.
RAM
d.
ROM
e.
USB Drive
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Q42 mcq
What is the primary purpose of Microsoft Access?
a.
Word Processing
b.
Spreadsheet Creation
c.
Database Management
d.
Graphic Design
e.
Email Management 8 www.bankersadda.com | Adda247 App
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Q43 mcq
Which of the following is used in memory storage to maintain the state of a single bit of data?
a.
Register
b.
Cache
c.
Flip-Flop
d.
RAM
e.
SSD
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Q44 mcq
Convert the binary number (101010)₂ to its decimal equivalent.
a.
8
b.
32
c.
22
d.
42
e.
24
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Q45 mcq
Which of the following computer generations used vacuum tubes?
a.
Second Generation
b.
Third Generation
c.
Fourth Generation
d.
First Generation
e.
Fifth Generation
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Q46 mcq
Which component temporarily stores data while the CPU performs ALU operations?
a.
HDD
b.
Accumulator
c.
RAM
d.
Control Unit
e.
ROM
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Q47 mcq
Which of the following is not hardware?
a.
Hard Disk
b.
Monitor
c.
Printer
d.
Python
e.
Motherboard
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Q48 mcq
In an email service, which feature is used to mark important emails for easy access?
a.
Archive
b.
Star Mark
c.
Draft
d.
Folder
e.
Priority Label
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Q49 mcq
Which of the following is not correct for non-volatile memory?
a.
Data is retained even after the PC is turned off.
b.
It is commonly used for long-term storage.
c.
Data is lost after the PC is off.
d.
Non-volatile memory includes devices like SSDs and Hard Drives.
e.
It is slower than volatile memory like RAM.
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Q50 mcq
What is the use of middleware?
a.
Middleware is used for managing hardware resources.
b.
Middleware enables the processing of multiple synchronous transactions between applications.
c.
Middleware provides direct access to system memory for faster processing.
d.
Middleware is used for storing data permanently.
e.
Middleware is responsible for user interface design. 9 www.bankersadda.com | Adda247 App
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Q51 mcq
Which of the technology is used in the transaction of Bitcoin cryptocurrency?
a.
Machine Learning
b.
Artificial Intelligence
c.
Data Mining
d.
Blockchain
e.
Cloud Computing
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Q52 mcq
What type of malicious software appears to be legitimate but can actually cause harm to your computer or network?
a.
Virus
b.
Trojan
c.
Worm
d.
Spyware
e.
Ransomware
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Q53 mcq
Wireless USB is used in which of the following networks?
a.
LAN (Local Area Network)
b.
WAN (Wide Area Network)
c.
PAN (Personal Area Network)
d.
MAN (Metropolitan Area Network)
e.
SAN (Storage Area Network)
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Q54 mcq
Which of the following is not an antivirus software?
a.
McAfee
b.
Norton
c.
CodeRed
d.
Kaspersky
e.
AVG
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Q55 mcq
Which of the following performs the arithmetic and logical operations in a CPU?
a.
ALU
b.
Memory Unit
c.
Control Unit
d.
Cache
e.
Register
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Q56 mcq
Which of the following symbol is used to combine the contents of two or more cells in MS Excel?
a.
%
b.
+
c.
&
d.
=
e.
*
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Q57 mcq
Which type of malware is designed to collect information about a user without their knowledge?
a.
Virus
b.
Worm
c.
Spyware
d.
Ransomware
e.
Trojan
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Q58 mcq
Which of the following has the shortest access time of all memory units?
a.
RAM
b.
Cache
c.
Hard Disk
d.
SSD
e.
CD-ROM 10 www.bankersadda.com | Adda247 App
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Q59 mcq
What is the full form of ATX?
a.
Advanced Technology eXtended
b.
Automatic Technology Expansion
c.
Advanced Transfer Extension
d.
Accelerated Technology X-factor
e.
Auxiliary Technology Expansion
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Q60 mcq
Ransomware is a type of:
a.
Application Software
b.
Encryption Malware
c.
Decryption Malware
d.
Antivirus Software
e.
Protection Malware
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Q61 mcq
What is the function of the Control Unit?
a.
Interprets instructions
b.
Prints data to a printer
c.
Provides internet access
d.
Adjusts screen resolution
e.
Compresses files for storage
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Q62 mcq
Which of the following are the most prominent and widely used IP protocols today?
a.
IPv2 & IPv3
b.
IPv5 & IPv7
c.
IPv4 & IPv6
d.
IPv1 & IPv7
e.
IPv2 & IPv5
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Q63 mcq
What is a Rootkit?
a.
A type of software that hides malicious activities on a system
b.
A security software used to protect sensitive data
c.
A tool for enhancing system performance
d.
A legitimate application used for system recovery
e.
An antivirus used to detect malware
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Q64 mcq
A stylus is a pen-like device that works using which technology?
a.
Laser
b.
Pointer
c.
UV Rays
d.
Capacitive Touch
e.
Magnetic Field
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Q65 mcq
What is the use of an interrupt in a computer system?
a.
To stop CPU tasks
b.
To allocate memory
c.
To handle urgent tasks and I/O
d.
To save data
e.
To protect against malware
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Q66 mcq
Which equipment is used to increase the speed of a computer?
a.
Increasing storage on the hard disk
b.
Extending the size of RAM
c.
Adding more USB ports
d.
Installing antivirus software
e.
Replacing the power supply 11 www.bankersadda.com | Adda247 App
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Q67 mcq
A handwritten signature can be converted into an image using which of the following devices?
a.
Barcode Scanner
b.
Graphic Tablet
c.
Joystick
d.
Optical Mouse
e.
Trackball
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Q68 mcq
Which of the following is the use of SMTP?
a.
File Transfer
b.
Web Browsing
c.
Email Transmission
d.
Data Encryption
e.
Remote Access
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Q69 mcq
Which of the following is a System Software?
a.
Microsoft Word
b.
Photoshop
c.
UNIX
d.
VLC Media Player
e.
Chrome
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Q70 mcq
Which of the following ports is commonly used to connect an internal hard disk drive (HDD) to a motherboard?
a.
USB
b.
HDMI
c.
SATA
d.
Ethernet
e.
VGA
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Q71 mcq
Which type of malware can spread across networks without attaching itself to a host file?
a.
Virus
b.
Worm
c.
Trojan
d.
Spyware
e.
Adware
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Q72 mcq
What is a phishing attack?
a.
An attack that involves sending fraudulent emails to steal personal information
b.
A technique used to block websites
c.
A method to encrypt data during transmission
d.
A type of malware that infects files
e.
A process for scanning networks for vulnerabilities
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Q73 mcq
How can parents monitor the type of content their children are accessing online?
a.
Using Activity Logs
b.
Using Antivirus Software
c.
Disabling Internet Access
d.
Installing External Storage
e.
Using Word Processors 12 www.bankersadda.com | Adda247 App
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Q74 mcq
What is the difference between IMAP and POP3 in email protocols?
a.
IMAP deletes emails after downloading, while POP3 keeps them on the server
b.
IMAP allows syncing across multiple devices, while POP3 downloads emails to one device
c.
IMAP is used for sending emails, while POP3 is used for receiving emails
d.
IMAP encrypts emails, while POP3 does not
e.
IMAP works offline, while POP3 requires an active internet connection
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Q75 mcq
What does whitelisting mean in parental lock settings?
a.
Blocking specific websites
b.
Allowing only approved websites or content
c.
Monitoring all online activities
d.
Disabling internet access
e.
Tracking time spent online
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Q76 mcq
Which of the following is related to non-volatile memory?
a.
RAM
b.
Cache
c.
SSD
d.
Registers
e.
CPU
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Q77 mcq
Which of the following technology is used in optical disks to store data?
a.
Magnetic Field
b.
Laser
c.
Electrical Charge
d.
Capacitive Touch
e.
UV Rays
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Q78 mcq
What is a macro in MS Excel?
a.
A built-in formula to perform calculations
b.
A shortcut for creating charts
c.
A feature to automate repetitive tasks
d.
A formatting tool for adjusting cell size
e.
A tool to sort data in ascending order
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Q79 mcq
How do Virtual Reality (VR), Augmented Reality (AR), and Artificial Intelligence (AI) enhance human understanding of complex concepts?
a.
By replacing human decision-making entirely
b.
By creating immersive environments and intelligent systems that help visualize and process information
c.
By automating all human tasks
d.
By limiting access to information based on user preferences
e.
By focusing only on physical task assistance
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Q80 mcq
In Quantum Computing, which element is used in place of traditional bits to represent and process information?
a.
Classical Bits
b.
Qubits
c.
Registers
d.
Cache
e.
Transistors 13 www.bankersadda.com | Adda247 App
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Q81 mcq
The International Finance Corporation (IFC) provided a $500 million loan to HDFC Bank in May 2024. What is the primary purpose of this loan?
a.
To fund large-scale industrial projects
b.
To support infrastructure development in rural areas
c.
To help self-help groups (SHGs) through microloans
d.
To enhance digital banking services in urban regions
e.
To finance housing projects for underserved communities
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Q82 mcq
In TIME magazine's 2024 list of the world's most influential companies (Released in May 2024), Reliance Industries has been placed in the Titans category. Which other Indian company has been placed in the same category alongside Reliance?
a.
Adani Group
b.
Wipro
c.
Infosys
d.
Tata Group
e.
Serum Institute of India
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Q83 mcq
In May 2024, Airbus Helicopters signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with which bank to provide financing solutions for the purchase of its helicopters in India?
a.
State Bank of India (SBI)
b.
Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI)
c.
HDFC Bank
d.
Punjab National Bank (PNB)
e.
Bank of Baroda
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Q84 mcq
The UDGAM portal, developed by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), serves what primary purpose?
a.
Providing a platform to search for unclaimed deposits
b.
Enabling users to track loan applications across banks
c.
Facilitating online payments for government services
d.
Offering financial literacy resources to individuals
e.
Allowing banks to process faster credit approvals
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Q85 mcq
In June 2024, which among the following became the first South American country to adopt a UPI-like instant payments system through a partnership with NPCI International Payments Limited (NIPL)?
a.
Brazil
b.
Argentina
c.
Chile
d.
Peru
e.
Colombia
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Q86 mcq
In 2024, NATO is celebrating how many years of collective defense as part of its anniversary?
a.
50 years
b.
60 years
c.
70 years
d.
75 years
e.
80 years
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Q87 mcq
World Bee Day, which highlights the importance of bees and their contribution to sustainable development, is celebrated annually on which date?
a.
April 22
b.
May 5
c.
May 20
d.
June 15
e.
July 10 14 www.bankersadda.com | Adda247 App
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Q88 mcq
According to banking guidelines, a savings or current account should be classified as inoperative or dormant if there are no transactions in the account for a period exceeding how many months?
a.
24 months
b.
18 months
c.
12 months
d.
30 months
e.
36 months
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Q89 mcq
In April 2024, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) issued guidelines for the voluntary conversion of which type of bank into universal banks, subject to certain conditions?
a.
Payment Banks
b.
Regional Rural Banks
c.
Cooperative Banks
d.
Foreign Banks
e.
Small Finance Banks (SFBs)
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Q90 mcq
In the QS World University Rankings 2025, which of the following institutes, other than IITs and IISc, were ranked among the top 11 from India?
a.
University of Delhi
b.
Anna University
c.
Banaras Hindu University (BHU)
d.
Both a & b
e.
Both b & c
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Q91 mcq
Which of the following countries was not elected as a non-permanent member of the United Nations Security Council (UNSC) for the two-year term starting January 1, 2025?
a.
Denmark
b.
Greece
c.
Panama
d.
Somalia
e.
Uruguay
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Q92 mcq
Consider the following statements regarding Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) and Venture Capital Funds (VCFs): 1. AIFs are privately pooled investment vehicles that collect funds from sophisticated investors for investing in accordance with a defined investment policy. 2. Venture Capital Funds (VCFs) registered under the SEBI (Venture Capital Funds) Regulations, 1996 can continue to launch new schemes under the same regulations. 3. Existing VCFs can seek re-registration under SEBI (Alternative Investment Funds) Regulations, 2012, with the approval of two-thirds of investors by the value of their investment. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a.
1 and 2 only
b.
2 and 3 only
c.
1 and 3 only
d.
1 only
e.
1, 2, and 3
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Q93 mcq
Under the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA), how many days of guaranteed wage employment are provided to rural households in a financial year?
a.
50 days
b.
75 days
c.
100 days
d.
125 days
e.
150 days 15 www.bankersadda.com | Adda247 App
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Q94 mcq
As per the Election Commission's recent announcement, voters above which age can vote from home using the Saksham App, which facilitates easier voting for Persons with Disabilities?
a.
70 years
b.
75 years
c.
80 years
d.
85 years
e.
90 years
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Q95 mcq
Under the Namo Drone Didi Scheme, what is the maximum subsidy amount provided by the Government of India for purchasing drones?
a.
INR 5 lakh
b.
INR 6 lakh
c.
INR 7 lakh
d.
INR 8 lakh
e.
INR 10 lakh
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Q96 mcq
Entrepreneur and pilot Gopi Thotakura is set to become the first Indian to venture into space as a tourist on the NS-25 mission of Blue Origin. Blue Origin is a private aerospace company focused on developing reusable rocket technology and expanding access to space. Who is the founder of Blue Origin?
a.
Richard Branson
b.
Elon Musk
c.
Jeff Bezos
d.
Larry Page
e.
Bill Gates
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Q97 mcq
What is the name of the naval version of Israel's Iron Dome air defense system, which was deployed for the first time against a suspicious target near the city of Eilat?
a.
Sea Dome
b.
Aqua Shield
c.
C-Dome
d.
Ocean Defender
e.
Naval Iron Dome
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Q98 mcq
Nobel prize-winning physicist Peter Higgs, who passed away at the age of 94, proposed the existence of which particle in 1964 that helps explain how other particles acquire mass?
a.
Neutron
b.
Electron
c.
Photon
d.
God particle
e.
Quark
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Q99 mcq
As per the Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI) revised guidelines announced on June 7, 2024, what is the new limit for bulk deposits for scheduled commercial banks and small finance banks (SFBs)?
a.
Rs 3 crore and above
b.
Rs 2 crore and above
c.
Rs 1 crore and above
d.
Rs 4 crore and above
e.
Rs 5 crore and above 16 www.bankersadda.com | Adda247 App
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Q100 mcq
In the context of a surety bond, which entity provides the bond on behalf of the contractor or business owner to guarantee future work performance to the obligee?
a.
Bank
b.
Insurance company
c.
Contractor
d.
Government
e.
Obligee
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Q101 mcq
Which mission aims to create a competent civil service in India, rooted in Indian ethos, with a focus on empowering public servants for effective and efficient public service delivery?
a.
Mission Shakti
b.
Mission Vikas
c.
Mission Pragati
d.
Mission Bharat
e.
Mission Karmayogi
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Q102 mcq
Which flagship conference on geopolitics and geo-economics was inaugurated by Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi on February 21, 2024, with the Prime Minister of Greece, H.E. Mr. Kyriakos Mitsotakis, as the Chief Guest?
a.
Shangri-La Dialogue
b.
Raisina Dialogue
c.
Asia Economic Forum
d.
Davos Summit
e.
Global Leadership Summit
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Q103 mcq
Which country will host the G20 summit in 2025, as part of the annual rotating presidency among its members?
a.
Brazil
b.
United States
c.
South Africa
d.
India
e.
Australia
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Q104 mcq
The Swamitva Scheme aims to benefit the significant tribal population by providing them with which of the following?
a.
Record of Rights
b.
Education grants
c.
Free healthcare services
d.
Agricultural subsidies
e.
Employment opportunities
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Q105 mcq
Which of the following companies are owned by Meta Platforms, Inc., formerly known as Facebook?
a.
Twitter, WhatsApp, Facebook, Threads
b.
Instagram, Facebook, WhatsApp, Threads
c.
LinkedIn, Instagram, WhatsApp, Facebook
d.
Snapchat, Facebook, Instagram, WhatsApp
e.
YouTube, Instagram, WhatsApp, Facebook
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Q106 mcq
Who is the President of the Council of Scientific & Industrial Research (CSIR), known for its cutting-edge R&D in various scientific and technological fields?
a.
Prime Minister of India
b.
Minister of Science and Technology
c.
President of India
d.
Chief Scientific Adviser
e.
Director General of CSIR 17 www.bankersadda.com | Adda247 App
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Q107 mcq
Which city in India is known as the "Perfume Capital of India" due to its traditional expertise in producing fragrances?
a.
Mysuru
b.
Kannauj
c.
Jaipur
d.
Varanasi
e.
Lucknow
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Q108 mcq
In the TReDS platform, which type of entities can participate as sellers for facilitating the financing or discounting of trade receivables?
a.
Large Corporates
b.
Government Departments
c.
Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs)
d.
Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs)
e.
Banks and Financial Institutions
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Q109 mcq
As of March 31, 2024, which of the following private sector banks has been assigned Lead Bank responsibility under the Lead Bank Scheme?
a.
HDFC Bank and Axis Bank
b.
Kotak Mahindra Bank and Yes Bank
c.
Jammu & Kashmir Bank and ICICI Bank
d.
Axis Bank and ICICI Bank
e.
HDFC Bank and IndusInd Bank
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Q110 mcq
Which port in India became the largest major port in terms of cargo volumes, handling 145.38 million tonnes in FY24, surpassing Deendayal Port Authority for the first time in its history?
a.
Jawaharlal Nehru Port
b.
Kandla Port
c.
Chennai Port
d.
Paradip Port
e.
Visakhapatnam Port
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Q111 mcq
According to the Economic Survey 2023-24, how many jobs does the Indian economy need to generate annually in the non-farm sector until 2030 to cater to the rising workforce?
a.
50.2 lakh
b.
65.3 lakh
c.
78.5 lakh
d.
85.7 lakh
e.
90.8 lakh
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Q112 mcq
What is the name of the virtual assistant developed by Apple, used across its devices like iPhones, iPads, and Macs?
a.
Alexa
b.
Cortana
c.
Google Assistant
d.
Siri
e.
Bixby
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Q113 mcq
Which of the following abbreviations is related to banking but is not related to loans?
a.
CVV
b.
LTV
c.
EMI
d.
KCC
e.
NPA 18 www.bankersadda.com | Adda247 App
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Q114 mcq
The International Union for Nature Conservation (IUCN) has listed mangroves in coastal regions of Sri Lanka and Maldives as ‘critically endangered’. Which Indian state’s coastal mangroves have also been included in this global assessment?
a.
Kerala
b.
Gujarat
c.
Odisha
d.
Tamil Nadu
e.
West Bengal
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Q115 mcq
The National Commission on Farmers, which submitted its report in 2006 and recommended that the Minimum Support Price (MSP) should be at least 50% more than the weighted average cost of production, was headed by whom?
a.
Dr. Raghuram Rajan
b.
Dr. M. S. Swaminathan
c.
Dr. Amartya Sen
d.
Dr. Manmohan Singh
e.
Dr. C. Rangarajan
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Q116 mcq
Consider the following statements regarding Geographical Indication (GI) tags in India: 1. The first GI tag in India was awarded to Darjeeling tea in 2004-05. 2. The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 came into effect in 2003. 3. A geographical indication (GI) tag is valid for 7 years and can be renewed for another 7 years. Which of the above statements is/are not true?
a.
3 only
b.
1 and 2 only
c.
2 and 3 only
d.
1 and 3 only
e.
1, 2, and 3
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Q117 mcq
Which of the following is not a type of Priority Sector Lending Certificate (PSLC)?
a.
PSLC Agriculture
b.
PSLC SF/MF
c.
PSLC Micro Enterprises
d.
PSLC Education
e.
PSLC General
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Q118 mcq
Consider the following statements regarding the Agriculture Infrastructure Fund: 1. All loans under the scheme up to ₹2 crore will have an interest subvention of 3% per annum for a maximum period of 7 years. 2. The scheme covers post-harvest management projects such as e-marketing platforms, warehouses, cold chains, and logistics facilities. 3. The scheme is operational from 2020-21 to 2035-36, with loan disbursement to be completed by the end of Financial Year 2028-29. Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
a.
1 only
b.
2 only
c.
3 only
d.
1 and 2 only
e.
1, 2, and 3 19 www.bankersadda.com | Adda247 App
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Q119 mcq
The SWAMIH Investment Fund I, managed by SBICAP Ventures Ltd., is primarily related to which of the following?
a.
Affordable and Mid-Income Housing
b.
Infrastructure Projects
c.
Industrial Development
d.
Renewable Energy Projects
e.
Small and Medium Enterprises (SMEs)
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Q120 mcq
Under the RB-IOS 2021, what is the maximum compensation amount that the RBI Ombudsman can provide for mental agony or harassment suffered by the complainant?
a.
₹50,000
b.
₹75,000
c.
₹1 lakh
d.
₹1.5 lakh
e.
₹2 lakh
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Q121 mcq
grammatical errors. Read the given paragraphs carefully, and then decide how many errors each paragraph contains. Russia’s geopolitical pivot too Asia, particularly in light of global shifts, marks a strategic realignment with key regional players, especially India. Strengthen ties with India offers Russia opportunities for economic collaboration, technology transfer, and energy partnerships. This pivot comes as Russia seeks to diversify it’s international relations amid growing tensions with the West. India, on the other hand, views this partnership as a means to enhance its regional influence and secure vital resources. The evolving dynamics among the two nations underscore the importance of their role in shaping Asia’s geopolitical landscape.
a.
Only one error
b.
Two errors
c.
Three errors
d.
Four errors
e.
No errors
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Q122 mcq
grammatical errors. Read the given paragraphs carefully, and then decide how many errors each paragraph contains. India's evolving security challenges, both internal as well as external, necessitate a comprehensive 'National Security Strategy.' As regional dynamics shift and new threats such as cyber warfare, terrorism, and border tensions emerge, a cohesive strategy would helps streamline the country’s defense, intelligence, and diplomatic efforts. This framework would guide decision-making, ensuring that national interests are protected across military, economic, and technological domains. Additionally, it would enable India to proactively address security risks, enhance preparedness, and strengthen collaborations with global allies, ultimately safeguarding its sovereignty and promoting regional stability.
a.
Only one error
b.
Two errors
c.
Three errors
d.
Five errors
e.
No error
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Q123 mcq
grammatical errors. Read the given paragraphs carefully, and then decide how many errors each paragraph contains. NITI Aayog recent unveiled the "Greening and Restoration of Wasteland with Agroforestry" (GROW) report, highlighting the potential of agroforestry to rejuvenate India’s vast wastelands. The report emphasizes the role of agroforestry in enhancing biodiversity, improve soil health, and supporting sustainable livelihoods for rural communities. It propose a multi-sectoral approach, involving government agencies, private sector, and local communities, to transform barren lands into productive ecosystems. The GROW initiative is part of India’s broader strategy to combat climate change, increase carbon sequestration, and meet its land restoration commitments under international environmental agreements.
a.
Only one error
b.
Two errors
c.
Three errors
d.
Five errors
e.
No error 20 www.bankersadda.com | Adda247 App
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Q124 mcq
grammatical errors. Read the given paragraphs carefully, and then decide how many errors each paragraph contains. Learning languages offers numerous cognitive, cultural, and social benefits, making it a vital skill in today’s interconnected world. It enhances problem-solving abilities, improves memory, and boosts multitasking skills by engaging different parts of the brain. Beyond cognitive development, mastering a new language fosters cross-cultural understanding, promoting global cooperation and empathy. In professional settings, language proficiency opens doors to new markets, enhances communication, and provides a competitive edge. Ultimate, learning languages broadens perspectives, empowering individuals to connect with diverse communities and navigate the global landscape more effectively.
a.
Only one error
b.
Two errors
c.
Three errors
d.
Five errors
e.
No error
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Q125 mcq
which might not be in their correct order of narrative. The sentence is then followed by five options, one of which gives the sequence of the rearranged parts to make the sentence meaningful. Choose the option which gives the correct sequence of the parts. If the sentence is already arranged in the correct sequence or the correct sequence doesn't match with any of the given sequence, mark option " No rearrangement required " as your answer. (A)approval journey for customers (B)onboarding processes, simplifying (C)the loan application and (D)ramping up their digital (E)financial institutions are
a.
EDCBA
b.
EDBCA
c.
DBCEA
d.
DCBEA
e.
No rearrangement required
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Q126 mcq
which might not be in their correct order of narrative. The sentence is then followed by five options, one of which gives the sequence of the rearranged parts to make the sentence meaningful. Choose the option which gives the correct sequence of the parts. If the sentence is already arranged in the correct sequence or the correct sequence doesn't match with any of the given sequence, mark option " No rearrangement required " as your answer. (A)International Self-Care Day is (B)July each year to emphasize (C)celebrated on the 24th of (D)self-care and self-love (E)the importance of
a.
ADBEC
b.
ACDEB
c.
ABCED
d.
ACBED
e.
No rearrangement required
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Q127 mcq
which might not be in their correct order of narrative. The sentence is then followed by five options, one of which gives the sequence of the rearranged parts to make the sentence meaningful. Choose the option which gives the correct sequence of the parts. If the sentence is already arranged in the correct sequence or the correct sequence doesn't match with any of the given sequence, mark option " No rearrangement required " as your answer. (A) support and guidance as needed (B) role of caregivers for their (C)"parenting parents" refers to (D) adult children taking on the (E) aging parents, providing
a.
CDBEA
b.
DEACB
c.
CADEB
d.
DBEAC
e.
No rearrangement required 21 www.bankersadda.com | Adda247 App
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Q128 mcq
which might not be in their correct order of narrative. The sentence is then followed by five options, one of which gives the sequence of the rearranged parts to make the sentence meaningful. Choose the option which gives the correct sequence of the parts. If the sentence is already arranged in the correct sequence or the correct sequence doesn't match with any of the given sequence, mark option " No rearrangement required " as your answer. (A) handwriting, particularly in prescriptions and (B) medical notes, which can sometimes lead to (C) misunderstandings or errors in patient care (D)"Doctors and handwriting" often refers to (E) the stereotype that doctors have illegible
a.
BCEAD
b.
ACDEB
c.
DEABC
d.
ECADB
e.
No rearrangement required Directions (129): In the following question, two sentences are provided. Select the most appropriate connector to combine them into a coherent and grammatically correct sentence, ensuring the context of the original sentences remains unchanged.
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Q129 mcq
(A) the manager reviewed the proposal (B) she approved it after discussing some minor modifications. (i) and (ii) in addition to (iii) likewise
a.
only (i)
b.
both (i) and (ii)
c.
only (ii)
d.
both (ii) and (iii)
e.
only (iii)
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Q130 mcq
each blank, five options are given. Choose the most appropriate word from the options that fits the blank appropriately. The discovery of cells marked a monumental ________(A)_________ point in biological science. In 1665, Robert Hooke first identified cells while observing cork tissue ________(B)_________ a microscope, describing the small compartments as “cells” due to their resemblance to monk cells. This revelation led to the development of cell theory, which ________(C)___________ that all living organisms are composed of cells, the basic unit of life. Scientific research ________(D)_________ rapidly, with the discovery of various cell structures and functions, including the nucleus, mitochondria, and DNA. Among the most significant developments in cell biology is the study of HeLa cells, a line of human cells _________(E)__________ from Henrietta Lacks in 1951. These cells are legendary in research due to their unique ability to continuously divide, making them "immortal." HeLa cells have been vital for countless scientific breakthroughs, from developing the polio vaccine to advancing cancer research, _________(F)_________ the essential role of cellular biology in modern medicine. Which of the following words will fit in the given blank (A)?
a.
showing
b.
looping
c.
dialing
d.
blowing
e.
turning
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Q131 mcq
each blank, five options are given. Choose the most appropriate word from the options that fits the blank appropriately. The discovery of cells marked a monumental ________(A)_________ point in biological science. In 1665, Robert Hooke first identified cells while observing cork tissue ________(B)_________ a microscope, describing the small compartments as “cells” due to their resemblance to monk cells. This revelation led to the development of cell theory, which ________(C)___________ that all living organisms are composed of cells, the basic unit of life. Scientific research ________(D)_________ rapidly, with the discovery of various cell structures and functions, including the nucleus, mitochondria, and DNA. Among the most significant developments in cell biology is the study of HeLa cells, a line of human cells _________(E)__________ from Henrietta Lacks in 1951. These cells are legendary in research due to their unique ability to continuously divide, making them "immortal." HeLa cells have been vital for countless scientific breakthroughs, from developing the polio vaccine to advancing cancer research, _________(F)_________ the essential role of cellular biology in modern medicine. Which of the following words will fit in the given blank (B)?
a.
over
b.
above
c.
under
d.
below
e.
around 22 www.bankersadda.com | Adda247 App
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Q132 mcq
each blank, five options are given. Choose the most appropriate word from the options that fits the blank appropriately. The discovery of cells marked a monumental ________(A)_________ point in biological science. In 1665, Robert Hooke first identified cells while observing cork tissue ________(B)_________ a microscope, describing the small compartments as “cells” due to their resemblance to monk cells. This revelation led to the development of cell theory, which ________(C)___________ that all living organisms are composed of cells, the basic unit of life. Scientific research ________(D)_________ rapidly, with the discovery of various cell structures and functions, including the nucleus, mitochondria, and DNA. Among the most significant developments in cell biology is the study of HeLa cells, a line of human cells _________(E)__________ from Henrietta Lacks in 1951. These cells are legendary in research due to their unique ability to continuously divide, making them "immortal." HeLa cells have been vital for countless scientific breakthroughs, from developing the polio vaccine to advancing cancer research, _________(F)_________ the essential role of cellular biology in modern medicine. Which of the following words will fit in the given blank (C)?
a.
postulates
b.
activities
c.
affiliates
d.
calculates
e.
regulates
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Q133 mcq
each blank, five options are given. Choose the most appropriate word from the options that fits the blank appropriately. The discovery of cells marked a monumental ________(A)_________ point in biological science. In 1665, Robert Hooke first identified cells while observing cork tissue ________(B)_________ a microscope, describing the small compartments as “cells” due to their resemblance to monk cells. This revelation led to the development of cell theory, which ________(C)___________ that all living organisms are composed of cells, the basic unit of life. Scientific research ________(D)_________ rapidly, with the discovery of various cell structures and functions, including the nucleus, mitochondria, and DNA. Among the most significant developments in cell biology is the study of HeLa cells, a line of human cells _________(E)__________ from Henrietta Lacks in 1951. These cells are legendary in research due to their unique ability to continuously divide, making them "immortal." HeLa cells have been vital for countless scientific breakthroughs, from developing the polio vaccine to advancing cancer research, _________(F)_________ the essential role of cellular biology in modern medicine. Which of the following words will fit in the given blank (D)?
a.
plugged
b.
furnished
c.
advanced
d.
fettered
e.
repaired
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Q134 mcq
each blank, five options are given. Choose the most appropriate word from the options that fits the blank appropriately. The discovery of cells marked a monumental ________(A)_________ point in biological science. In 1665, Robert Hooke first identified cells while observing cork tissue ________(B)_________ a microscope, describing the small compartments as “cells” due to their resemblance to monk cells. This revelation led to the development of cell theory, which ________(C)___________ that all living organisms are composed of cells, the basic unit of life. Scientific research ________(D)_________ rapidly, with the discovery of various cell structures and functions, including the nucleus, mitochondria, and DNA. Among the most significant developments in cell biology is the study of HeLa cells, a line of human cells _________(E)__________ from Henrietta Lacks in 1951. These cells are legendary in research due to their unique ability to continuously divide, making them "immortal." HeLa cells have been vital for countless scientific breakthroughs, from developing the polio vaccine to advancing cancer research, _________(F)_________ the essential role of cellular biology in modern medicine. Which of the following words will fit in the given blank (E)?
a.
taken
b.
thought
c.
took
d.
sunk
e.
reflected
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Q135 mcq
each blank, five options are given. Choose the most appropriate word from the options that fits the blank appropriately. The discovery of cells marked a monumental ________(A)_________ point in biological science. In 1665, Robert Hooke first identified cells while observing cork tissue ________(B)_________ a microscope, describing the small compartments as “cells” due to their resemblance to monk cells. This revelation led to the development of cell theory, which ________(C)___________ that all living organisms are composed of cells, the basic unit of life. Scientific research ________(D)_________ rapidly, with the discovery of various cell structures and functions, including the nucleus, mitochondria, and DNA. Among the most significant developments in cell biology is the study of HeLa cells, a line of human cells _________(E)__________ from Henrietta Lacks in 1951. These cells are legendary in research due to their unique ability to continuously divide, making them "immortal." HeLa cells have been vital for countless scientific breakthroughs, from developing the polio vaccine to advancing cancer research, _________(F)_________ the essential role of cellular biology in modern medicine. Which of the following words will fit in the given blank (F)?
a.
manifesting
b.
highlighting
c.
associating
d.
fabricating
e.
directing
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Q136 mcq
Jahnvi: "Alright, team. Now that we've had a productive lunch, let’s dive into the project updates. We’re heading into the final stretch, and it’s time to cross the T’s and dot the I’s. Alia, how’s the development phase coming along?" Alia: "It’s going well, Jahnvi. We've finished about 85% of the core coding, but we hit a small snag in the API integration. I think we can smooth things over, but it might take an extra day or two." Jahnvi: "Good to know. Remember, the devil is in the details. Make sure the integration is flawless, or we’ll have bigger issues down the line. Karan, what about the client presentation? Are we on track?" Karan: "Yes, I’ve got the main slides ready, but I need to fine-tune the financial breakdowns. I also want to double-check with the marketing team before finalizing it." Jahnvi: "That’s a good approach. Don’t put all your eggs in one basket. Collaborating with the marketing team will help ensure we’ve got everything aligned before the client sees it." Alia: "I agree, better safe than sorry. But Karan, let me know if you need any tech input for the slides. We don’t want to miss any technical aspects." Karan: "Thanks, Alia. I’ll loop you in once I finalize the data." Jahnvi: "Great teamwork, both of you. Let’s keep our eyes on the prize. We’re almost there, and a little extra attention now will save us from headaches later. Just remember, this project needs to be airtight by the time we present it to the client." Alia: "We’ve got this, Jahnvi. I’ll ensure the coding is completed and thoroughly tested." Karan: "And I’ll make sure the presentation is polished and ready to go." Jahnvi: "Perfect. Let’s make sure everything is on point and leave no stone unturned." What does Alia want to convey by using the idiom “hit a small snag” in the context of the passage?
a.
They have encountered a minor issue in the API integration that may cause some delay.
b.
The project is running smoothly, but additional features need to be added to the API.
c.
The team needs to abandon the current approach and start over with the API integration.
d.
The API integration has been completed successfully, and no further adjustments are required.
e.
The project has encountered a major roadblock that will halt development for several days. 23 www.bankersadda.com | Adda247 App
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Q137 mcq
Jahnvi: "Alright, team. Now that we've had a productive lunch, let’s dive into the project updates. We’re heading into the final stretch, and it’s time to cross the T’s and dot the I’s. Alia, how’s the development phase coming along?" Alia: "It’s going well, Jahnvi. We've finished about 85% of the core coding, but we hit a small snag in the API integration. I think we can smooth things over, but it might take an extra day or two." Jahnvi: "Good to know. Remember, the devil is in the details. Make sure the integration is flawless, or we’ll have bigger issues down the line. Karan, what about the client presentation? Are we on track?" Karan: "Yes, I’ve got the main slides ready, but I need to fine-tune the financial breakdowns. I also want to double-check with the marketing team before finalizing it." Jahnvi: "That’s a good approach. Don’t put all your eggs in one basket. Collaborating with the marketing team will help ensure we’ve got everything aligned before the client sees it." Alia: "I agree, better safe than sorry. But Karan, let me know if you need any tech input for the slides. We don’t want to miss any technical aspects." Karan: "Thanks, Alia. I’ll loop you in once I finalize the data." Jahnvi: "Great teamwork, both of you. Let’s keep our eyes on the prize. We’re almost there, and a little extra attention now will save us from headaches later. Just remember, this project needs to be airtight by the time we present it to the client." Alia: "We’ve got this, Jahnvi. I’ll ensure the coding is completed and thoroughly tested." Karan: "And I’ll make sure the presentation is polished and ready to go." Jahnvi: "Perfect. Let’s make sure everything is on point and leave no stone unturned." What does Karan want to convey to Alia by using the idiom “loop you in” in the context of the passage?
a.
He is asking Alia to join him in the final client meeting for additional support.
b.
He will keep Alia informed about the coding updates as soon as she finishes testing.
c.
He wants Alia to handle the final review of the presentation slides independently.
d.
He intends to provide Alia with regular updates about all aspects of the project.
e.
He plans to involve Alia in the process once the data is finalized for the presentation.
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Q138 mcq
Jahnvi: "Alright, team. Now that we've had a productive lunch, let’s dive into the project updates. We’re heading into the final stretch, and it’s time to cross the T’s and dot the I’s. Alia, how’s the development phase coming along?" Alia: "It’s going well, Jahnvi. We've finished about 85% of the core coding, but we hit a small snag in the API integration. I think we can smooth things over, but it might take an extra day or two." Jahnvi: "Good to know. Remember, the devil is in the details. Make sure the integration is flawless, or we’ll have bigger issues down the line. Karan, what about the client presentation? Are we on track?" Karan: "Yes, I’ve got the main slides ready, but I need to fine-tune the financial breakdowns. I also want to double-check with the marketing team before finalizing it." Jahnvi: "That’s a good approach. Don’t put all your eggs in one basket. Collaborating with the marketing team will help ensure we’ve got everything aligned before the client sees it." Alia: "I agree, better safe than sorry. But Karan, let me know if you need any tech input for the slides. We don’t want to miss any technical aspects." Karan: "Thanks, Alia. I’ll loop you in once I finalize the data." Jahnvi: "Great teamwork, both of you. Let’s keep our eyes on the prize. We’re almost there, and a little extra attention now will save us from headaches later. Just remember, this project needs to be airtight by the time we present it to the client." Alia: "We’ve got this, Jahnvi. I’ll ensure the coding is completed and thoroughly tested." Karan: "And I’ll make sure the presentation is polished and ready to go." Jahnvi: "Perfect. Let’s make sure everything is on point and leave no stone unturned." What does the phrase “the devil is in the details” imply in the context of the passage?
a.
It indicates that unnecessary attention to minor tasks could lead to delays in project completion.
b.
It suggests that focusing on trivial details will distract the team from the bigger project goals.
c.
It conveys that the most important parts of the project have already been completed successfully.
d.
It emphasizes the need to address small, overlooked issues in the project that may cause major problems later.
e.
It implies that technical details should be handled by experts only, as they are too complex for the team to understand.
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Q139 mcq
Jahnvi: "Alright, team. Now that we've had a productive lunch, let’s dive into the project updates. We’re heading into the final stretch, and it’s time to cross the T’s and dot the I’s. Alia, how’s the development phase coming along?" Alia: "It’s going well, Jahnvi. We've finished about 85% of the core coding, but we hit a small snag in the API integration. I think we can smooth things over, but it might take an extra day or two." Jahnvi: "Good to know. Remember, the devil is in the details. Make sure the integration is flawless, or we’ll have bigger issues down the line. Karan, what about the client presentation? Are we on track?" Karan: "Yes, I’ve got the main slides ready, but I need to fine-tune the financial breakdowns. I also want to double-check with the marketing team before finalizing it." Jahnvi: "That’s a good approach. Don’t put all your eggs in one basket. Collaborating with the marketing team will help ensure we’ve got everything aligned before the client sees it." Alia: "I agree, better safe than sorry. But Karan, let me know if you need any tech input for the slides. We don’t want to miss any technical aspects." Karan: "Thanks, Alia. I’ll loop you in once I finalize the data." Jahnvi: "Great teamwork, both of you. Let’s keep our eyes on the prize. We’re almost there, and a little extra attention now will save us from headaches later. Just remember, this project needs to be airtight by the time we present it to the client." Alia: "We’ve got this, Jahnvi. I’ll ensure the coding is completed and thoroughly tested." Karan: "And I’ll make sure the presentation is polished and ready to go." Jahnvi: "Perfect. Let’s make sure everything is on point and leave no stone unturned." What does the idiom “cross the T’s and dot the I’s” imply in the context of the passage?
a.
To focus primarily on completing the coding phase of the project and ensuring it’s functional.
b.
To finalize all necessary client communications before moving forward with the project.
c.
To pay meticulous attention to details and ensure that everything is executed flawlessly.
d.
To rely on the marketing team's input to finalize the client presentation and financial data.
e.
To make rapid progress in the development phase and ensure tasks are completed ahead of time.
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Q140 mcq
and contextually correct. Choose the option from the given options that can be the best replacement for the highlighted words. The PMLA, 2002, goals to prevent money picking and provides for the annex of property obtained through or involved in money laundering, among with addressing related issues.
a.
plans, cleaning, acquisition, amidst
b.
attempts, purging, seizure, besides
c.
intends, bleeping, looting, amongst
d.
aims, laundering, confiscation, along
e.
No replacement required
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Q141 mcq
and contextually correct. Choose the option from the given options that can be the best replacement for the highlighted words. General Consent authority the CBI in conduct investigations in a state without searching permission with each case.
a.
enables, on, executing, from
b.
allows, to, seeking, for
c.
empowers, at, demanding, by
d.
approves, for, requiring, on
e.
No replacement required
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Q142 mcq
and contextually correct. Choose the option from the given options that can be the best replacement for the highlighted words. The signature of the BIT among India and Uzbekistan nations will upgrades economic cooperation and deep the investment environment.
a.
signing, between, enhance, strengthen
b.
registering, amongst, enrich, toughen
c.
subscribing, amidst, better, fortify
d.
inking, through, improve, intensity
e.
No replacement required
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Q143 mcq
and contextually correct. Choose the option from the given options that can be the best replacement for the highlighted words. The amendment takes affect for all UN members when affirm by two- thirds of the General Assembly and ratified by two-thirds of UN members, exclusive all permanent Security Council member.
a.
affect, confirmed, excluding, member
b.
effects, confirm, except, countries
c.
effect, approved, including, members
d.
affect, verified, excluding, nations
e.
No replacement required 24 www.bankersadda.com | Adda247 App
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Q144 mcq
to form a single sentence from the two sentences given below, implying the same meaning as expressed in the statement sentences. (I) The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) plays a crucial role in maintaining financial stability in the country. (II) Ensuring strict regulation of the banking sector is essential for the RBI. (i) Since the RBI plays a crucial role… (ii) However, the RBI plays a crucial role… (iii) Given that the RBI plays a crucial role…
a.
Only (ii)
b.
Only (i)
c.
Both (i) and (iii)
d.
Both (ii) and (iii)
e.
All of these
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Q145 mcq
to form a single sentence from the two sentences given below, implying the same meaning as expressed in the statement sentences. (I) The Kisan Vikas Patra (KVP) is a savings scheme that aims to encourage long-term investment among farmers. (II) The scheme guarantees a fixed return after the maturity period. (i) As the Kisan Vikas Patra is a savings scheme… (ii) Despite being a savings scheme, the Kisan Vikas Patra… (iii) Considering the Kisan Vikas Patra is a savings scheme…
a.
Only (ii)
b.
Only (iii)
c.
Both (i) and (iii)
d.
Both (ii) and (iii)
e.
All of these
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Q146 mcq
to form a single sentence from the two sentences given below, implying the same meaning as expressed in the statement sentences. (I) Digital farming is transforming agricultural practices by integrating technology into farming operations. (II) It enhances productivity by using data-driven insights and automation. (i) Since digital farming is transforming agricultural practices… (ii) Although digital farming transforms agricultural practices… (iii) Given that digital farming is transforming agricultural practices…
a.
Both (ii) and (iii)
b.
Only (i)
c.
None of these
d.
Only (ii)
e.
Both (i) and (iii)
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Q147 mcq
In the modern era, nations worldwide are striving for rapid economic growth, measured largely by Gross Domestic Product (GDP). A higher GDP is often equated with improved living standards, greater employment opportunities, and technological advancement. However, the race for GDP growth frequently comes at the cost of environmental sustainability, contributing to rising global temperatures and climate instability. Economic growth, especially in developing nations, often relies on industrialization, deforestation, and the exploitation of natural resources. These activities, while boosting GDP, release vast amounts of greenhouse gases into the atmosphere, accelerating global warming. As temperatures rise, the adverse effects on the environment become more pronounced— melting ice caps, rising sea levels, and increasingly severe weather events. This, in turn, threatens long-term economic stability, as natural disasters can disrupt industries, displace communities, and strain resources. The challenge for governments is finding a balance between GDP growth and environmental protection. Sustainable development models are gaining traction, emphasizing green technologies, renewable energy sources, and eco-friendly practices that reduce carbon footprints. Investing in renewable energy, such as wind and solar power, can drive economic growth while mitigating the harmful effects of fossil fuel consumption. These industries not only __________________ to GDP but also help combat the global climate crisis. 25 www.bankersadda.com | Adda247 App Moreover, many economists argue that GDP, as a metric, should evolve to account for environmental degradation and social well-being. Some propose integrating "green GDP," which factors in the economic costs of environmental harm and promotes more sustainable development practices. Ultimately, the future of global economic growth depends on how well nations can align GDP development with climate- conscious policies to ensure both economic prosperity and environmental resilience. Which of the following is the primary trade-off mentioned in the passage between economic growth and the environment?
a.
Economic growth increases biodiversity as industries plant trees to counteract deforestation.
b.
Economic growth reduces employment as automation minimizes environmental damage.
c.
Economic growth raises GDP but often harms the environment through resource depletion.
d.
Economic growth lowers greenhouse gas emissions by encouraging low-carbon technologies.
e.
Economic growth and environmental impact are unrelated, allowing both goals to be pursued independently.
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Q148 mcq
In the modern era, nations worldwide are striving for rapid economic growth, measured largely by Gross Domestic Product (GDP). A higher GDP is often equated with improved living standards, greater employment opportunities, and technological advancement. However, the race for GDP growth frequently comes at the cost of environmental sustainability, contributing to rising global temperatures and climate instability. Economic growth, especially in developing nations, often relies on industrialization, deforestation, and the exploitation of natural resources. These activities, while boosting GDP, release vast amounts of greenhouse gases into the atmosphere, accelerating global warming. As temperatures rise, the adverse effects on the environment become more pronounced— melting ice caps, rising sea levels, and increasingly severe weather events. This, in turn, threatens long-term economic stability, as natural disasters can disrupt industries, displace communities, and strain resources. The challenge for governments is finding a balance between GDP growth and environmental protection. Sustainable development models are gaining traction, emphasizing green technologies, renewable energy sources, and eco-friendly practices that reduce carbon footprints. Investing in renewable energy, such as wind and solar power, can drive economic growth while mitigating the harmful effects of fossil fuel consumption. These industries not only __________________ to GDP but also help combat the global climate crisis. 25 www.bankersadda.com | Adda247 App Moreover, many economists argue that GDP, as a metric, should evolve to account for environmental degradation and social well-being. Some propose integrating "green GDP," which factors in the economic costs of environmental harm and promotes more sustainable development practices. Ultimately, the future of global economic growth depends on how well nations can align GDP development with climate- conscious policies to ensure both economic prosperity and environmental resilience. What can be inferred about the future relationship between developed and developing nations regarding climate-conscious policies?
a.
Developed nations will continue to grow economically without needing to adopt climate-conscious policies, as they have already established industrial dominance.
b.
Developing nations will likely adopt climate-conscious policies faster than developed nations, as they need these policies for short-term industrial growth.
c.
Developed and developing nations will collaborate equally on climate-conscious policies to ensure mutual economic benefits and environmental protection.
d.
Developing nations will have no impact on global climate policies, as their economies are too small to contribute significantly to climate change.
e.
Developed nations may have more resources to adopt climate-conscious policies, while developing nations could struggle due to their reliance on traditional industrialization for economic growth.
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Q149 mcq
In the modern era, nations worldwide are striving for rapid economic growth, measured largely by Gross Domestic Product (GDP). A higher GDP is often equated with improved living standards, greater employment opportunities, and technological advancement. However, the race for GDP growth frequently comes at the cost of environmental sustainability, contributing to rising global temperatures and climate instability. Economic growth, especially in developing nations, often relies on industrialization, deforestation, and the exploitation of natural resources. These activities, while boosting GDP, release vast amounts of greenhouse gases into the atmosphere, accelerating global warming. As temperatures rise, the adverse effects on the environment become more pronounced— melting ice caps, rising sea levels, and increasingly severe weather events. This, in turn, threatens long-term economic stability, as natural disasters can disrupt industries, displace communities, and strain resources. The challenge for governments is finding a balance between GDP growth and environmental protection. Sustainable development models are gaining traction, emphasizing green technologies, renewable energy sources, and eco-friendly practices that reduce carbon footprints. Investing in renewable energy, such as wind and solar power, can drive economic growth while mitigating the harmful effects of fossil fuel consumption. These industries not only __________________ to GDP but also help combat the global climate crisis. 25 www.bankersadda.com | Adda247 App Moreover, many economists argue that GDP, as a metric, should evolve to account for environmental degradation and social well-being. Some propose integrating "green GDP," which factors in the economic costs of environmental harm and promotes more sustainable development practices. Ultimately, the future of global economic growth depends on how well nations can align GDP development with climate- conscious policies to ensure both economic prosperity and environmental resilience. Why might relying solely on traditional GDP as a measure of economic growth be problematic according to the passage?
a.
Traditional GDP overlooks technological advancements that improve sustainability and efficiency.
b.
GDP emphasizes short-term gains, ignoring factors like population growth and urbanization.
c.
GDP excludes environmental costs like pollution, resource depletion, and climate change.
d.
Traditional GDP suits developed nations but doesn't reflect environmental impacts in developing countries.
e.
GDP includes environmental degradation but downplays the role of technology in growth.
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Q150 mcq
In the modern era, nations worldwide are striving for rapid economic growth, measured largely by Gross Domestic Product (GDP). A higher GDP is often equated with improved living standards, greater employment opportunities, and technological advancement. However, the race for GDP growth frequently comes at the cost of environmental sustainability, contributing to rising global temperatures and climate instability. Economic growth, especially in developing nations, often relies on industrialization, deforestation, and the exploitation of natural resources. These activities, while boosting GDP, release vast amounts of greenhouse gases into the atmosphere, accelerating global warming. As temperatures rise, the adverse effects on the environment become more pronounced— melting ice caps, rising sea levels, and increasingly severe weather events. This, in turn, threatens long-term economic stability, as natural disasters can disrupt industries, displace communities, and strain resources. The challenge for governments is finding a balance between GDP growth and environmental protection. Sustainable development models are gaining traction, emphasizing green technologies, renewable energy sources, and eco-friendly practices that reduce carbon footprints. Investing in renewable energy, such as wind and solar power, can drive economic growth while mitigating the harmful effects of fossil fuel consumption. These industries not only __________________ to GDP but also help combat the global climate crisis. 25 www.bankersadda.com | Adda247 App Moreover, many economists argue that GDP, as a metric, should evolve to account for environmental degradation and social well-being. Some propose integrating "green GDP," which factors in the economic costs of environmental harm and promotes more sustainable development practices. Ultimately, the future of global economic growth depends on how well nations can align GDP development with climate- conscious policies to ensure both economic prosperity and environmental resilience. Based on the passage, what might be the primary reason that some countries resist adopting climate- conscious policies?
a.
These policies are viewed as too expensive to implement and may slow down short-term economic growth.
b.
Climate-conscious policies require highly advanced technologies that most countries do not have.
c.
Countries believe that their contributions to climate change are minimal and do not justify drastic changes.
d.
Climate-conscious policies are difficult to enforce, and nations prefer to focus on traditional industries.
e.
These policies are only necessary for developed nations and irrelevant to developing economies.
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Q151 mcq
In the modern era, nations worldwide are striving for rapid economic growth, measured largely by Gross Domestic Product (GDP). A higher GDP is often equated with improved living standards, greater employment opportunities, and technological advancement. However, the race for GDP growth frequently comes at the cost of environmental sustainability, contributing to rising global temperatures and climate instability. Economic growth, especially in developing nations, often relies on industrialization, deforestation, and the exploitation of natural resources. These activities, while boosting GDP, release vast amounts of greenhouse gases into the atmosphere, accelerating global warming. As temperatures rise, the adverse effects on the environment become more pronounced— melting ice caps, rising sea levels, and increasingly severe weather events. This, in turn, threatens long-term economic stability, as natural disasters can disrupt industries, displace communities, and strain resources. The challenge for governments is finding a balance between GDP growth and environmental protection. Sustainable development models are gaining traction, emphasizing green technologies, renewable energy sources, and eco-friendly practices that reduce carbon footprints. Investing in renewable energy, such as wind and solar power, can drive economic growth while mitigating the harmful effects of fossil fuel consumption. These industries not only __________________ to GDP but also help combat the global climate crisis. 25 www.bankersadda.com | Adda247 App Moreover, many economists argue that GDP, as a metric, should evolve to account for environmental degradation and social well-being. Some propose integrating "green GDP," which factors in the economic costs of environmental harm and promotes more sustainable development practices. Ultimately, the future of global economic growth depends on how well nations can align GDP development with climate- conscious policies to ensure both economic prosperity and environmental resilience. Which of the following words must be used to fill in the given blank?
a.
enhance
b.
contribute
c.
accumulate
d.
retrieve
e.
stimulate 26 www.bankersadda.com | Adda247 App
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Q152 mcq
most appropriate word to fill in both blanks, ensuring that the sentences are both grammatically and contextually accurate. (A) The company plans to __________ training sessions to help employees develop new skills. (B) To ensure everyone's participation, the teacher will _______ additional resources and study materials.
a.
demonstrate
b.
organised
c.
provide
d.
make
e.
imitate
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Q153 mcq
most appropriate word to fill in both blanks, ensuring that the sentences are both grammatically and contextually accurate. (A) The government implemented new policies to _____________ the effects of climate change on coastal communities. (B) Wearing masks and practicing social distancing can help ___________ the spread of infectious diseases.
a.
transmit
b.
foster
c.
malign
d.
dominate
e.
mitigate
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Q154 mcq
most appropriate word to fill in both blanks, ensuring that the sentences are both grammatically and contextually accurate. (A) The scientist presented evidence to _____________ the claims made in the previous research study. (B) During the debate, she was able to _____________ her opponent’s arguments with well-documented facts.
a.
refute
b.
accept
c.
except
d.
restore
e.
reimburse
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Q155 mcq
Given that sleeves can make or break a garment, it’s surprising that there isn’t much India-specific information available on the __________________________________ of what, designer Neeta Lulla calls, “one of the pillars of a piece of clothing”. In her career of 40 years, Lulla has worked as a costume designer for about 400 films, from Lamhe (1991) to Devdas (2002) and Thalaivii (2021). Sleeves are what “haldi (turmeric) and dhaniya (coriander)” are to food, she says. “When it comes to the evolution of sleeves in India, much of the influence has come from the West,” says Lulla. “Traditionally, we mostly had slim sleeves with motifs and symbols.” Why is sleeve mania in vogue? “Fashion moves in a cyclical way so we are seeing all kinds of sleeves right now,” replies Lulla. “But you can’t forget their functional aspect.” In fashion, nothing is ever just fashion. Each aspect of a garment serves a purpose. In many versions of the abaya, for example, the sleeves are comfortably bell shaped so the outfit becomes more airy. “Traditionally, European clothes had a strong presence of heavy cuffs and power shoulders to provide protection from the weather,” Rimple offers another example. During the 1500s and 1600s, puff sleeves became famous because of their “cosmetic” use. “The Elizabethan and Victorian eras saw the emergence of puff sleeves. Women would wear corsets to get tiny waists, and when big sleeves were added, they made the person look even smaller and achieve that perfect hourglass shape. Then you had the Edwardian sleeves that were romantic with ruffles and lace,” explains Lulla. She explains how she used three-quarter, puff sleeves in the romance-drama Lamhe to give Sridevi’s character Pallavi a soft, feminine and youthful look. “This (the Renaissance period) was the time when women’s fashion, especially sleeves, was at the forefront.” The same puff sleeves became a trend in 1950s India when the country’s cinema was taking shape, hence influencing popular culture. “India had recently gained independence from Britain and the presence of Edwardian sleeves was everywhere, especially in Kolkata (since it had been one of the leading cities in British times),” says Lulla, who has been studying sleeves for decades. 27 www.bankersadda.com | Adda247 App How did India's cultural context in the 1950s contribute to the popularity of Edwardian sleeves, as mentioned in the passage?
a.
Indian designers incorporated elements of Edwardian fashion into cinema to reflect popular Western trends.
b.
Indian designers rejected traditional sleeves in favor of Western styles post-independence.
c.
A revival of interest in traditional Indian designs led to the popularity of Edwardian-style sleeves.
d.
Western designers introduced Edwardian sleeves to Indian cinema during the 1950s.
e.
The enduring impact of British colonial influence shaped Indian fashion trends.
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Q156 mcq
Given that sleeves can make or break a garment, it’s surprising that there isn’t much India-specific information available on the __________________________________ of what, designer Neeta Lulla calls, “one of the pillars of a piece of clothing”. In her career of 40 years, Lulla has worked as a costume designer for about 400 films, from Lamhe (1991) to Devdas (2002) and Thalaivii (2021). Sleeves are what “haldi (turmeric) and dhaniya (coriander)” are to food, she says. “When it comes to the evolution of sleeves in India, much of the influence has come from the West,” says Lulla. “Traditionally, we mostly had slim sleeves with motifs and symbols.” Why is sleeve mania in vogue? “Fashion moves in a cyclical way so we are seeing all kinds of sleeves right now,” replies Lulla. “But you can’t forget their functional aspect.” In fashion, nothing is ever just fashion. Each aspect of a garment serves a purpose. In many versions of the abaya, for example, the sleeves are comfortably bell shaped so the outfit becomes more airy. “Traditionally, European clothes had a strong presence of heavy cuffs and power shoulders to provide protection from the weather,” Rimple offers another example. During the 1500s and 1600s, puff sleeves became famous because of their “cosmetic” use. “The Elizabethan and Victorian eras saw the emergence of puff sleeves. Women would wear corsets to get tiny waists, and when big sleeves were added, they made the person look even smaller and achieve that perfect hourglass shape. Then you had the Edwardian sleeves that were romantic with ruffles and lace,” explains Lulla. She explains how she used three-quarter, puff sleeves in the romance-drama Lamhe to give Sridevi’s character Pallavi a soft, feminine and youthful look. “This (the Renaissance period) was the time when women’s fashion, especially sleeves, was at the forefront.” The same puff sleeves became a trend in 1950s India when the country’s cinema was taking shape, hence influencing popular culture. “India had recently gained independence from Britain and the presence of Edwardian sleeves was everywhere, especially in Kolkata (since it had been one of the leading cities in British times),” says Lulla, who has been studying sleeves for decades. 27 www.bankersadda.com | Adda247 App Which of the following statements are ACCURATE with respect to the passage? (I) During the 1500s and 1600s, puff sleeves became famous because of their practical use. (II) Edwardian sleeves were characterized by their romantic style with ruffles and lace. (III) Puff sleeves emerged during the Elizabethan and Victorian eras.
a.
All (I), (II) and (III)
b.
Only (I) and (III)
c.
Only (II) and (III)
d.
Only (I) and (II)
e.
Only (II)
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Q157 mcq
Given that sleeves can make or break a garment, it’s surprising that there isn’t much India-specific information available on the __________________________________ of what, designer Neeta Lulla calls, “one of the pillars of a piece of clothing”. In her career of 40 years, Lulla has worked as a costume designer for about 400 films, from Lamhe (1991) to Devdas (2002) and Thalaivii (2021). Sleeves are what “haldi (turmeric) and dhaniya (coriander)” are to food, she says. “When it comes to the evolution of sleeves in India, much of the influence has come from the West,” says Lulla. “Traditionally, we mostly had slim sleeves with motifs and symbols.” Why is sleeve mania in vogue? “Fashion moves in a cyclical way so we are seeing all kinds of sleeves right now,” replies Lulla. “But you can’t forget their functional aspect.” In fashion, nothing is ever just fashion. Each aspect of a garment serves a purpose. In many versions of the abaya, for example, the sleeves are comfortably bell shaped so the outfit becomes more airy. “Traditionally, European clothes had a strong presence of heavy cuffs and power shoulders to provide protection from the weather,” Rimple offers another example. During the 1500s and 1600s, puff sleeves became famous because of their “cosmetic” use. “The Elizabethan and Victorian eras saw the emergence of puff sleeves. Women would wear corsets to get tiny waists, and when big sleeves were added, they made the person look even smaller and achieve that perfect hourglass shape. Then you had the Edwardian sleeves that were romantic with ruffles and lace,” explains Lulla. She explains how she used three-quarter, puff sleeves in the romance-drama Lamhe to give Sridevi’s character Pallavi a soft, feminine and youthful look. “This (the Renaissance period) was the time when women’s fashion, especially sleeves, was at the forefront.” The same puff sleeves became a trend in 1950s India when the country’s cinema was taking shape, hence influencing popular culture. “India had recently gained independence from Britain and the presence of Edwardian sleeves was everywhere, especially in Kolkata (since it had been one of the leading cities in British times),” says Lulla, who has been studying sleeves for decades. 27 www.bankersadda.com | Adda247 App What purpose do design elements such as sleeves and shoulders in garments serve, according to the passage?
a.
They primarily contribute to the visual impact of the garment, with the focus being more on the stylistic appeal.
b.
They are incorporated to draw attention to the historical evolution of fashion, emphasizing past trends.
c.
They are mainly designed based on cultural and symbolic meanings, with less emphasis on practical applications.
d.
They combine style and purpose, offering visual appeal while also serving functional needs like protection and comfort.
e.
They are intentionally included to create a uniform style across various geographical regions and time periods.
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Q158 mcq
Given that sleeves can make or break a garment, it’s surprising that there isn’t much India-specific information available on the __________________________________ of what, designer Neeta Lulla calls, “one of the pillars of a piece of clothing”. In her career of 40 years, Lulla has worked as a costume designer for about 400 films, from Lamhe (1991) to Devdas (2002) and Thalaivii (2021). Sleeves are what “haldi (turmeric) and dhaniya (coriander)” are to food, she says. “When it comes to the evolution of sleeves in India, much of the influence has come from the West,” says Lulla. “Traditionally, we mostly had slim sleeves with motifs and symbols.” Why is sleeve mania in vogue? “Fashion moves in a cyclical way so we are seeing all kinds of sleeves right now,” replies Lulla. “But you can’t forget their functional aspect.” In fashion, nothing is ever just fashion. Each aspect of a garment serves a purpose. In many versions of the abaya, for example, the sleeves are comfortably bell shaped so the outfit becomes more airy. “Traditionally, European clothes had a strong presence of heavy cuffs and power shoulders to provide protection from the weather,” Rimple offers another example. During the 1500s and 1600s, puff sleeves became famous because of their “cosmetic” use. “The Elizabethan and Victorian eras saw the emergence of puff sleeves. Women would wear corsets to get tiny waists, and when big sleeves were added, they made the person look even smaller and achieve that perfect hourglass shape. Then you had the Edwardian sleeves that were romantic with ruffles and lace,” explains Lulla. She explains how she used three-quarter, puff sleeves in the romance-drama Lamhe to give Sridevi’s character Pallavi a soft, feminine and youthful look. “This (the Renaissance period) was the time when women’s fashion, especially sleeves, was at the forefront.” The same puff sleeves became a trend in 1950s India when the country’s cinema was taking shape, hence influencing popular culture. “India had recently gained independence from Britain and the presence of Edwardian sleeves was everywhere, especially in Kolkata (since it had been one of the leading cities in British times),” says Lulla, who has been studying sleeves for decades. 27 www.bankersadda.com | Adda247 App How does Neeta Lulla view the significance of sleeves, and how did she use them in Lamhe to enhance Pallavi’s character?
a.
Sleeves are key to Indian fashion, and Lulla used full-length sleeves for a sophisticated look.
b.
Sleeves are decorative, and Lulla used puff sleeves to give Pallavi a strong, dominant appearance.
c.
Sleeves are essential, and Lulla used three-quarter puff sleeves to create a soft, feminine, youthful look.
d.
Sleeves are irrelevant, and Lulla used sleeveless designs to reflect Pallavi's modernity.
e.
Sleeves are outdated, and Lulla avoids using them in her designs.
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Q159 mcq
Given that sleeves can make or break a garment, it’s surprising that there isn’t much India-specific information available on the __________________________________ of what, designer Neeta Lulla calls, “one of the pillars of a piece of clothing”. In her career of 40 years, Lulla has worked as a costume designer for about 400 films, from Lamhe (1991) to Devdas (2002) and Thalaivii (2021). Sleeves are what “haldi (turmeric) and dhaniya (coriander)” are to food, she says. “When it comes to the evolution of sleeves in India, much of the influence has come from the West,” says Lulla. “Traditionally, we mostly had slim sleeves with motifs and symbols.” Why is sleeve mania in vogue? “Fashion moves in a cyclical way so we are seeing all kinds of sleeves right now,” replies Lulla. “But you can’t forget their functional aspect.” In fashion, nothing is ever just fashion. Each aspect of a garment serves a purpose. In many versions of the abaya, for example, the sleeves are comfortably bell shaped so the outfit becomes more airy. “Traditionally, European clothes had a strong presence of heavy cuffs and power shoulders to provide protection from the weather,” Rimple offers another example. During the 1500s and 1600s, puff sleeves became famous because of their “cosmetic” use. “The Elizabethan and Victorian eras saw the emergence of puff sleeves. Women would wear corsets to get tiny waists, and when big sleeves were added, they made the person look even smaller and achieve that perfect hourglass shape. Then you had the Edwardian sleeves that were romantic with ruffles and lace,” explains Lulla. She explains how she used three-quarter, puff sleeves in the romance-drama Lamhe to give Sridevi’s character Pallavi a soft, feminine and youthful look. “This (the Renaissance period) was the time when women’s fashion, especially sleeves, was at the forefront.” The same puff sleeves became a trend in 1950s India when the country’s cinema was taking shape, hence influencing popular culture. “India had recently gained independence from Britain and the presence of Edwardian sleeves was everywhere, especially in Kolkata (since it had been one of the leading cities in British times),” says Lulla, who has been studying sleeves for decades. 27 www.bankersadda.com | Adda247 App Which of the following words can grammatically and contextually complete the blank in the passage?
a.
emerge
b.
transition
c.
transformed
d.
evolution
e.
ebbing
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Q160 mcq
Given that sleeves can make or break a garment, it’s surprising that there isn’t much India-specific information available on the __________________________________ of what, designer Neeta Lulla calls, “one of the pillars of a piece of clothing”. In her career of 40 years, Lulla has worked as a costume designer for about 400 films, from Lamhe (1991) to Devdas (2002) and Thalaivii (2021). Sleeves are what “haldi (turmeric) and dhaniya (coriander)” are to food, she says. “When it comes to the evolution of sleeves in India, much of the influence has come from the West,” says Lulla. “Traditionally, we mostly had slim sleeves with motifs and symbols.” Why is sleeve mania in vogue? “Fashion moves in a cyclical way so we are seeing all kinds of sleeves right now,” replies Lulla. “But you can’t forget their functional aspect.” In fashion, nothing is ever just fashion. Each aspect of a garment serves a purpose. In many versions of the abaya, for example, the sleeves are comfortably bell shaped so the outfit becomes more airy. “Traditionally, European clothes had a strong presence of heavy cuffs and power shoulders to provide protection from the weather,” Rimple offers another example. During the 1500s and 1600s, puff sleeves became famous because of their “cosmetic” use. “The Elizabethan and Victorian eras saw the emergence of puff sleeves. Women would wear corsets to get tiny waists, and when big sleeves were added, they made the person look even smaller and achieve that perfect hourglass shape. Then you had the Edwardian sleeves that were romantic with ruffles and lace,” explains Lulla. She explains how she used three-quarter, puff sleeves in the romance-drama Lamhe to give Sridevi’s character Pallavi a soft, feminine and youthful look. “This (the Renaissance period) was the time when women’s fashion, especially sleeves, was at the forefront.” The same puff sleeves became a trend in 1950s India when the country’s cinema was taking shape, hence influencing popular culture. “India had recently gained independence from Britain and the presence of Edwardian sleeves was everywhere, especially in Kolkata (since it had been one of the leading cities in British times),” says Lulla, who has been studying sleeves for decades. 27 www.bankersadda.com | Adda247 App Which of the following statements are INCORRECT with respect to the passage? (I) Lulla attributes the evolution of sleeves to Western influence. (II) Traditionally, we mostly had wide sleeves with plain designs but lot of motifs. (III) Fashion is cyclical, so we're seeing various sleeve styles now.
a.
Only (I) and (III)
b.
Only (II) and (III)
c.
Only (III)
d.
Only (II)
e.
All (I), (II) and (III) 28 www.bankersadda.com | Adda247 App 𝒚 𝟏𝟏
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Q161 mcq
The one root of equation 𝐏 𝟐 − 𝟏𝟎𝐏 + 𝟐𝟓 = 𝟎 is y and 𝟓 = 𝒛+𝟏. Quantity I. 10z Quantity II. 100
a.
Quantity I > Quantity II
b.
Quantity I < Quantity II
c.
Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
d.
Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
e.
Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation
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Q162 mcq
The age of A after four years and the present age of B is in the ratio 5:6 respectively. B is 12 year younger than C and the average of the present ages of A, B and C is 65. Q16uantity I. 440 Q16uantity II. 6 times the sum of the present ages of B and C.
a.
Quantity I > Quantity II
b.
Quantity I < Quantity II
c.
Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
d.
Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
e.
Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation
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Q163 mcq
1600, 1604, 1544, 1760, 1248, 2248
a.
1600
b.
1544
c.
1760
d.
2248
e.
1604
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Q164 mcq
275, 75, 165, 33, 99, 19.8
a.
99
b.
165
c.
75
d.
19.8
e.
275
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Q165 mcq
20000, 500, 25, 1.5, 0.5, 0.2
a.
1.5
b.
500
c.
25
d.
0.5
e.
0.2
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Q166 mcq
1001, 934, 863, 790, 711, 630, 539
a.
539
b.
790
c.
1001
d.
630
e.
790 29 www.bankersadda.com | Adda247 App
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Q167 mcq
bar graph shows the total (type A and type B) quantity (in kg) of ore extraction by two different companies (X and Y) in four different years. The table shows the percentage of A type ore extraction by company X and the quantity (in kg) of B type ore extraction by company Y in these years. 400 350 300 250 200 150 100 50 0 2012 2013 2014 2015 Company X Company Y Percentage of A type ore extraction by company Quantity (in kg) of B type ore extraction by company Years X Y 2012 40% 30 2013 50% 135 2014 60% 75 2015 75% 90 Total quantity of A type ore extraction by Y in 2014 and 2012 together is what percentage of the total quantity of B type ore extraction by X in 2014 and 2015 together?
a.
48.5%
b.
60%
c.
52.5%
d.
25%
e.
41.33%
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Q168 mcq
bar graph shows the total (type A and type B) quantity (in kg) of ore extraction by two different companies (X and Y) in four different years. The table shows the percentage of A type ore extraction by company X and the quantity (in kg) of B type ore extraction by company Y in these years. 400 350 300 250 200 150 100 50 0 2012 2013 2014 2015 Company X Company Y Percentage of A type ore extraction by company Quantity (in kg) of B type ore extraction by company Years X Y 2012 40% 30 2013 50% 135 2014 60% 75 2015 75% 90 Total quantity of A type ore extraction by Y in 2017 is 66 2/3% more than that in 2012. Total quantity of B type ore extraction by Y in 2017 half of the total quantity of A type ore extraction by X in 2015, then find the total quantity of ore extraction by Y in 2017 is how much more or less than the total quantity of ore extraction by X in 2012.
a.
15 kg
b.
10 kg
c.
30 kg
d.
25 kg
e.
40 kg 30 www.bankersadda.com | Adda247 App
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Q169 mcq
bar graph shows the total (type A and type B) quantity (in kg) of ore extraction by two different companies (X and Y) in four different years. The table shows the percentage of A type ore extraction by company X and the quantity (in kg) of B type ore extraction by company Y in these years. 400 350 300 250 200 150 100 50 0 2012 2013 2014 2015 Company X Company Y Percentage of A type ore extraction by company Quantity (in kg) of B type ore extraction by company Years X Y 2012 40% 30 2013 50% 135 2014 60% 75 2015 75% 90 B type ore extraction by company X in 2013 and 2011 is in the ratio of 18:13. If the A type ore extraction by company X in 2015 is 20% more than that in 2011, then find the ratio of the total quantity of ore extraction by company X in 2011 to total quantity of ore extraction by company Y in 2014.
a.
43:22
b.
42:25
c.
41:29
d.
43:24
e.
None of these
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Q170 mcq
bar graph shows the total (type A and type B) quantity (in kg) of ore extraction by two different companies (X and Y) in four different years. The table shows the percentage of A type ore extraction by company X and the quantity (in kg) of B type ore extraction by company Y in these years. 400 350 300 250 200 150 100 50 0 2012 2013 2014 2015 Company X Company Y Percentage of A type ore extraction by company Quantity (in kg) of B type ore extraction by company Years X Y 2012 40% 30 2013 50% 135 2014 60% 75 2015 75% 90 The average of the A type ore extraction by company X in 2012, 2013 and 2017 is 73. The total quantity of ore extraction by company X in 2017 is 1.5 times that of company Y in 2015. Find the B type ore extraction by company X in 2017.
a.
171 kg
b.
184 kg
c.
193 kg
d.
111 kg
e.
129 kg
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Q171 mcq
bar graph shows the total (type A and type B) quantity (in kg) of ore extraction by two different companies (X and Y) in four different years. The table shows the percentage of A type ore extraction by company X and the quantity (in kg) of B type ore extraction by company Y in these years. 400 350 300 250 200 150 100 50 0 2012 2013 2014 2015 Company X Company Y Percentage of A type ore extraction by company Quantity (in kg) of B type ore extraction by company Years X Y 2012 40% 30 2013 50% 135 2014 60% 75 2015 75% 90 Find the difference between the total B type ore extraction by company X in 2013 and 2015 together and the sum of the A type ore extraction by company X in 2012 and A type ore extraction by company Y in 2014.
a.
50 kg
b.
45 kg
c.
30 kg
d.
35 kg
e.
20 kg
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Q172 mcq
bar graph shows the total (type A and type B) quantity (in kg) of ore extraction by two different companies (X and Y) in four different years. The table shows the percentage of A type ore extraction by company X and the quantity (in kg) of B type ore extraction by company Y in these years. 400 350 300 250 200 150 100 50 0 2012 2013 2014 2015 Company X Company Y Percentage of A type ore extraction by company Quantity (in kg) of B type ore extraction by company Years X Y 2012 40% 30 2013 50% 135 2014 60% 75 2015 75% 90 D type ore extraction by company X in 2016 is 25% more than the average of the A type ore extraction by company Y in 2012, 2013 and 2014. If the D type ore extraction by company Y in 2016 is two- fifth of the A type ore extraction by company X in 2013, then find the D type ore extraction by companies X and Y together in 2016.
a.
150 kg
b.
145 kg
c.
130 kg
d.
111 kg
e.
120 kg
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Q173 mcq
I shows the percentage distribution of the total number of products manufactured, and the pie chart II shows the percentage distribution of the total number of products sold by five different companies in 2022. Total number of products Total number of products sold manufactured = 20000 = 12000 A A 20% 15% 30% B 26% B C 18% C 15% 12% D 10% D 25% 29% E E 31 www.bankersadda.com | Adda247 App Find the total number of unsold products of A, B and C together.
a.
4560
b.
3450
c.
3645
d.
4125
e.
None of these
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Q174 mcq
I shows the percentage distribution of the total number of products manufactured, and the pie chart II shows the percentage distribution of the total number of products sold by five different companies in 2022. Total number of products Total number of products sold manufactured = 20000 = 12000 A A 20% 15% 30% B 26% B C 18% C 15% 12% D 10% D 25% 29% E E 31 www.bankersadda.com | Adda247 App The average number of products manufactured by B, D and F is 2500. If the total products sold by F is 33 1/3% that of A, then find the total number of unsold products by F.
a.
1750
b.
1900
c.
1400
d.
1550
e.
1200
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Q175 mcq
I shows the percentage distribution of the total number of products manufactured, and the pie chart II shows the percentage distribution of the total number of products sold by five different companies in 2022. Total number of products Total number of products sold manufactured = 20000 = 12000 A A 20% 15% 30% B 26% B C 18% C 15% 12% D 10% D 25% 29% E E 31 www.bankersadda.com | Adda247 App The total number of products manufactured by A in 2023 is increased by 37.5% compared to the previous year. If the total number of unsold products by A in 2023 is the same as 2022, then find the percentage increase in the number of products sold by A in 2023 compared to the previous year.
a.
82.5%
b.
66.67%
c.
83.33%
d.
33.33%
e.
12.5%
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Q176 mcq
I shows the percentage distribution of the total number of products manufactured, and the pie chart II shows the percentage distribution of the total number of products sold by five different companies in 2022. Total number of products Total number of products sold manufactured = 20000 = 12000 A A 20% 15% 30% B 26% B C 18% C 15% 12% D 10% D 25% 29% E E 31 www.bankersadda.com | Adda247 App Find the difference between the total number of products sold by D and E together and the total number of products unsold by C and A together.
a.
620
b.
540
c.
840
d.
775
e.
590
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Q177 mcq
I shows the percentage distribution of the total number of products manufactured, and the pie chart II shows the percentage distribution of the total number of products sold by five different companies in 2022. Total number of products Total number of products sold manufactured = 20000 = 12000 A A 20% 15% 30% B 26% B C 18% C 15% 12% D 10% D 25% 29% E E 31 www.bankersadda.com | Adda247 App The total number of products manufactured by X is 40% less than that by E and the ratio of the unsold products by X to B is 11:7 respectively. The number of products sold by X is what percentage of the number of products manufactured by C.
a.
18.5%
b.
12.33%
c.
56.2%
d.
32.8%
e.
45.6%
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Q178 mcq
I shows the percentage distribution of the total number of products manufactured, and the pie chart II shows the percentage distribution of the total number of products sold by five different companies in 2022. Total number of products Total number of products sold manufactured = 20000 = 12000 A A 20% 15% 30% B 26% B C 18% C 15% 12% D 10% D 25% 29% E E 31 www.bankersadda.com | Adda247 App 75% of the total number of products manufactured by E are non- defective, and the rest are defective. If 2/5th of the defective products manufactured by E are unsold, then find the ratio of the total non- defective products sold to the total non-defective products unsold by E.
a.
37:38
b.
38:39
c.
37:39
d.
38:35
e.
33:37 32 www.bankersadda.com | Adda247 App
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Q179 mcq
The height of a cone is equal to the height of a cylinder. The curved surface area of the cylinder is 616 cm2 and the height of the cylinder is two times of the its radius. The radius of the cone is 50% of the radius of the cylinder. Quantity I: Find the difference between total surface area and curved surface area of the cylinder. Quantity II: Find the curved surface area of the cone.
a.
Quantity I > Quantity II
b.
Quantity I < Quantity II
c.
Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
d.
Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
e.
Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation
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Q180 mcq
A and B invested Rs X-5000 and Rs X+2000 in a compound interest for R% and 2R%, respectively, for two years. If the ratio of the investment of A and B is 5:7, then find the difference between their interest.
a.
Rs 1200
b.
Rs 1500
c.
Rs 2100
d.
Can’t be determined
e.
None of these
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Q181 mcq
The cost price and selling price of an article are Rs a and Rs 2a, respectively, and the article is marked up by Rs 700 above the cost price. If the selling price and cost price of the article are increased by Rs 100 and marked price is same, then find the difference between the new discount and new profit on the article. (a = 𝟐𝟓𝟐 − 125)
a.
Rs 550
b.
Rs 800
c.
Rs 650
d.
Rs 250
e.
Rs 400
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Q182 mcq
A, B and C together can complete a work in P/ 13 days and A & B together can complete the same work in P/10 days. If B alone can complete the work in P/4 days and days taken by C to complete the work is 20 days more than that of A, then find P.
a.
150
b.
120
c.
140
d.
110
e.
160
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Q183 mcq
Rahul invested Rs X and Vikas invested Rs 7000 in a business. After five months, Rahul increased his initial investment by 50% and after two more months, Vikas decreased his investment by 30%. At the end of a year, the profit share of Rahul is Rs 1550 out of total profit of Rs 3020. Find the value of X.
a.
2500
b.
3000
c.
4000
d.
5000
e.
6000
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Q184 mcq
The unit digit of a three-digit number is two more than its tenth place digit. If we subtract 311 from the number, then we receive 13 as the resultant. Find the sum of all three digits of the number.
a.
13
b.
10
c.
9
d.
11
e.
12 33 www.bankersadda.com | Adda247 App Directions (25 – 27): Read the information carefully and answer the questions given below. The total number of sold flats in society A was 1.5x more than the number of unsold flats in the same society. All the flats were sold in society C, while the number of sold flats in society B are 42 which is 3/10th of the total number of flats (sold + unsold) in society C. If we doubled the number of flats (sold + unsold) in society A, then the total number of flats (sold + unsold) in all three societies becomes 612. Total unsold flats in society B is 78.
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Q185 mcq
If total unsold flats in society A are 61, then find the value of x?
a.
54
b.
36
c.
115
d.
72
e.
48
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Q186 mcq
Out of total unsold flats from society B, 28 were sold, then find the ratio of total unsold flats in society B now to total sold flats in society B now & C together?
a.
7 : 21
b.
4 : 21
c.
5 : 18
d.
5 : 21
e.
None of these
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Q187 mcq
If total number of sold flats in society D are 1/4th of total flats (sold + unsold) in society A, then find the difference between total sold flats in society in D and C?
a.
100
b.
104
c.
106
d.
86
e.
96
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Q188 mcq
The speed of train A is 180 km/hr and the train can cross a pole in 4 seconds. Train A can cross a man who sitting in train B in 10 seconds, while both train running in same direction. Quantity I: Speed of train B (in m/sec.). Quantity II: If speed of train A is decrease by 20 m/sec., then find the new speed of train A (in m/sec.)
a.
Quantity I > Quantity II
b.
Quantity I < Quantity II
c.
Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
d.
Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
e.
Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation
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Q189 mcq
The length of train A is ‘d’ meters which takes equal time to cross a 300 meters long platform in which ‘d+200’ meters long train B can cross a 500 meters long platform. If the ratio of speed of train A to that of train B is 5 : 9, then find the value of ‘d’ (in meters).
a.
200
b.
100
c.
300
d.
250
e.
120
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Q190 mcq
A, B and C has total 60 toffies, while A has 25 toffies and total number of toffies C has is 5 less than that of B. Find how many toffies should be added with C, so that the ratio of toffies A, B and C has becomes 5 : 4 : 6 respectively.
a.
20
b.
10
c.
15
d.
5
e.
25 34 www.bankersadda.com | Adda247 App
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Q191 mcq
The monthly income of a person is Rs 30000, he spends a% on rent and a+5% on EMI. He spends 45% of the remaining income on education. If amount spent on education is equal to amount spent on rent, then find the amount spent on EMI (in Rs.)?
a.
7250 Rs
b.
8150 Rs (C) 6250 Rs
d.
8250 Rs
e.
None of these
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Q192 mcq
The sum of perimeter of top and bottom of a right circular cylinder is 176 cm. If volume of the cylinder is 3528π cm3 and the height of the cylinder is 3/4th of side of square, then find the area of the square (in cm2)?
a.
900
b.
784
c.
676
d.
576
e.
484
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Q193 mcq
A sum is invested at 12% p.a. at simple interest for four years 11 months and 28 days in a scheme. The amount received from the scheme is invested for two years at 20% p.a. on compound interest for two years 2 days in another scheme. If compound interest received from second scheme is 1056.4 Rs, then find the amount invested in first scheme (approx.)?
a.
1400 Rs
b.
1800 Rs
c.
1600 Rs
d.
1500 Rs
e.
1200 Rs
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Q194 mcq
The ratio of present age of A to that of B is 1 : 3. One year ago, the age of C was twice the age of A that time. If B is 21 years older than C, then find the ratio of present age of B to age of C after three years.
a.
10 : 9
b.
7 : 5
c.
9 : 7
d.
5 : 3
e.
10 : 7 𝟑𝒙 𝟐𝒙
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Q195 mcq
A boat travelled km in downstream and 𝒌𝒎 in upstream. Speed of boat in still water is 12 km/hr and 𝟓 𝟓 speed of stream is 8 km/hr and time taken by boat to cover given distance in upstream is 14 hours more than of time taken by boat to cover given distance in downstream. Find the total distance travelled in downstream?
a.
220 𝑘𝑚
b.
155 𝑘𝑚
c.
182 𝑘𝑚
d.
70 𝑘𝑚
e.
120 𝑘𝑚
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Q196 mcq
questions. There are three people A, B and C bought the same article at different price. A bought an article at Rs. Y and B bought the same article at 50% more cost than that of A. C bought the same article at 100% above cost than that of A. The d% discount is given on the article by A also he gets a profit of Rs.40 and A marked up the article Rs. 100 above the cost price. The cost price of the article bought by B is five time the discount given by A on the article. 35 www.bankersadda.com | Adda247 App Find the value of d.
a.
20%
b.
18%
c.
11%
d.
15%
e.
10%
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Q197 mcq
questions. There are three people A, B and C bought the same article at different price. A bought an article at Rs. Y and B bought the same article at 50% more cost than that of A. C bought the same article at 100% above cost than that of A. The d% discount is given on the article by A also he gets a profit of Rs.40 and A marked up the article Rs. 100 above the cost price. The cost price of the article bought by B is five time the discount given by A on the article. 35 www.bankersadda.com | Adda247 App Find the value of Y.
a.
Rs 200
b.
Rs 180
c.
Rs 125
d.
Rs 100
e.
Rs 150
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Q198 mcq
questions. There are three people A, B and C bought the same article at different price. A bought an article at Rs. Y and B bought the same article at 50% more cost than that of A. C bought the same article at 100% above cost than that of A. The d% discount is given on the article by A also he gets a profit of Rs.40 and A marked up the article Rs. 100 above the cost price. The cost price of the article bought by B is five time the discount given by A on the article. 35 www.bankersadda.com | Adda247 App If A invested 40 times of profit he received from the article in a scheme which offers a simple interest of 15% for 5 years, then find the interest received by A.
a.
Rs 1221
b.
Rs 1000
c.
Rs 1100
d.
Rs 1300
e.
Rs 1200
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Q199 mcq
questions. There are three people A, B and C bought the same article at different price. A bought an article at Rs. Y and B bought the same article at 50% more cost than that of A. C bought the same article at 100% above cost than that of A. The d% discount is given on the article by A also he gets a profit of Rs.40 and A marked up the article Rs. 100 above the cost price. The cost price of the article bought by B is five time the discount given by A on the article. 35 www.bankersadda.com | Adda247 App If C marked the article 30% above the cost price and gives a discount of Rs 49, then find the selling price of article A is how much more/less than the selling price of C.
a.
Rs 221
b.
Rs 181
c.
Rs 191
d.
Rs 231
e.
Rs 200
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Q200 mcq
questions. There are three people A, B and C bought the same article at different price. A bought an article at Rs. Y and B bought the same article at 50% more cost than that of A. C bought the same article at 100% above cost than that of A. The d% discount is given on the article by A also he gets a profit of Rs.40 and A marked up the article Rs. 100 above the cost price. The cost price of the article bought by B is five time the discount given by A on the article. 35 www.bankersadda.com | Adda247 App B gets the profit double than that of C on the article they bought. Now C and B get into a partnership by investing their profits that they get from the article they bought for X months and 12 months and received a profit share in the ratio of 1:6 respectively. Find the value of X.
a.
3 months
b.
6 months
c.
10 months
d.
4 months
e.
5 months 36 www.bankersadda.com | Adda247 App
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