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RRB RRB-PO-MAINS 2019

2019 · 105 questions · First 10 Solutions Free
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Q1 mcq
answer the questions given below: Seven persons were born in seven different years. Their ages are calculated with respect to 2019. None of them was born before 1965. They belong to different professions such as Manager, HR, Artist, Doctor, Teacher, Engineer, and Pilot but not necessarily in the same order. Note: All the persons were born on the same date and same month. Nisha was 38 years old. No one was born between Nisha and the one who is Pilot. Three persons were born between the one who is Pilot and Aditi, who is the oldest among all and born before 1970 but in the even-numbered year. No one was born between Aditi and the one who is a Manager. More than one person was born between the ones who are Manager and Pilot. Dheeraj was born before Nisha but not just before. There is 4 years difference between Aditi and Dheeraj. The difference between the ages of Dheeraj and Kamal is the same as between Nisha and Swati. Pranav who was born before Pooja but after Swati. Swati was 11 years older than Pranav. Pranav was born in 1998. The difference between the ages of Kamal and Pranav was not more than 20 years. The one who is a Teacher was born just before HR. Pooja does not an HR. There are 7 years of difference between the ones who are Doctor and Engineer. No one was born between Pilot and Doctor. How many persons were born between the ones who were Artist and Doctor?
a.
One
b.
None
c.
Two
d.
Five
e.
None of these Correct Answer

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Q2 mcq
answer the questions given below: Seven persons were born in seven different years. Their ages are calculated with respect to 2019. None of them was born before 1965. They belong to different professions such as Manager, HR, Artist, Doctor, Teacher, Engineer, and Pilot but not necessarily in the same order. Note: All the persons were born on the same date and same month. Nisha was 38 years old. No one was born between Nisha and the one who is Pilot. Three persons were born between the one who is Pilot and Aditi, who is the oldest among all and born before 1970 but in the even-numbered year. No one was born between Aditi and the one who is a Manager. More than one person was born between the ones who are Manager and Pilot. Dheeraj was born before Nisha but not just before. There is 4 years difference between Aditi and Dheeraj. The difference between the ages of Dheeraj and Kamal is the same as between Nisha and Swati. Pranav who was born before Pooja but after Swati. Swati was 11 years older than Pranav. Pranav was born in 1998. The difference between the ages of Kamal and Pranav was not more than 20 years. The one who is a Teacher was born just before HR. Pooja does not an HR. There are 7 years of difference between the ones who are Doctor and Engineer. No one was born between Pilot and Doctor. In which year Kamal was born?
a.
1976
b.
1978 Correct Answer
c.
1981
d.
1987
e.
None of these

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Q3 mcq
answer the questions given below: Seven persons were born in seven different years. Their ages are calculated with respect to 2019. None of them was born before 1965. They belong to different professions such as Manager, HR, Artist, Doctor, Teacher, Engineer, and Pilot but not necessarily in the same order. Note: All the persons were born on the same date and same month. Nisha was 38 years old. No one was born between Nisha and the one who is Pilot. Three persons were born between the one who is Pilot and Aditi, who is the oldest among all and born before 1970 but in the even-numbered year. No one was born between Aditi and the one who is a Manager. More than one person was born between the ones who are Manager and Pilot. Dheeraj was born before Nisha but not just before. There is 4 years difference between Aditi and Dheeraj. The difference between the ages of Dheeraj and Kamal is the same as between Nisha and Swati. Pranav who was born before Pooja but after Swati. Swati was 11 years older than Pranav. Pranav was born in 1998. The difference between the ages of Kamal and Pranav was not more than 20 years. The one who is a Teacher was born just before HR. Pooja does not an HR. There are 7 years of difference between the ones who are Doctor and Engineer. No one was born between Pilot and Doctor. Which of the following combination is true?
a.
Nisha-41-HR
b.
Dheeraj-41-Manager
c.
Aditi-51-Doctor
d.
Swati-32-Piolt Correct Answer
e.
None id true

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Q4 mcq
answer the questions given below: Seven persons were born in seven different years. Their ages are calculated with respect to 2019. None of them was born before 1965. They belong to different professions such as Manager, HR, Artist, Doctor, Teacher, Engineer, and Pilot but not necessarily in the same order. Note: All the persons were born on the same date and same month. Nisha was 38 years old. No one was born between Nisha and the one who is Pilot. Three persons were born between the one who is Pilot and Aditi, who is the oldest among all and born before 1970 but in the even-numbered year. No one was born between Aditi and the one who is a Manager. More than one person was born between the ones who are Manager and Pilot. Dheeraj was born before Nisha but not just before. There is 4 years difference between Aditi and Dheeraj. The difference between the ages of Dheeraj and Kamal is the same as between Nisha and Swati. Pranav who was born before Pooja but after Swati. Swati was 11 years older than Pranav. Pranav was born in 1998. The difference between the ages of Kamal and Pranav was not more than 20 years. The one who is a Teacher was born just before HR. Pooja does not an HR. There are 7 years of difference between the ones who are Doctor and Engineer. No one was born between Pilot and Doctor. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence they form a group. Which one of the following does not belong to that group?
a.
Aditi-Artist
b.
Kamal-Manager Correct Answer
c.
Nisha-HR
d.
Swati-Pilot
e.
Pooja-Engineer 1 www.bankersadda.com | www.sscadda.com Mains 2019 ABILITY

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Q5 mcq
answer the questions given below: Seven persons were born in seven different years. Their ages are calculated with respect to 2019. None of them was born before 1965. They belong to different professions such as Manager, HR, Artist, Doctor, Teacher, Engineer, and Pilot but not necessarily in the same order. Note: All the persons were born on the same date and same month. Nisha was 38 years old. No one was born between Nisha and the one who is Pilot. Three persons were born between the one who is Pilot and Aditi, who is the oldest among all and born before 1970 but in the even-numbered year. No one was born between Aditi and the one who is a Manager. More than one person was born between the ones who are Manager and Pilot. Dheeraj was born before Nisha but not just before. There is 4 years difference between Aditi and Dheeraj. The difference between the ages of Dheeraj and Kamal is the same as between Nisha and Swati. Pranav who was born before Pooja but after Swati. Swati was 11 years older than Pranav. Pranav was born in 1998. The difference between the ages of Kamal and Pranav was not more than 20 years. The one who is a Teacher was born just before HR. Pooja does not an HR. There are 7 years of difference between the ones who are Doctor and Engineer. No one was born between Pilot and Doctor. The number of persons were born between Kamal and Pranav is same as the number of persons were born between Swati and ___?
a.
Pooja
b.
Dheeraj Correct Answer
c.
Aditi
d.
Nisha
e.
None of these
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12 www.bankersadda.com | www.sscadda.com compost or production of methane for household use or power generation. But it is a major opportunity __(115)___. Organic waste that could help green cities and __(116)__ small and affordable household biogas plants is simply being thrown away. It is also ironic that while some countries such as Rwanda and Kenya have introduced stiff penalties for the __(117)___ of flimsy plastic bags, India is doing little to __(118)__ them from drifting into suburban garbage mountains, rivers, lakes and the sea, and being ___(119)___ by cattle feeding on dumped ___(120)___.
Q6 mcq
Statement I- The Indian Army plans to recruit women in combat roles, especially with regard to the operations in Jammu & Kashmir, Army Chief General Bipin Rawat said at the Passing Out Parade at the Indian Military Academy (IMA). Statement II- Many a time jawans in Kashmir feel hesitant about dealing with women when they are in the front lines. Statement III- The situation in Kashmir has been volatile for decades, flaring up for worse since last summer. In the last four days alone, the army has killed 13 suspected militants. Which of the following may be cause/effect among the above statements?
a.
Statement II will be cause and Statement I and III will be it’s effects.
b.
Statement II and III will be cause and I will be it’s effect.
c.
Statement III is cause and Statement I is it’s effect and Statement II is effect of independent cause.
d.
Statement II is cause and Statement I is it’s effect and Statement III is effect of independent cause. Correct Answer
e.
Statement III is cause and Statement II is it’s effect and Statement I is effect of independent cause.
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
In the above question it is clear that Statement II will be the cause and Statement I will be its effect. Because it is mentioned in statement II that jawans have doubt how to deal with the women so this will be cause and its effect will be, The Indian Army will recruit women in combat roles to tackle such kind of situation.
Q7 mcq
Statement: No one in the Royal Family wants to be king or queen by their choice, Prince Harry has told a US magazine, adding that "we will carry out our duties at the right time". "Is there any one of the Royal Family who wants to be king or queen? I don't think so," he told Newsweek. Which of the following is not in line with the above statement? (I) He said the royals were doing their duties "for the greater good of the people". (II) Harry, who recently said he had received counselling to cope with the death of his mother in a car crash in Paris, said: "My mother had just died, and I had to walk a long way behind her coffin, surrounded by thousands of people watching me while millions more did on television. | www.careerpower.in | Adda247 App (III) He also paid tribute to his "remarkable" grandmother for letting the younger royals do things their own way.
a.
Only (I)
b.
Only (II)
c.
Only (III) Correct Answer
d.
Both (II) and (III)
e.
None of these
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
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Statement (I) suggests that royals are not kings or queens by choice but because they have to, for the welfare of the country which is in line with the statement. (II) fortifies the statement by stating out an example in which he had to face problems because of his royal background. (III) is irrelevant to the statement. | www.careerpower.in | Adda247 App
Q8 mcq
carefully and answer the questions given below: In each of the questions below are given some statements followed by some conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Statements: Only a few Pizza are Burger. Only a few Burger are Maggie. All Maggie are Momo’s. No Pasta is Maggie. Conclusions: I. Some Maggie are not Burger. II. Some Pizza are not Pasta. III. Only a few Pizza are Maggie.
a.
If only conclusion I and II follows
b.
If only conclusion II follows
c.
If either conclusion II or III and I follows
d.
None follows Correct Answer
e.
None of these

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Q9 mcq
carefully and answer the questions given below: In each of the questions below are given some statements followed by some conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Statements: Only a few Bank are Account. Few Current are Saving. All Account are Saving. Some FD are not Account. Conclusions: I. Some Account can be FD. II. Some Saving are not FD. III. All Bank being Account is a possibility.
a.
If only conclusion I and II follows
b.
If only conclusion II and III follows
c.
If only conclusion I follows Correct Answer
d.
All I, II and III follow
e.
None Follow

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Q10 mcq
carefully and answer the questions given below: In each of the questions below are given some statements followed by some conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Statements: Only Vertical is Circle. Some Vertical are not Square. All Square are Triangle. Conclusions: I. Some Circle can be Triangle. II. All Square being Vertical is a possibility. III. Only a few Vertical is Triangle.
a.
If only conclusion I and II follows
b.
Only II Correct Answer
c.
If only conclusion I follows
d.
All I, II and III follow
e.
None Follow 2 www.bankersadda.com | www.sscadda.com
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Q11 mcq
carefully and answer the questions given below: Eight persons are sitting in a straight line equidistant from each other. Some of them are facing north and some of them are facing south. Not more than two persons having same direction are sitting adjacent to each other. Three persons are sitting to the left of U. Only one person sits between Z and W and both of them faces in the same direction. Z does not sit at the extreme end of the line. Y who is not an immediate neighbor of S sits second to the right of X who sits at one of the extreme ends of the line. V sits fifth to the left of T who faces in the south direction. S sits immediate right of U and both faces in opposite directions to each other. Persons sitting at the extreme ends are facing in the same direction. Y faces north direction. How many persons are facing in the south direction?
a.
Four
b.
Five
c.
Three
d.
Two
e.
Six
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Q12 mcq
carefully and answer the questions given below: Eight persons are sitting in a straight line equidistant from each other. Some of them are facing north and some of them are facing south. Not more than two persons having same direction are sitting adjacent to each other. Three persons are sitting to the left of U. Only one person sits between Z and W and both of them faces in the same direction. Z does not sit at the extreme end of the line. Y who is not an immediate neighbor of S sits second to the right of X who sits at one of the extreme ends of the line. V sits fifth to the left of T who faces in the south direction. S sits immediate right of U and both faces in opposite directions to each other. Persons sitting at the extreme ends are facing in the same direction. Y faces north direction. Who sits second to the left of S?
a.
T
b.
V
c.
X
d.
Z
e.
None of these
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Q13 mcq
carefully and answer the questions given below: Eight persons are sitting in a straight line equidistant from each other. Some of them are facing north and some of them are facing south. Not more than two persons having same direction are sitting adjacent to each other. Three persons are sitting to the left of U. Only one person sits between Z and W and both of them faces in the same direction. Z does not sit at the extreme end of the line. Y who is not an immediate neighbor of S sits second to the right of X who sits at one of the extreme ends of the line. V sits fifth to the left of T who faces in the south direction. S sits immediate right of U and both faces in opposite directions to each other. Persons sitting at the extreme ends are facing in the same direction. Y faces north direction. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group, which of the following does not belong to the group?
a.
S
b.
U
c.
Z
d.
W
e.
X
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Q14 mcq
carefully and answer the questions given below: Eight persons are sitting in a straight line equidistant from each other. Some of them are facing north and some of them are facing south. Not more than two persons having same direction are sitting adjacent to each other. Three persons are sitting to the left of U. Only one person sits between Z and W and both of them faces in the same direction. Z does not sit at the extreme end of the line. Y who is not an immediate neighbor of S sits second to the right of X who sits at one of the extreme ends of the line. V sits fifth to the left of T who faces in the south direction. S sits immediate right of U and both faces in opposite directions to each other. Persons sitting at the extreme ends are facing in the same direction. Y faces north direction. How many persons sit between Z and Y?
a.
One
b.
None
c.
Three
d.
Two
e.
More than three
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Q15 mcq
carefully and answer the questions given below: Eight persons are sitting in a straight line equidistant from each other. Some of them are facing north and some of them are facing south. Not more than two persons having same direction are sitting adjacent to each other. Three persons are sitting to the left of U. Only one person sits between Z and W and both of them faces in the same direction. Z does not sit at the extreme end of the line. Y who is not an immediate neighbor of S sits second to the right of X who sits at one of the extreme ends of the line. V sits fifth to the left of T who faces in the south direction. S sits immediate right of U and both faces in opposite directions to each other. Persons sitting at the extreme ends are facing in the same direction. Y faces north direction. Which of the following is true?
a.
No one sits to the left of W
b.
and
c.
are true
d.
Both
e.
All are true
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Q16 mcq
of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer. (a) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question. (b) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question. (c) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question. (d) if the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question. (e) if the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question. | www.careerpower.in | Adda247 App Five members i.e. P, Q, R, S and T are in a family, then who is the husband of R? Statement I: R is sister in law of S who is the child of P. Statement II: R is the daughter in law of Q who is the mother of S.
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Q17 mcq
of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer. (a) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question. (b) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question. (c) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question. (d) if the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question. (e) if the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question. | www.careerpower.in | Adda247 App What is the code for “cow”? Statement I: “big cow rat” is coded as “mn vg dc” and “rat dew grass” is coded as “vg bh sx” Statement II: “big same use” is coded as “mn we qs” and “rat cow use” is coded as “we vg dc”
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Q18 mcq
of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer. (a) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question. (b) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question. (c) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question. (d) if the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question. (e) if the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question. | www.careerpower.in | Adda247 App Six persons are of different heights. Who is 2 nd shortest person? Statement I: Anshul is taller than Ankita and shorter than Anamika. Only one person is taller than Akash. Statement II: Ankita is shorter than Akash and taller than Aditya. Ankit is not shortest person.
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Q19 mcq
of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer. (a) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question. (b) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question. (c) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question. (d) if the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question. (e) if the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question. | www.careerpower.in | Adda247 App Five persons i.e. F, P, R, S and T are living in different floors of five floored building. Who is living in topmost floor? Statement I: There are two floor gaps between P and F who is immediate above R. S is in bottommost floor. Statement II: Only one person is above R who is just above S. There are three floors gap between P and F who is not in topmost floor.
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Q20 mcq
of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer. (a) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question. (b) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question. (c) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question. (d) if the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question. (e) if the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question. | www.careerpower.in | Adda247 App Five persons i.e. A, B, C, D and G are sitting in a row facing North. Who sits in the middle of the row? Statement I: D sits 3 rd to the right of G who is at an extreme end. Two persons sit between A and B who is an immediate neighbor of D. Statement II: B sits immediate right of D who sits 3 rd to the left of A. C sits immediate right of B.
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Q21 mcq
between some elements are shown in the statements. These statements are followed by conclusions numbered I and II. Read the statements and give the answer. (a) If only conclusion I follows. (b) If only conclusion II follows. (c) If either conclusion I or II follows. (d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows. (e) If both conclusions I and II follow. Statements: A≤B>D=C, C>E≤F Conclusion: I. A>C II. E<B
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Q22 mcq
between some elements are shown in the statements. These statements are followed by conclusions numbered I and II. Read the statements and give the answer. (a) If only conclusion I follows. (b) If only conclusion II follows. (c) If either conclusion I or II follows. (d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows. (e) If both conclusions I and II follow. Statements: P>Q>R=S, S≥T≤U≥V Conclusions: I. Q>T II. S≤V
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Q23 mcq
between some elements are shown in the statements. These statements are followed by conclusions numbered I and II. Read the statements and give the answer. (a) If only conclusion I follows. (b) If only conclusion II follows. (c) If either conclusion I or II follows. (d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows. (e) If both conclusions I and II follow. Statements: B>C>D<E=F, H≤E>G=N Conclusions: I. F<N II. N>D 3 www.bankersadda.com | www.sscadda.com
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Q24 mcq
answer the questions given below. A certain number of persons are sitting in a row facing north. M sits fourth to the left of O. Only two persons sit between M and Q. R sits second to the left of Q. S sits fourth to the right of O. Not more than five persons sit between P and Q. P sits to the right of S. Only three persons sit to the left of R. Which of the following statement is true?
a.
M sits at an extreme end
b.
Only one person sits between M and R
c.
All are true
d.
Ten persons sits between M and S
e.
None is true
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Q25 mcq
answer the questions given below. A certain number of persons are sitting in a row facing north. M sits fourth to the left of O. Only two persons sit between M and Q. R sits second to the left of Q. S sits fourth to the right of O. Not more than five persons sit between P and Q. P sits to the right of S. Only three persons sit to the left of R. How many persons are sitting between O and Q?
a.
One
b.
Two
c.
None
d.
Three
e.
More than three
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Q26 mcq
answer the questions given below. A certain number of persons are sitting in a row facing north. M sits fourth to the left of O. Only two persons sit between M and Q. R sits second to the left of Q. S sits fourth to the right of O. Not more than five persons sit between P and Q. P sits to the right of S. Only three persons sit to the left of R. If P sits at an extreme end of the row, then how many persons are sitting in the row?
a.
Ten
b.
Twelve
c.
Thirteen
d.
Eleven
e.
More than thirteen
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Q27 mcq
answer the questions given below. A certain number of persons are sitting in a row facing north. M sits fourth to the left of O. Only two persons sit between M and Q. R sits second to the left of Q. S sits fourth to the right of O. Not more than five persons sit between P and Q. P sits to the right of S. Only three persons sit to the left of R. What is the position of S in the row?
a.
Immediate right of P
b.
Sixth to the right of Q
c.
Eighth to the left of M
d.
None of these
e.
Seventh to the right of R
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Q28 mcq
answer the questions given below. A certain number of persons are sitting in a row facing north. M sits fourth to the left of O. Only two persons sit between M and Q. R sits second to the left of Q. S sits fourth to the right of O. Not more than five persons sit between P and Q. P sits to the right of S. Only three persons sit to the left of R. If L sits exactly between S and O, then how many persons sits to the left of L?
a.
Ten
b.
Nine
c.
Eight
d.
Cannot be determined
e.
More than ten
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Q29 mcq
India and the UAE have discussed measures to deepen cooperation in a range of areas including defence, security, terrorism and trade as the two countries held the second round of their strategic dialogue in Abu Dhabi. Which among the following is not-in-line with given statement? (I) The Indian delegation at the talks held yesterday was led by Minister of State for External Affairs M J Akbar while the UAE side was headed by its Minister of State for Foreign Affairs Anwar Gargash. (II) India ships wheat to Afghanistan via Chabahar. India on Sunday began shipment of wheat to Afghanistan through the Iranian port of Chabahar. | www.careerpower.in | Adda247 App (III) The UAE has raised its investment profile in India, and cooperation has increased on security issues, the statement said.
a.
Only I
b.
Both II and III
c.
Both I and III
d.
Only II
e.
None of these
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Q30 mcq
Modi government to reframe social welfare schemes for OBCs. In the run-up to the high stakes elections in Gujarat and Himachal Pradesh, the Narendra Modi- led government has moved to reframe social welfare schemes for other backward classes (OBCs). Which among the following can be hypothesized from the given statement? (I) The targeted schemes promise quality residential accommodation and scholarships to OBC students. (II) This reframe of social welfare schemes for OBCs by the Modi government is a political move to target high stakes elections in Gujarat and Himachal Pradesh. (III) The ministry has laid down guidelines for construction of hostels, which would be energy efficient, economical yet good quality.
a.
Only (I)
b.
Both (III) and (I)
c.
Only (II)
d.
Both (II) and (III)
e.
None of these
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Q31 mcq
carefully and answer the questions given below. A@B (6)- A is 10m in north of B A$B (10)- A is 14m in south of B A%B (12)- A is 10m in east of B A&B (15)- A is 13m in west of B P%Q(16), R&S(12), T&U(20), U$S(15), P@T(10), W$R(17) What is the shortest distance between point P and point U?
a.
2√130m
b.
520m
c.
130m
d.
260m
e.
None of these
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Q32 mcq
carefully and answer the questions given below. A@B (6)- A is 10m in north of B A$B (10)- A is 14m in south of B A%B (12)- A is 10m in east of B A&B (15)- A is 13m in west of B P%Q(16), R&S(12), T&U(20), U$S(15), P@T(10), W$R(17) If M is the mid point of the line segment TU, then determine the distance between the point T and point M?
a.
9m
b.
10m
c.
8m
d.
None of these
e.
7m
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Q33 mcq
carefully and answer the questions given below. A@B (6)- A is 10m in north of B A$B (10)- A is 14m in south of B A%B (12)- A is 10m in east of B A&B (15)- A is 13m in west of B P%Q(16), R&S(12), T&U(20), U$S(15), P@T(10), W$R(17) What is the shortest distance between the point U and point W?
a.
85m
b.
120m
c.
None of these
d.
√104m
e.
√130m 4 www.bankersadda.com | www.sscadda.com
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Q34 mcq
carefully and answer the questions given below: Eight boxes AC, BD, EG, FH, IK, JL, MO and NP have different brands toffee i.e. Poppins, Melody, Kismi bar, Gems, Hajmola, Boomer, Center fresh and Coffee bite places one above another. All are not necessarily in same order. Box FH is placed above the box which has Center fresh. There are three boxes are between the boxes have Melody and Hajmola. There are only three boxes are above the box MO. There is only one box is between MO and FH. Box AC is immediate below the box which has Melody. Box BD places just above box which has Melody and just below the box has Gems. Box FH neither has Gems nor has Hajmola. Box EG places just above the box which has Poppins and just below the box which has Coffee bite. There is one box between box IK which has Boomer and box JL. Box MO doesn’t have Center fresh. Which among the following box places just above the box which has Kismi bar?
a.
AC
b.
BD
c.
EG
d.
FH
e.
None of these
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Q35 mcq
carefully and answer the questions given below: Eight boxes AC, BD, EG, FH, IK, JL, MO and NP have different brands toffee i.e. Poppins, Melody, Kismi bar, Gems, Hajmola, Boomer, Center fresh and Coffee bite places one above another. All are not necessarily in same order. Box FH is placed above the box which has Center fresh. There are three boxes are between the boxes have Melody and Hajmola. There are only three boxes are above the box MO. There is only one box is between MO and FH. Box AC is immediate below the box which has Melody. Box BD places just above box which has Melody and just below the box has Gems. Box FH neither has Gems nor has Hajmola. Box EG places just above the box which has Poppins and just below the box which has Coffee bite. There is one box between box IK which has Boomer and box JL. Box MO doesn’t have Center fresh. Which among the following toffee is in box NP?
a.
Poppins
b.
Melody
c.
Kismi bar
d.
Gems
e.
None of these
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Q36 mcq
carefully and answer the questions given below: Eight boxes AC, BD, EG, FH, IK, JL, MO and NP have different brands toffee i.e. Poppins, Melody, Kismi bar, Gems, Hajmola, Boomer, Center fresh and Coffee bite places one above another. All are not necessarily in same order. Box FH is placed above the box which has Center fresh. There are three boxes are between the boxes have Melody and Hajmola. There are only three boxes are above the box MO. There is only one box is between MO and FH. Box AC is immediate below the box which has Melody. Box BD places just above box which has Melody and just below the box has Gems. Box FH neither has Gems nor has Hajmola. Box EG places just above the box which has Poppins and just below the box which has Coffee bite. There is one box between box IK which has Boomer and box JL. Box MO doesn’t have Center fresh. How many boxes are placed between box AC and the box which have Hajmola?
a.
One
b.
Two
c.
Three
d.
More than three
e.
None
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Q37 mcq
carefully and answer the questions given below: Eight boxes AC, BD, EG, FH, IK, JL, MO and NP have different brands toffee i.e. Poppins, Melody, Kismi bar, Gems, Hajmola, Boomer, Center fresh and Coffee bite places one above another. All are not necessarily in same order. Box FH is placed above the box which has Center fresh. There are three boxes are between the boxes have Melody and Hajmola. There are only three boxes are above the box MO. There is only one box is between MO and FH. Box AC is immediate below the box which has Melody. Box BD places just above box which has Melody and just below the box has Gems. Box FH neither has Gems nor has Hajmola. Box EG places just above the box which has Poppins and just below the box which has Coffee bite. There is one box between box IK which has Boomer and box JL. Box MO doesn’t have Center fresh. Which among the following is not false?
a.
AC-Hajmola
b.
BD-Gems
c.
EG-Melody
d.
FH- Coffee bite
e.
None is true
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Q38 mcq
carefully and answer the questions given below: Eight boxes AC, BD, EG, FH, IK, JL, MO and NP have different brands toffee i.e. Poppins, Melody, Kismi bar, Gems, Hajmola, Boomer, Center fresh and Coffee bite places one above another. All are not necessarily in same order. Box FH is placed above the box which has Center fresh. There are three boxes are between the boxes have Melody and Hajmola. There are only three boxes are above the box MO. There is only one box is between MO and FH. Box AC is immediate below the box which has Melody. Box BD places just above box which has Melody and just below the box has Gems. Box FH neither has Gems nor has Hajmola. Box EG places just above the box which has Poppins and just below the box which has Coffee bite. There is one box between box IK which has Boomer and box JL. Box MO doesn’t have Center fresh. Four of the following five are alike in certain way based from a group, find the one which does not belong to that group?
a.
IK- Kismi bar
b.
EG- Coffee bite
c.
NP- Center fresh
d.
BD- Gems
e.
MO- Melody
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Q39 mcq
carefully and answer the questions given below: In a certain code language ‘exams good for growth’ is coded as ‘jam, dam, mam, ram’ ‘bank exams are difficult’ is coded as ‘pam, jam, vam, bam’ ‘bank growth not easy’ is coded as ‘pam, ram, lam, tam’ ‘easy for difficult preferred’ is coded as ’tam, mam, bam, sam’ What is the code for the word ‘exams’ in the given code language?
a.
bank
b.
exams
c.
easy
d.
difficult
e.
None of these | www.careerpower.in | Adda247 App QUANTITATIVE
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Q41 mcq
in 5 different months and the Table DI given below provides the drivers in 5 different months and answer the questions accordingly. 700 650 600 550 500 450 400 350 300 JAN FEB MAR % of female ride Month/ Driver taken by Driver A JAN 40% FEB 30% MAR 55% APR 40% MAY 60% Total number of male rides taken by Driver B in January and march together is approximately what percentage more than the total female rides taken by driver A in April and may together?
a.
40%
b.
36%
c.
45%
d.
30%
e.
50%
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Q42 mcq
in 5 different months and the Table DI given below provides the drivers in 5 different months and answer the questions accordingly. 700 650 600 550 500 450 400 350 300 JAN FEB MAR % of female ride Month/ Driver taken by Driver A JAN 40% FEB 30% MAR 55% APR 40% MAY 60% Find the total number of male rides taken by all the three drivers in March together?
a.
652
b.
724
c.
696
d.
669
e.
628
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Q43 mcq
in 5 different months and the Table DI given below provides the drivers in 5 different months and answer the questions accordingly. 700 650 600 550 500 450 400 350 300 JAN FEB MAR % of female ride Month/ Driver taken by Driver A JAN 40% FEB 30% MAR 55% APR 40% MAY 60% Find the difference between total no. of female ride taken by all the 3 drivers in January to the total no. of male rides taken by all the 3 drivers in march?
a.
327
b.
294
c.
268
d.
214
e.
237
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Q44 mcq
in 5 different months and the Table DI given below provides the drivers in 5 different months and answer the questions accordingly. 700 650 600 550 500 450 400 350 300 JAN FEB MAR % of female ride Month/ Driver taken by Driver A JAN 40% FEB 30% MAR 55% APR 40% MAY 60% Find the respective ratio of total no. of female rides taken by driver A in April and May together to the total no. of male ride taken by Driver B in January and march together? 5 www.bankersadda.com | www.sscadda.com APTITUDE details of total number of rides taken by 3 different drivers details of percentage of total female rides taken by all the A B C APR MAY % of female ride % of female ride taken by Driver taken by Driver B C 25% 30% 40% 44% 50% 40% 45% 30% 48% 60%
a.
14:19
b.
17:23
c.
18:23
d.
19:14
e.
23:17
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Q45 mcq
in 5 different months and the Table DI given below provides the drivers in 5 different months and answer the questions accordingly. 700 650 600 550 500 450 400 350 300 JAN FEB MAR % of female ride Month/ Driver taken by Driver A JAN 40% FEB 30% MAR 55% APR 40% MAY 60% Find the total number of female rides taken by Driver B in all the five months together?
a.
848
b.
956
c.
984
d.
918
e.
884
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Q46 mcq
A basket contains 8 Blue, 5 Red and 6 Green balls. 3 Balls are drawn from the basket, then find the probability of getting all 3 balls drawn are of different colors?
a.
80
b.
883
c.
73 323 969 223
d.
86
e.
67 969 173
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Q47 mcq
Suresh was married 14 yrs ago and his present age is 3 times of the age at the time of his marriage. If his 2 son’s age is 1 rd of his present age, then find the age of 3 his son.
a.
16 yrs
b.
18 yrs
c.
14 yrs
d.
12 yrs
e.
20 yrs | www.careerpower.in | Adda247 App
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Q48 mcq
A Square and an equilateral triangle have the same area. If the perimeter of the square is 88 cm , then find the area of the equilateral triangle is?
a.
441 cm²
b.
400 cm²
c.
484 cm²
d.
324 cm²
e.
576 cm²
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Q49 mcq
A, B and C together can complete a work in 8 days and A alone can complete the same work in 24 days. If A and B started the work and after 2 days C also joined them, then remaining work was completed by A, B and C together in 6 4 days. Find in how many days B alone can complete 5 the whole work?
a.
28 days
b.
36 days
c.
24 days
d.
32 days
e.
30 days
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Q50 mcq
In a mixture of milk and water, the proportion of milk by weight is 60%. If from the 80 gm mixture, 20 gm of mixture is taken out and 6 gm of pure water is added to the mixture then find the ratio of milk and water in the new mixture.
a.
5 : 6
b.
6 : 5
c.
4 : 3
d.
3 : 2
e.
7 : 6
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Q51 mcq
Three persons A, B and C started a business by investing in the ratio of 2 ∶ 1 ∶ 3 . After 5 months, B 3 2 2 4 increases his investment by rd of his initial amount. If after 12 months, the difference 3 of the profit shares of A and C is Rs. 1,350 then find the profit share of B.
a.
Rs. 11,500
b.
Rs. 11,200
c.
Rs. 12,250
d.
Rs. 11,250
e.
Rs. 10,250
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Q52 mcq
quantity of waste (Dry and Wet) picked by a truck on 5 different days. The capacity of the truck from Monday to Wednesday is 180 kg and for rest two days is 150 kg. Difference Quantity Ratio of between dry Day of wet wet to dry and wet waste. waste waste (wet > dry) Monday - 5 : 4 20 kg Tuesday 110 kg - 22 kg Wednesday 99 kg 9 : 7 - Thursday 84 kg 7 : y 24 kg Friday - 12 : 7 40 kg Note:- If the waste produce in a day is greater than the capacity of the truck, then the extra amount of waste will be picked on next day. If on Wednesday the truck picks only 80% of the waste of his capacity, then find the difference between the quantity picked of wet waste and dry waste on the same day? (priority given to wet waste)
a.
64 kg
b.
48 kg
c.
62 kg
d.
54 kg
e.
42 kg
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Q53 mcq
quantity of waste (Dry and Wet) picked by a truck on 5 different days. The capacity of the truck from Monday to Wednesday is 180 kg and for rest two days is 150 kg. Difference Quantity Ratio of between dry Day of wet wet to dry and wet waste. waste waste (wet > dry) Monday - 5 : 4 20 kg Tuesday 110 kg - 22 kg Wednesday 99 kg 9 : 7 - Thursday 84 kg 7 : y 24 kg Friday - 12 : 7 40 kg Note:- If the waste produce in a day is greater than the capacity of the truck, then the extra amount of waste will be picked on next day. What is the value of ‘y’?
a.
4
b.
5
c.
6
d.
3
e.
8 6 www.bankersadda.com | www.sscadda.com
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Q54 mcq
quantity of waste (Dry and Wet) picked by a truck on 5 different days. The capacity of the truck from Monday to Wednesday is 180 kg and for rest two days is 150 kg. Difference Quantity Ratio of between dry Day of wet wet to dry and wet waste. waste waste (wet > dry) Monday - 5 : 4 20 kg Tuesday 110 kg - 22 kg Wednesday 99 kg 9 : 7 - Thursday 84 kg 7 : y 24 kg Friday - 12 : 7 40 kg Note:- If the waste produce in a day is greater than the capacity of the truck, then the extra amount of waste will be picked on next day. Find the ratio of total dry waste produced on Monday, Tuesday and Friday together to wet waste produced on Wednesday and Thursday together?
a.
194 :218
b.
185 : 212
c.
183 : 224
d.
212:185
e.
224 : 183
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Q55 mcq
quantity of waste (Dry and Wet) picked by a truck on 5 different days. The capacity of the truck from Monday to Wednesday is 180 kg and for rest two days is 150 kg. Difference Quantity Ratio of between dry Day of wet wet to dry and wet waste. waste waste (wet > dry) Monday - 5 : 4 20 kg Tuesday 110 kg - 22 kg Wednesday 99 kg 9 : 7 - Thursday 84 kg 7 : y 24 kg Friday - 12 : 7 40 kg Note:- If the waste produce in a day is greater than the capacity of the truck, then the extra amount of waste will be picked on next day. What is the amount of waste left by the end of the Wednesday?
a.
18 kg
b.
16 kg
c.
14 kg
d.
20 kg
e.
12 kg
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Q56 mcq
quantity of waste (Dry and Wet) picked by a truck on 5 different days. The capacity of the truck from Monday to Wednesday is 180 kg and for rest two days is 150 kg. Difference Quantity Ratio of between dry Day of wet wet to dry and wet waste. waste waste (wet > dry) Monday - 5 : 4 20 kg Tuesday 110 kg - 22 kg Wednesday 99 kg 9 : 7 - Thursday 84 kg 7 : y 24 kg Friday - 12 : 7 40 kg Note:- If the waste produce in a day is greater than the capacity of the truck, then the extra amount of waste will be picked on next day. Find the total quantity of dry waste on all the five days together?
a.
381 kg
b.
413 kg
c.
361 kg
d.
337 kg
e.
321 kg
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Q61 mcq
two equations (I) and (II) are given. Solve the equations and mark the correct option: (a) if x>y (b) if x≥y (c) if x<y (d) if x ≤y (e) if x = y or no relation can be established between x and y. I. 2x 2 + 11x + 12 = 0 II. 8y 2 -22y – 21 =0
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Q62 mcq
two equations (I) and (II) are given. Solve the equations and mark the correct option: (a) if x>y (b) if x≥y (c) if x<y (d) if x ≤y (e) if x = y or no relation can be established between x and y. I. x 2 -17x -60=0 II. y 2 + 42y +185 =0
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Q63 mcq
two equations (I) and (II) are given. Solve the equations and mark the correct option: (a) if x>y (b) if x≥y (c) if x<y (d) if x ≤y (e) if x = y or no relation can be established between x and y. I. x 2 + 41x + 420 =0 II. 6y 2 -11y -10 =0
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Q64 mcq
two equations (I) and (II) are given. Solve the equations and mark the correct option: (a) if x>y (b) if x≥y (c) if x<y (d) if x ≤y (e) if x = y or no relation can be established between x and y. I. x 2 - 8x - 273 =0 II. y 2 +6y -432 =0 | www.careerpower.in | Adda247 App
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Q65 mcq
total number of patients visited to different doctors for their problem and the table provides the details of fees of different doctors. Read the instruction carefully and answer the question accordingly. Total Patients = 400 E A 15% 25% D B 28% 10% C 22% Note:- A and B are Junior Doctor C and D are Senior Doctor E is Dean Doctor’s Additional Fees (in Rs) Profile charge on fees Junior Doctor 1000 15% Senior Doctor 1500 20% Dean 2000 25% What is the difference between the total fees received by Doctor C and the total fees received by Doctor D?
a.
Rs 40800
b.
Rs 43200
c.
Rs 38400
d.
Rs 36800
e.
Rs 34200
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Q66 mcq
total number of patients visited to different doctors for their problem and the table provides the details of fees of different doctors. Read the instruction carefully and answer the question accordingly. Total Patients = 400 E A 15% 25% D B 28% 10% C 22% Note:- A and B are Junior Doctor C and D are Senior Doctor E is Dean Doctor’s Additional Fees (in Rs) Profile charge on fees Junior Doctor 1000 15% Senior Doctor 1500 20% Dean 2000 25% Find the respective ratio of total fees received by Doctor A from all its patient to the total fees received by Doctor E from all its patients
a.
27 : 31
b.
30 : 23
c.
23 : 30
d.
31: 27
e.
29 : 31
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Q67 mcq
total number of patients visited to different doctors for their problem and the table provides the details of fees of different doctors. Read the instruction carefully and answer the question accordingly. Total Patients = 400 E A 15% 25% D B 28% 10% C 22% Note:- A and B are Junior Doctor C and D are Senior Doctor E is Dean Doctor’s Additional Fees (in Rs) Profile charge on fees Junior Doctor 1000 15% Senior Doctor 1500 20% Dean 2000 25% Total fees received by junior doctor B is what percentage more/less than the total fees received by Doctor E?
a.
69 1 %
b.
60 2 %
c.
72% 3 3
d.
68 2 %
e.
64% 3
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Q68 mcq
total number of patients visited to different doctors for their problem and the table provides the details of fees of different doctors. Read the instruction carefully and answer the question accordingly. Total Patients = 400 E A 15% 25% D B 28% 10% C 22% Note:- A and B are Junior Doctor C and D are Senior Doctor E is Dean Doctor’s Additional Fees (in Rs) Profile charge on fees Junior Doctor 1000 15% Senior Doctor 1500 20% Dean 2000 25% If the Doctor E’s fees is increased by 15% from the current fees, then find the total fees received by Doctor E when the fees is increased? (in Rs)
a.
1,72,500
b.
1,78,500
c.
2,12,000
d.
1,92,500
e.
2,04,000 7 www.bankersadda.com | www.sscadda.com
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Q69 mcq
total number of patients visited to different doctors for their problem and the table provides the details of fees of different doctors. Read the instruction carefully and answer the question accordingly. Total Patients = 400 E A 15% 25% D B 28% 10% C 22% Note:- A and B are Junior Doctor C and D are Senior Doctor E is Dean Doctor’s Additional Fees (in Rs) Profile charge on fees Junior Doctor 1000 15% Senior Doctor 1500 20% Dean 2000 25% Find the average of total fees received by both Junior Doctors and Senior Doctors together?
a.
Rs 1,28,500
b.
Rs 1,25,800
c.
Rs 1,30,250
d.
Rs 1,22,350
e.
Rs 1,35,600
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Q70 mcq
answer the following questions A train is travelling from station A to E. At station A, 80 person board in the ratio of male to female of 9 : 7. At station B, 15 men got down and 5 women boarded the train. At station C, half of the women got down and the same number of men boarded the train At station D, x number of male got down and now the ratio of male to female in train is 7 : 4 If 50% of male who were travelling from B to C do not have a valid ticket and 60% of the female travelling from B to C do not have a valid ticket, then find the number of passengers who are travelling from B to C with invalid ticket ?
a.
43
b.
39
c.
47
d.
49
e.
51
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Q71 mcq
answer the following questions A train is travelling from station A to E. At station A, 80 person board in the ratio of male to female of 9 : 7. At station B, 15 men got down and 5 women boarded the train. At station C, half of the women got down and the same number of men boarded the train At station D, x number of male got down and now the ratio of male to female in train is 7 : 4 The number of females travelling from station B to C is approximately how much percent more than the number of males travelling from station D to E?
a.
10%
b.
21%
c.
18%
d.
14%
e.
24%
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Q72 mcq
answer the following questions A train is travelling from station A to E. At station A, 80 person board in the ratio of male to female of 9 : 7. At station B, 15 men got down and 5 women boarded the train. At station C, half of the women got down and the same number of men boarded the train At station D, x number of male got down and now the ratio of male to female in train is 7 : 4 Find the difference between the passengers travelling from starting point to destination point?
a.
25
b.
30
c.
34
d.
38
e.
none of these
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Q73 mcq
answer the following questions A train is travelling from station A to E. At station A, 80 person board in the ratio of male to female of 9 : 7. At station B, 15 men got down and 5 women boarded the train. At station C, half of the women got down and the same number of men boarded the train At station D, x number of male got down and now the ratio of male to female in train is 7 : 4 Which of the following is true? (A) The number of females travelling from station A to B is equal to the no. of males travelling from station D to E (B) The total number of passengers travelling from Station C to D is 45% of the no. of males who boarded from the starting point (C) The difference between the no. of male and female travelling from station D to E is half of the difference between the no. of males and females travelling from station C to D
a.
Only A
b.
Only C
c.
Only A & C
d.
Only B & C
e.
All A, B and C
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Q74 mcq
answer the following questions A train is travelling from station A to E. At station A, 80 person board in the ratio of male to female of 9 : 7. At station B, 15 men got down and 5 women boarded the train. At station C, half of the women got down and the same number of men boarded the train At station D, x number of male got down and now the ratio of male to female in train is 7 : 4 Find the ratio of total no. of passengers travelling from station D to E and B to C?
a.
17 : 13
b.
11 : 14
c.
13 : 17
d.
14 : 11
e.
17 : 19
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Q75 mcq
Total distance between A and B is 792 km and Car P starts from station A at 8 a.m with speed 64 km/hr towards B and Car Q starts from station B at 11 a.m with speed 86 km/hr towards A. Find the distance from station B when both cars will meet each other ?
a.
430 km
b.
258 km
c.
344 km
d.
312 km
e.
384 km | www.careerpower.in | Adda247 App
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Q76 mcq
A, B and C invested Rs 5500, Rs 4500 and Rs 6000 for three years in a partnership. After 1 year, A decreased his investment by Rs 1000, B increased his investment by Rs.500 and C’s investment remains the same for the whole period of time. If the total profit at the end of 3 years is Rs 9400, then find the profit share of C?
a.
Rs 4200
b.
Rs 3600
c.
Rs 3800
d.
Rs 4000
e.
Rs 3000
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Q77 mcq
followed by two quantities I, and II. You have to determine the value of the quantities using the information provided and compare the quantities to answer as per the instruction set provided below. (a) Quantity I>Quantity II (b) Quantity I≥Quantity II (c) Quantity I<Quantity II (d) Quantity I≤Quantity II (e) Quantity I=Quantity II or no relation Quantity I: By selling 15 apples, a seller gains the selling price of 2 apples. Calculate his gain percentage. Quantity II: 25% profit is gained when an article is sold for 625 rupees. Calculate the loss % when the same article is sold for 435 rupees. ENGLISH LANGUAGE
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Q78 mcq
followed by two quantities I, and II. You have to determine the value of the quantities using the information provided and compare the quantities to answer as per the instruction set provided below. (a) Quantity I>Quantity II (b) Quantity I≥Quantity II (c) Quantity I<Quantity II (d) Quantity I≤Quantity II (e) Quantity I=Quantity II or no relation A train travelling at 54 kmph crosses a platform in 25 seconds and a man standing on the same platform in 12 seconds Quantity I: Length of the train. Quantity II: Length of the platform.
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Q79 mcq
followed by two quantities I, and II. You have to determine the value of the quantities using the information provided and compare the quantities to answer as per the instruction set provided below. (a) Quantity I>Quantity II (b) Quantity I≥Quantity II (c) Quantity I<Quantity II (d) Quantity I≤Quantity II (e) Quantity I=Quantity II or no relation P works twice as fast as Q, whereas P and Q together can work 3 times as fast as R. P,Q and R together can do the same work in 15 days 2 Quantity I: Time taken by P and Q together to complete the work. Quantity II: Time taken by Q and R together to complete the work.
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Q80 mcq
followed by two quantities I, and II. You have to determine the value of the quantities using the information provided and compare the quantities to answer as per the instruction set provided below. (a) Quantity I>Quantity II (b) Quantity I≥Quantity II (c) Quantity I<Quantity II (d) Quantity I≤Quantity II (e) Quantity I=Quantity II or no relation The age of Manan is 50% more than that the age of Shikhar. The age of Rohit is 20% less than the age of Manan. The age of Krunal is 10% less than the age of Rohit. Quantity I: By what percent the age of Rohit is more than the age of Shikhar. Quantity II: By what percent the age of Krunal is more than the age of Shikhar. (I) apathetic (II) benevolent (III) passive (IV) indifferent
a.
Only (III)
b.
Only (I), (III) and (IV)
c.
Both (I) and (III)
d.
Both (I) and (II)
e.
All (I), (II), (III), (IV)
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Q81 mcq
a sentence is given with one blank. Below each sentence, FOUR words are given. Five options are provided with various combinations of these words. You have to choose the combination with the correct set of words which can coherently fit into the given sentence. When Margot lost all her money gambling, her family was forced to live in _____________. (I) penury (II) mansion (III) grandeur (IV) poverty
a.
Only (I)
b.
Only (I), (III) and (IV)
c.
Both (I) and (IV)
d.
Both (II) and (III)
e.
All (I), (II), (III), (IV)
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Q82 mcq
a sentence is given with one blank. Below each sentence, FOUR words are given. Five options are provided with various combinations of these words. You have to choose the combination with the correct set of words which can coherently fit into the given sentence. Scared of heights all her life, nothing would ___________ Ruth's fear of flying. (I) alleviate (II) reduce (III) aggravate (IV) understand
a.
Only (III)
b.
Only (I), (III) and (IV)
c.
Both (I) and (III)
d.
Both (I) and (II)
e.
All (I), (II), (III), (IV)
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Q83 mcq
a sentence is given with one blank. Below each sentence, FOUR words are given. Five options are provided with various combinations of these words. You have to choose the combination with the correct set of words which can coherently fit into the given sentence. Sometimes it seems as though we live in a/an _____________ world filled with uncaring people. 8 www.bankersadda.com | www.sscadda.com
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Q84 mcq
a sentence is given with one blank. Below each sentence, FOUR words are given. Five options are provided with various combinations of these words. You have to choose the combination with the correct set of words which can coherently fit into the given sentence. Taking the yoga class has helped me release my stress so I can become more ____________________. (I) abundant (II) pernicious (III) placid (IV) injurious
a.
Only (III)
b.
Only (I), (III) and (IV)
c.
Both (I) and (III)
d.
Both (I) and (II)
e.
All (I), (II), (III), (IV)
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Q85 mcq
a sentence is given with one blank. Below each sentence, FOUR words are given. Five options are provided with various combinations of these words. You have to choose the combination with the correct set of words which can coherently fit into the given sentence. The committee met for several hours, but ____________________ nothing because they argued the whole time. (I) achieved (II) accomplished (III) gained (IV) attained
a.
Only (III)
b.
Only (I), (III) and (IV)
c.
Both (I) and (III)
d.
Both (I) and (II)
e.
All (I), (II), (III), (IV) | www.careerpower.in | Adda247 App
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Q86 mcq
columns are given containing three sentences/phrases each. In first column, sentences/phrases are A, B and C and in the second column the sentences/phrases are D, E and F. A sentence/phrase from the first column may or may not connect with another sentence/phrase from the second column to make a grammatically and contextually correct sentence. Each question has five options, four of which display the sequence(s) in which the sentences/phrases can be joined to form a grammatically and contextually correct sentence. If none of the options given forms a correct sentence after combination, mark (e), i.e. “None of these” as your answer. Column (1) (A) The company along with its (B) Including ongoing initiatives (C) IL&FS has appointed Column (2) (D) Aligned with the broader objective (E) Advisers to prepare a resolution plan (F) Subsidiaries is facing a liquidity crisis
a.
C-E and B-F
b.
and
c.
C-E
d.
Both
e.
None of these
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Q87 mcq
columns are given containing three sentences/phrases each. In first column, sentences/phrases are A, B and C and in the second column the sentences/phrases are D, E and F. A sentence/phrase from the first column may or may not connect with another sentence/phrase from the second column to make a grammatically and contextually correct sentence. Each question has five options, four of which display the sequence(s) in which the sentences/phrases can be joined to form a grammatically and contextually correct sentence. If none of the options given forms a correct sentence after combination, mark (e), i.e. “None of these” as your answer. Column (1) (A) The increase in MSP for rabi crops comes (B) There are notified crops (C) For big companies, there are instances Column (2) (D) The government said in a release. (E) Just ahead of the RBI monetary policy announcement. (F) Of even the infrastructure getting damaged.
a.
and
b.
C-E and B-F
c.
A-E
d.
Both
e.
None of these
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Q88 mcq
columns are given containing three sentences/phrases each. In first column, sentences/phrases are A, B and C and in the second column the sentences/phrases are D, E and F. A sentence/phrase from the first column may or may not connect with another sentence/phrase from the second column to make a grammatically and contextually correct sentence. Each question has five options, four of which display the sequence(s) in which the sentences/phrases can be joined to form a grammatically and contextually correct sentence. If none of the options given forms a correct sentence after combination, mark (e), i.e. “None of these” as your answer. Column (1) (A) India will be the third largest aviation (B) The biggest contribution in (C) Firstly, we are seeing an Column (2) (D) market globally a year sooner. (E) as the world’s largest aviation (F) restrictive protectionist measures
a.
C-F
b.
B-F
c.
A-D
d.
C-E
e.
None of these
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Q89 mcq
columns are given containing three sentences/phrases each. In first column, sentences/phrases are A, B and C and in the second column the sentences/phrases are D, E and F. A sentence/phrase from the first column may or may not connect with another sentence/phrase from the second column to make a grammatically and contextually correct sentence. Each question has five options, four of which display the sequence(s) in which the sentences/phrases can be joined to form a grammatically and contextually correct sentence. If none of the options given forms a correct sentence after combination, mark (e), i.e. “None of these” as your answer. Column (1) (A) Also, the broader NSE Nifty (B) All the sectoral indices closed in the red (C) Maruti Suzuki, India’s largest carmaker 9 www.bankersadda.com | www.sscadda.com Column (2) (D) in their late morning deals . (E) Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs) sold shares . (F) with 22 of the 30 Sensex stocks finishing lower.
a.
C-F
b.
B-F
c.
A-D
d.
C-E
e.
None of these
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Q90 mcq
columns are given containing three sentences/phrases each. In first column, sentences/phrases are A, B and C and in the second column the sentences/phrases are D, E and F. A sentence/phrase from the first column may or may not connect with another sentence/phrase from the second column to make a grammatically and contextually correct sentence. Each question has five options, four of which display the sequence(s) in which the sentences/phrases can be joined to form a grammatically and contextually correct sentence. If none of the options given forms a correct sentence after combination, mark (e), i.e. “None of these” as your answer. Column (1) (A) A writer needs (B) the garden itself being (C) All this is fine Column (2) (D) houseboat on the silent river (E) somehow find the necessary bubble (F) quiet and peaceful environment around him in order to write.
a.
C-F
b.
B-F
c.
A-F
d.
C-E
e.
None of these
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Q91 mcq
and answer the questions given below them. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions. Indian roads are usually characterized by poor infrastructure and congestion which affect travel time and road safety. This is a big hindrance in economic development and leads to inefficiency in the transportation of goods and services across the country. To address this, the government has embarked upon a massive overhaul of the country’s road network through Bharatmala Pariyojana—an umbrella highway development programme involving 34,800 km of road network at an investment of Rs5.35 trillion, to be completed by 2022. The programme focuses on optimizing the efficiency of road traffic movement across the country by bridging critical infrastructure gaps through shorter routes. The end goal is to create economic corridors (ECs) along the path—new industries, more employment and new markets. The programme, however, will have a negative bearing on the existing road network because it will compete directly with some of the existing build-operate-transfer (BOT) toll road projects. Out of the 44 ECs, about 21 would partially or fully affect the existing alignments, while the remaining 23 that involve upgradation of existing alignment will not result in any deviation. Among the 21 corridors affected, eight have a totally different route (which is shorter) while the remaining 13 have some deviations from the existing alignment. Overall, there are 24 BOT projects and one operate-maintain-transfer (OMT) project whose traffic could be affected by the proposed ECs. The Bharatmala programme may result in traffic diversion from the existing road network to new roads, thereby affecting the toll collection and, consequently, the debt servicing ability of some of the BOT and OMT projects. This has raised the risk of default on 25 national highway toll projects which | www.careerpower.in | Adda247 App involve Rs19,435 crore of debt. The risk of such loan defaults will add to banks’ and financial lenders’ stressed assets and non-performing assets. In terms of risk, 12% of the projects have a high risk of leakage in traffic, if a completely alternative route is available, 16% of the projects have moderate risks, and 72%, low risks. To arrive at the debt at risk, the debt outstanding for each of these special purpose vehicles (SPVs), their repayment tenure, concession end date, credit profile of the SPV and its sponsor credit risk profile, are considered. Out of the total debt at risk for the 25 affected projects about Rs6,536 crore, which accounts for about 34% of the total debt at risk, is high-risk. Projects with debt at a moderate risk have an aggregate debt of Rs3,483 crore, while about Rs9,416 crore of debt is considered to be low-risk. To ensure that the existing BOT projects that are at risk of default did not turn bad for the financial institutions, swift and adequate measures are needed. The Kelkar committee had observed that since infrastructure projects span over 20-30 years, a private developer may lose bargaining power owing to abrupt changes in the economic or policy environment. It has thus recommended that the private sector must be protected against such loss. This could be ensured by allowing renegotiation of the terms of the concession agreement. Financial institutions are already reluctant to finance the infrastructure sector, given the rise in non-performing assets (NPAs). Add to this the probable difficulties that would arise in the case of 25 BOT projects, which would put additional stress on the road infrastructure exposure. The need of the hour is to realign the terms and conditions of the model concession agreement to ensure that banks do not end up accumulating NPAs. Having an appropriate remedial mechanism for BOT operators will help retain interest for investments in new projects; for the lenders, it will help curtail the number of stressed assets from the risk of default. According to the passage, Bharatmala Project aims to (I) impact industrial development positively (II) create employment and develop new markets (III) improve the political status of the country.
a.
Only (I)
b.
Only (II) and (III)
c.
Only (III)
d.
Only (I) and (II)
e.
All are correct
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Q92 mcq
and answer the questions given below them. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions. Indian roads are usually characterized by poor infrastructure and congestion which affect travel time and road safety. This is a big hindrance in economic development and leads to inefficiency in the transportation of goods and services across the country. To address this, the government has embarked upon a massive overhaul of the country’s road network through Bharatmala Pariyojana—an umbrella highway development programme involving 34,800 km of road network at an investment of Rs5.35 trillion, to be completed by 2022. The programme focuses on optimizing the efficiency of road traffic movement across the country by bridging critical infrastructure gaps through shorter routes. The end goal is to create economic corridors (ECs) along the path—new industries, more employment and new markets. The programme, however, will have a negative bearing on the existing road network because it will compete directly with some of the existing build-operate-transfer (BOT) toll road projects. Out of the 44 ECs, about 21 would partially or fully affect the existing alignments, while the remaining 23 that involve upgradation of existing alignment will not result in any deviation. Among the 21 corridors affected, eight have a totally different route (which is shorter) while the remaining 13 have some deviations from the existing alignment. Overall, there are 24 BOT projects and one operate-maintain-transfer (OMT) project whose traffic could be affected by the proposed ECs. The Bharatmala programme may result in traffic diversion from the existing road network to new roads, thereby affecting the toll collection and, consequently, the debt servicing ability of some of the BOT and OMT projects. This has raised the risk of default on 25 national highway toll projects which | www.careerpower.in | Adda247 App involve Rs19,435 crore of debt. The risk of such loan defaults will add to banks’ and financial lenders’ stressed assets and non-performing assets. In terms of risk, 12% of the projects have a high risk of leakage in traffic, if a completely alternative route is available, 16% of the projects have moderate risks, and 72%, low risks. To arrive at the debt at risk, the debt outstanding for each of these special purpose vehicles (SPVs), their repayment tenure, concession end date, credit profile of the SPV and its sponsor credit risk profile, are considered. Out of the total debt at risk for the 25 affected projects about Rs6,536 crore, which accounts for about 34% of the total debt at risk, is high-risk. Projects with debt at a moderate risk have an aggregate debt of Rs3,483 crore, while about Rs9,416 crore of debt is considered to be low-risk. To ensure that the existing BOT projects that are at risk of default did not turn bad for the financial institutions, swift and adequate measures are needed. The Kelkar committee had observed that since infrastructure projects span over 20-30 years, a private developer may lose bargaining power owing to abrupt changes in the economic or policy environment. It has thus recommended that the private sector must be protected against such loss. This could be ensured by allowing renegotiation of the terms of the concession agreement. Financial institutions are already reluctant to finance the infrastructure sector, given the rise in non-performing assets (NPAs). Add to this the probable difficulties that would arise in the case of 25 BOT projects, which would put additional stress on the road infrastructure exposure. The need of the hour is to realign the terms and conditions of the model concession agreement to ensure that banks do not end up accumulating NPAs. Having an appropriate remedial mechanism for BOT operators will help retain interest for investments in new projects; for the lenders, it will help curtail the number of stressed assets from the risk of default. According to the passage, what worries BOT operators?
a.
and
b.
Disruptions in integrated Infrastructure network.
c.
Inability to maintain the overall structure of highway network in India.
d.
Both
e.
All are correct 10 www.bankersadda.com | www.sscadda.com
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Q93 mcq
and answer the questions given below them. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions. Indian roads are usually characterized by poor infrastructure and congestion which affect travel time and road safety. This is a big hindrance in economic development and leads to inefficiency in the transportation of goods and services across the country. To address this, the government has embarked upon a massive overhaul of the country’s road network through Bharatmala Pariyojana—an umbrella highway development programme involving 34,800 km of road network at an investment of Rs5.35 trillion, to be completed by 2022. The programme focuses on optimizing the efficiency of road traffic movement across the country by bridging critical infrastructure gaps through shorter routes. The end goal is to create economic corridors (ECs) along the path—new industries, more employment and new markets. The programme, however, will have a negative bearing on the existing road network because it will compete directly with some of the existing build-operate-transfer (BOT) toll road projects. Out of the 44 ECs, about 21 would partially or fully affect the existing alignments, while the remaining 23 that involve upgradation of existing alignment will not result in any deviation. Among the 21 corridors affected, eight have a totally different route (which is shorter) while the remaining 13 have some deviations from the existing alignment. Overall, there are 24 BOT projects and one operate-maintain-transfer (OMT) project whose traffic could be affected by the proposed ECs. The Bharatmala programme may result in traffic diversion from the existing road network to new roads, thereby affecting the toll collection and, consequently, the debt servicing ability of some of the BOT and OMT projects. This has raised the risk of default on 25 national highway toll projects which | www.careerpower.in | Adda247 App involve Rs19,435 crore of debt. The risk of such loan defaults will add to banks’ and financial lenders’ stressed assets and non-performing assets. In terms of risk, 12% of the projects have a high risk of leakage in traffic, if a completely alternative route is available, 16% of the projects have moderate risks, and 72%, low risks. To arrive at the debt at risk, the debt outstanding for each of these special purpose vehicles (SPVs), their repayment tenure, concession end date, credit profile of the SPV and its sponsor credit risk profile, are considered. Out of the total debt at risk for the 25 affected projects about Rs6,536 crore, which accounts for about 34% of the total debt at risk, is high-risk. Projects with debt at a moderate risk have an aggregate debt of Rs3,483 crore, while about Rs9,416 crore of debt is considered to be low-risk. To ensure that the existing BOT projects that are at risk of default did not turn bad for the financial institutions, swift and adequate measures are needed. The Kelkar committee had observed that since infrastructure projects span over 20-30 years, a private developer may lose bargaining power owing to abrupt changes in the economic or policy environment. It has thus recommended that the private sector must be protected against such loss. This could be ensured by allowing renegotiation of the terms of the concession agreement. Financial institutions are already reluctant to finance the infrastructure sector, given the rise in non-performing assets (NPAs). Add to this the probable difficulties that would arise in the case of 25 BOT projects, which would put additional stress on the road infrastructure exposure. The need of the hour is to realign the terms and conditions of the model concession agreement to ensure that banks do not end up accumulating NPAs. Having an appropriate remedial mechanism for BOT operators will help retain interest for investments in new projects; for the lenders, it will help curtail the number of stressed assets from the risk of default. The total debt at risk is
a.
Rs10,456 crore
b.
Rs3,483 crore
c.
Rs19,435 crore
d.
Rs9,416 crore
e.
Rs18,544 crore
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Q94 mcq
and answer the questions given below them. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions. Indian roads are usually characterized by poor infrastructure and congestion which affect travel time and road safety. This is a big hindrance in economic development and leads to inefficiency in the transportation of goods and services across the country. To address this, the government has embarked upon a massive overhaul of the country’s road network through Bharatmala Pariyojana—an umbrella highway development programme involving 34,800 km of road network at an investment of Rs5.35 trillion, to be completed by 2022. The programme focuses on optimizing the efficiency of road traffic movement across the country by bridging critical infrastructure gaps through shorter routes. The end goal is to create economic corridors (ECs) along the path—new industries, more employment and new markets. The programme, however, will have a negative bearing on the existing road network because it will compete directly with some of the existing build-operate-transfer (BOT) toll road projects. Out of the 44 ECs, about 21 would partially or fully affect the existing alignments, while the remaining 23 that involve upgradation of existing alignment will not result in any deviation. Among the 21 corridors affected, eight have a totally different route (which is shorter) while the remaining 13 have some deviations from the existing alignment. Overall, there are 24 BOT projects and one operate-maintain-transfer (OMT) project whose traffic could be affected by the proposed ECs. The Bharatmala programme may result in traffic diversion from the existing road network to new roads, thereby affecting the toll collection and, consequently, the debt servicing ability of some of the BOT and OMT projects. This has raised the risk of default on 25 national highway toll projects which | www.careerpower.in | Adda247 App involve Rs19,435 crore of debt. The risk of such loan defaults will add to banks’ and financial lenders’ stressed assets and non-performing assets. In terms of risk, 12% of the projects have a high risk of leakage in traffic, if a completely alternative route is available, 16% of the projects have moderate risks, and 72%, low risks. To arrive at the debt at risk, the debt outstanding for each of these special purpose vehicles (SPVs), their repayment tenure, concession end date, credit profile of the SPV and its sponsor credit risk profile, are considered. Out of the total debt at risk for the 25 affected projects about Rs6,536 crore, which accounts for about 34% of the total debt at risk, is high-risk. Projects with debt at a moderate risk have an aggregate debt of Rs3,483 crore, while about Rs9,416 crore of debt is considered to be low-risk. To ensure that the existing BOT projects that are at risk of default did not turn bad for the financial institutions, swift and adequate measures are needed. The Kelkar committee had observed that since infrastructure projects span over 20-30 years, a private developer may lose bargaining power owing to abrupt changes in the economic or policy environment. It has thus recommended that the private sector must be protected against such loss. This could be ensured by allowing renegotiation of the terms of the concession agreement. Financial institutions are already reluctant to finance the infrastructure sector, given the rise in non-performing assets (NPAs). Add to this the probable difficulties that would arise in the case of 25 BOT projects, which would put additional stress on the road infrastructure exposure. The need of the hour is to realign the terms and conditions of the model concession agreement to ensure that banks do not end up accumulating NPAs. Having an appropriate remedial mechanism for BOT operators will help retain interest for investments in new projects; for the lenders, it will help curtail the number of stressed assets from the risk of default. The appropriate title of the passage is
a.
Renegotiating the concession agreement.
b.
Bharatmala and the rising debt issues
c.
Creating economic corridors
d.
the rising issue of stressed assets
e.
The Kelkar Committee
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Q95 mcq
and answer the questions given below them. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions. Indian roads are usually characterized by poor infrastructure and congestion which affect travel time and road safety. This is a big hindrance in economic development and leads to inefficiency in the transportation of goods and services across the country. To address this, the government has embarked upon a massive overhaul of the country’s road network through Bharatmala Pariyojana—an umbrella highway development programme involving 34,800 km of road network at an investment of Rs5.35 trillion, to be completed by 2022. The programme focuses on optimizing the efficiency of road traffic movement across the country by bridging critical infrastructure gaps through shorter routes. The end goal is to create economic corridors (ECs) along the path—new industries, more employment and new markets. The programme, however, will have a negative bearing on the existing road network because it will compete directly with some of the existing build-operate-transfer (BOT) toll road projects. Out of the 44 ECs, about 21 would partially or fully affect the existing alignments, while the remaining 23 that involve upgradation of existing alignment will not result in any deviation. Among the 21 corridors affected, eight have a totally different route (which is shorter) while the remaining 13 have some deviations from the existing alignment. Overall, there are 24 BOT projects and one operate-maintain-transfer (OMT) project whose traffic could be affected by the proposed ECs. The Bharatmala programme may result in traffic diversion from the existing road network to new roads, thereby affecting the toll collection and, consequently, the debt servicing ability of some of the BOT and OMT projects. This has raised the risk of default on 25 national highway toll projects which | www.careerpower.in | Adda247 App involve Rs19,435 crore of debt. The risk of such loan defaults will add to banks’ and financial lenders’ stressed assets and non-performing assets. In terms of risk, 12% of the projects have a high risk of leakage in traffic, if a completely alternative route is available, 16% of the projects have moderate risks, and 72%, low risks. To arrive at the debt at risk, the debt outstanding for each of these special purpose vehicles (SPVs), their repayment tenure, concession end date, credit profile of the SPV and its sponsor credit risk profile, are considered. Out of the total debt at risk for the 25 affected projects about Rs6,536 crore, which accounts for about 34% of the total debt at risk, is high-risk. Projects with debt at a moderate risk have an aggregate debt of Rs3,483 crore, while about Rs9,416 crore of debt is considered to be low-risk. To ensure that the existing BOT projects that are at risk of default did not turn bad for the financial institutions, swift and adequate measures are needed. The Kelkar committee had observed that since infrastructure projects span over 20-30 years, a private developer may lose bargaining power owing to abrupt changes in the economic or policy environment. It has thus recommended that the private sector must be protected against such loss. This could be ensured by allowing renegotiation of the terms of the concession agreement. Financial institutions are already reluctant to finance the infrastructure sector, given the rise in non-performing assets (NPAs). Add to this the probable difficulties that would arise in the case of 25 BOT projects, which would put additional stress on the road infrastructure exposure. The need of the hour is to realign the terms and conditions of the model concession agreement to ensure that banks do not end up accumulating NPAs. Having an appropriate remedial mechanism for BOT operators will help retain interest for investments in new projects; for the lenders, it will help curtail the number of stressed assets from the risk of default. Remedial measure(s) available to BOT operators is/are (I) provide them the necessary resources for accomplishment of the project. (II) realigning the terms and conditions of the model concession agreement to ensure that banks do not end up accumulating NPAs. (III) Allowing renegotiation of the terms of concession agreement to private sector.
a.
Only (I)
b.
Both (II) and (III)
c.
Only (III)
d.
Both (I) and (II)
e.
All are correct
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Q96 mcq
and answer the questions given below them. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions. Indian roads are usually characterized by poor infrastructure and congestion which affect travel time and road safety. This is a big hindrance in economic development and leads to inefficiency in the transportation of goods and services across the country. To address this, the government has embarked upon a massive overhaul of the country’s road network through Bharatmala Pariyojana—an umbrella highway development programme involving 34,800 km of road network at an investment of Rs5.35 trillion, to be completed by 2022. The programme focuses on optimizing the efficiency of road traffic movement across the country by bridging critical infrastructure gaps through shorter routes. The end goal is to create economic corridors (ECs) along the path—new industries, more employment and new markets. The programme, however, will have a negative bearing on the existing road network because it will compete directly with some of the existing build-operate-transfer (BOT) toll road projects. Out of the 44 ECs, about 21 would partially or fully affect the existing alignments, while the remaining 23 that involve upgradation of existing alignment will not result in any deviation. Among the 21 corridors affected, eight have a totally different route (which is shorter) while the remaining 13 have some deviations from the existing alignment. Overall, there are 24 BOT projects and one operate-maintain-transfer (OMT) project whose traffic could be affected by the proposed ECs. The Bharatmala programme may result in traffic diversion from the existing road network to new roads, thereby affecting the toll collection and, consequently, the debt servicing ability of some of the BOT and OMT projects. This has raised the risk of default on 25 national highway toll projects which | www.careerpower.in | Adda247 App involve Rs19,435 crore of debt. The risk of such loan defaults will add to banks’ and financial lenders’ stressed assets and non-performing assets. In terms of risk, 12% of the projects have a high risk of leakage in traffic, if a completely alternative route is available, 16% of the projects have moderate risks, and 72%, low risks. To arrive at the debt at risk, the debt outstanding for each of these special purpose vehicles (SPVs), their repayment tenure, concession end date, credit profile of the SPV and its sponsor credit risk profile, are considered. Out of the total debt at risk for the 25 affected projects about Rs6,536 crore, which accounts for about 34% of the total debt at risk, is high-risk. Projects with debt at a moderate risk have an aggregate debt of Rs3,483 crore, while about Rs9,416 crore of debt is considered to be low-risk. To ensure that the existing BOT projects that are at risk of default did not turn bad for the financial institutions, swift and adequate measures are needed. The Kelkar committee had observed that since infrastructure projects span over 20-30 years, a private developer may lose bargaining power owing to abrupt changes in the economic or policy environment. It has thus recommended that the private sector must be protected against such loss. This could be ensured by allowing renegotiation of the terms of the concession agreement. Financial institutions are already reluctant to finance the infrastructure sector, given the rise in non-performing assets (NPAs). Add to this the probable difficulties that would arise in the case of 25 BOT projects, which would put additional stress on the road infrastructure exposure. The need of the hour is to realign the terms and conditions of the model concession agreement to ensure that banks do not end up accumulating NPAs. Having an appropriate remedial mechanism for BOT operators will help retain interest for investments in new projects; for the lenders, it will help curtail the number of stressed assets from the risk of default. A phrase “did not turn” is given in the passage is highlighted which may or may not contain grammatical error. There are five alternatives given below, one of which may replace the existing highlighted part to make the sentence grammatically correct and contextually meaningful. Choose the most appropriate alternative as your answer. If the phrase is grammatically correct, as given, and doesn’t require any correction, choose option
a.
does not turn
b.
will not turn
c.
do not turn
d.
could not turn
e.
No correction required
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Q97 mcq
among the five options provides the MOST SIMILAR meaning(s) of the word given in BOLD as used in the passage? Curtail (I) reduce (II) curb (III) retrench (IV) trunk
a.
Only (III)
b.
Only (II) and (IV)
c.
Only (I), (II) and (III)
d.
Only (II), (III) and (IV)
e.
All are correct | www.careerpower.in | Adda247 App
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Q98 mcq
among the five options provides the MOST SIMILAR meaning(s) of the word given in BOLD as used in the passage? Embarked (I) commence (II) initiate (III) rot (IV) undertake
a.
Only (III)
b.
Only (II) and (IV)
c.
Only (I), (III) and (IV)
d.
Only (I), (II) and (IV)
e.
All are correct
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Q99 mcq
among the five options provides the MOST OPPOSITE meaning(s) of the word given in BOLD as used in the passage? Hindrance (I) contrite (II) impetus (III) plausible (IV) Check
a.
Only (II)
b.
Only (II) and (IV)
c.
Only (I), (II) and (III)
d.
Only (II), (III) and (IV)
e.
All are correct
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Q100 mcq
among the five options provides the MOST OPPOSITE meaning(s) of the word given in BOLD as used in the passage? Reluctant (I) vaunt (II) willing (III) splendid (IV) eager
a.
Only (III)
b.
Only (II) and (IV)
c.
Only (I), (II) and (III)
d.
Only (II), (III) and (IV)
e.
All are correct
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Q101 mcq
whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is ‘No error’, the answer is (e). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.) Why we do not
a.
/ meet to discuss
b.
/ this matter in detail
c.
/ on next Friday?
d.
/ No error.
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Q102 mcq
whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is ‘No error’, the answer is (e). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.) Had the opportunity
a.
/ been given to him
b.
/ he will have
c.
/ proved successful
d.
. / No Error.
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Q103 mcq
whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is ‘No error’, the answer is (e). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.) Jamuna takes delight
a.
/with music and
b.
/hopes to become
c.
/a successful musician.
d.
/No error.
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Q104 mcq
whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is ‘No error’, the answer is (e). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.) In spite of toiling
a.
/ very hardly he
b.
/ realized that he had
c.
/ not earned anything substantial.
d.
/ No error.
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Q105 mcq
whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is ‘No error’, the answer is (e). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.) You should inform
a.
/ your superiors about
b.
/ all those events which are
c.
/ directly related to your work.
d.
/ No error.
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Q106 mcq
after rearranging the following sentences into a coherent paragraph and identify the sentence that doesn’t fit into the context of the paragraph. Statement (A) is the first sentence of the paragraph after the rearrangement. (A) Former RBI Governor Raghuram Rajan’s note of caution on the next financial crisis that could be building up needs to be taken in all seriousness. 11 www.bankersadda.com | www.sscadda.com (B) Clearly, bankers were overconfident and probably did too little due diligence for some of these loans. (C) The disbursement under Mudra loans alone is Rs.6.37 lakh crore, which is over 7% of the total outstanding bank credit. (D) It is debatable whether banks have the resources and manpower to do this when they are chasing the bigger borrowers for business and, increasingly these days, recoveries. (E) In his note to Parliament’s Estimates Committee on bank non-performing assets (NPAs), Mr. Rajan has flagged three major sources of potential trouble. (F) These loans have been sanctioned under the Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana, which aims to ‘fund the unfunded’, and is a signature scheme of the NDA government. (G) They are Mudra credit, which is basically small-ticket loans granted to micro and small enterprises; lending to farmers through Kisan Credit Cards; and contingent liabilities under the Credit Guarantee Scheme for MSMEs, run by the Small Industries Development Bank of India. (H) Given that these are small loans up to Rs.10 lakh each, with the borrowers mostly from the informal sector, banks have to monitor them very closely. Considering statement (A) “Former RBI Governor Raghuram Rajan’s note of caution on the next financial crisis that could be building up needs to be taken in all seriousness.” as the first sentence of the rearranged paragraph, then which among the following fails to become the part of the coherent paragraph?
a.
C
b.
F
c.
B
d.
H
e.
G
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Q107 mcq
after rearranging the following sentences into a coherent paragraph and identify the sentence that doesn’t fit into the context of the paragraph. Statement (A) is the first sentence of the paragraph after the rearrangement. (A) Former RBI Governor Raghuram Rajan’s note of caution on the next financial crisis that could be building up needs to be taken in all seriousness. 11 www.bankersadda.com | www.sscadda.com (B) Clearly, bankers were overconfident and probably did too little due diligence for some of these loans. (C) The disbursement under Mudra loans alone is Rs.6.37 lakh crore, which is over 7% of the total outstanding bank credit. (D) It is debatable whether banks have the resources and manpower to do this when they are chasing the bigger borrowers for business and, increasingly these days, recoveries. (E) In his note to Parliament’s Estimates Committee on bank non-performing assets (NPAs), Mr. Rajan has flagged three major sources of potential trouble. (F) These loans have been sanctioned under the Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana, which aims to ‘fund the unfunded’, and is a signature scheme of the NDA government. (G) They are Mudra credit, which is basically small-ticket loans granted to micro and small enterprises; lending to farmers through Kisan Credit Cards; and contingent liabilities under the Credit Guarantee Scheme for MSMEs, run by the Small Industries Development Bank of India. (H) Given that these are small loans up to Rs.10 lakh each, with the borrowers mostly from the informal sector, banks have to monitor them very closely. Considering statement (A) “Former RBI Governor Raghuram Rajan’s note of caution on the next financial crisis that could be building up needs to be taken in all seriousness.” as the first sentence of the rearranged paragraph, then which one among the following can consecutively follow the last statement after the rearrangement (excluding the incoherent one)?
a.
Not only could they play one lender off against another by threatening to divert payments to the favored bank, they could also refuse to pay unless the lender brought in more money, especially if the lender feared the loan becoming an NPA.
b.
The risk is that these small-ticket loans will drop under the radar and build into a large credit issue in course of time. The same logic holds true for crop loans made through Kisan Credit Cards.
c.
Yet, unless we can determine the unaccounted wealth of bankers, I hesitate to say a significant element was corruption.
d.
Frauds are different from normal NPAs in that the loss is because of a patently illegal action, by either the borrower or the banker.
e.
None of these | www.careerpower.in | Adda247 App
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Q108 mcq
after rearranging the following sentences into a coherent paragraph and identify the sentence that doesn’t fit into the context of the paragraph. Statement (A) is the first sentence of the paragraph after the rearrangement. (A) Former RBI Governor Raghuram Rajan’s note of caution on the next financial crisis that could be building up needs to be taken in all seriousness. 11 www.bankersadda.com | www.sscadda.com (B) Clearly, bankers were overconfident and probably did too little due diligence for some of these loans. (C) The disbursement under Mudra loans alone is Rs.6.37 lakh crore, which is over 7% of the total outstanding bank credit. (D) It is debatable whether banks have the resources and manpower to do this when they are chasing the bigger borrowers for business and, increasingly these days, recoveries. (E) In his note to Parliament’s Estimates Committee on bank non-performing assets (NPAs), Mr. Rajan has flagged three major sources of potential trouble. (F) These loans have been sanctioned under the Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana, which aims to ‘fund the unfunded’, and is a signature scheme of the NDA government. (G) They are Mudra credit, which is basically small-ticket loans granted to micro and small enterprises; lending to farmers through Kisan Credit Cards; and contingent liabilities under the Credit Guarantee Scheme for MSMEs, run by the Small Industries Development Bank of India. (H) Given that these are small loans up to Rs.10 lakh each, with the borrowers mostly from the informal sector, banks have to monitor them very closely. Among the following pairs which one of them is formed with two consecutive statements after the rearrangement?
a.
A - G
b.
B - E
c.
A - F
d.
D - C
e.
E – G
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Q109 mcq
after rearranging the following sentences into a coherent paragraph and identify the sentence that doesn’t fit into the context of the paragraph. Statement (A) is the first sentence of the paragraph after the rearrangement. (A) Former RBI Governor Raghuram Rajan’s note of caution on the next financial crisis that could be building up needs to be taken in all seriousness. 11 www.bankersadda.com | www.sscadda.com (B) Clearly, bankers were overconfident and probably did too little due diligence for some of these loans. (C) The disbursement under Mudra loans alone is Rs.6.37 lakh crore, which is over 7% of the total outstanding bank credit. (D) It is debatable whether banks have the resources and manpower to do this when they are chasing the bigger borrowers for business and, increasingly these days, recoveries. (E) In his note to Parliament’s Estimates Committee on bank non-performing assets (NPAs), Mr. Rajan has flagged three major sources of potential trouble. (F) These loans have been sanctioned under the Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana, which aims to ‘fund the unfunded’, and is a signature scheme of the NDA government. (G) They are Mudra credit, which is basically small-ticket loans granted to micro and small enterprises; lending to farmers through Kisan Credit Cards; and contingent liabilities under the Credit Guarantee Scheme for MSMEs, run by the Small Industries Development Bank of India. (H) Given that these are small loans up to Rs.10 lakh each, with the borrowers mostly from the informal sector, banks have to monitor them very closely. Considering statement (A) “Former RBI Governor Raghuram Rajan’s note of caution on the next financial crisis that could be building up needs to be taken in all seriousness.” as the first sentence of the rearranged paragraph, identify the correct sequence of the sentences to form a coherent paragraph (excluding the incoherent one).
a.
AEGCFHD
b.
ADECBHF
c.
AGHBCDE
d.
ABCDGHF
e.
AEGFCBD
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Q110 mcq
after rearranging the following sentences into a coherent paragraph and identify the sentence that doesn’t fit into the context of the paragraph. Statement (A) is the first sentence of the paragraph after the rearrangement. (A) Former RBI Governor Raghuram Rajan’s note of caution on the next financial crisis that could be building up needs to be taken in all seriousness. 11 www.bankersadda.com | www.sscadda.com (B) Clearly, bankers were overconfident and probably did too little due diligence for some of these loans. (C) The disbursement under Mudra loans alone is Rs.6.37 lakh crore, which is over 7% of the total outstanding bank credit. (D) It is debatable whether banks have the resources and manpower to do this when they are chasing the bigger borrowers for business and, increasingly these days, recoveries. (E) In his note to Parliament’s Estimates Committee on bank non-performing assets (NPAs), Mr. Rajan has flagged three major sources of potential trouble. (F) These loans have been sanctioned under the Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana, which aims to ‘fund the unfunded’, and is a signature scheme of the NDA government. (G) They are Mudra credit, which is basically small-ticket loans granted to micro and small enterprises; lending to farmers through Kisan Credit Cards; and contingent liabilities under the Credit Guarantee Scheme for MSMEs, run by the Small Industries Development Bank of India. (H) Given that these are small loans up to Rs.10 lakh each, with the borrowers mostly from the informal sector, banks have to monitor them very closely. Considering statement (A) “Former RBI Governor Raghuram Rajan’s note of caution on the next financial crisis that could be building up needs to be taken in all seriousness.” as the first sentence of the rearranged paragraph, which of the following statement should be FOURTH sentence after the rearrangement? (Excluding the incoherent sentence)
a.
D
b.
C
c.
G
d.
H
e.
B
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