RRB · RRB-CLERK-MAINS
RRB RRB-CLERK-MAINS 2019
2019
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102 questions
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Q1
mcq
and answer the questions given below:
Eight student P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W sits in a circular table
(all facing towards the center). Each of them like different
colors i.e. Magenta, Blue, Pink, Yellow, Grey, Black, Brown
and Violet. (Not necessary in the same order).
There are two persons gap between T and the one who
likes Black. U sits immediate right of the one who likes
Black color. There are two persons gap between U and the
one who likes Blue color. Q faces the one who likes Blue
color. W sits second to the right of the one who likes Blue.
R likes Pink and faces the one who likes Brown. W does not
like Black Color. The one who likes Violet sits next to T.
Persons who like Magenta and Grey faces each other. U
doesnβt like Magenta. The one who likes Grey doesnβt sit
next to one who likes Violet. P likes Blue and sits third to
the right of the one who likes Grey color. V sits third to the
right of Brown and doesnβt like Blue colour. P sits second
to right of the one who likes Yellow Color.
Who among the following person sits immediate left
of R?
a.
P
b.
Q
c.
S
d.
T
e.
None of the above
Correct Answer
No explanation saved for this question yet.
Q2
mcq
and answer the questions given below:
Eight student P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W sits in a circular table
(all facing towards the center). Each of them like different
colors i.e. Magenta, Blue, Pink, Yellow, Grey, Black, Brown
and Violet. (Not necessary in the same order).
There are two persons gap between T and the one who
likes Black. U sits immediate right of the one who likes
Black color. There are two persons gap between U and the
one who likes Blue color. Q faces the one who likes Blue
color. W sits second to the right of the one who likes Blue.
R likes Pink and faces the one who likes Brown. W does not
like Black Color. The one who likes Violet sits next to T.
Persons who like Magenta and Grey faces each other. U
doesnβt like Magenta. The one who likes Grey doesnβt sit
next to one who likes Violet. P likes Blue and sits third to
the right of the one who likes Grey color. V sits third to the
right of Brown and doesnβt like Blue colour. P sits second
to right of the one who likes Yellow Color.
Who among the following person sits at the
immediate right of the one who likes Blue color?
a.
and
b.
and
c.
The one who likes Pink
d.
both
Correct Answer
e.
both
No explanation saved for this question yet.
Q3
mcq
and answer the questions given below:
Eight student P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W sits in a circular table
(all facing towards the center). Each of them like different
colors i.e. Magenta, Blue, Pink, Yellow, Grey, Black, Brown
and Violet. (Not necessary in the same order).
There are two persons gap between T and the one who
likes Black. U sits immediate right of the one who likes
Black color. There are two persons gap between U and the
one who likes Blue color. Q faces the one who likes Blue
color. W sits second to the right of the one who likes Blue.
R likes Pink and faces the one who likes Brown. W does not
like Black Color. The one who likes Violet sits next to T.
Persons who like Magenta and Grey faces each other. U
doesnβt like Magenta. The one who likes Grey doesnβt sit
next to one who likes Violet. P likes Blue and sits third to
the right of the one who likes Grey color. V sits third to the
right of Brown and doesnβt like Blue colour. P sits second
to right of the one who likes Yellow Color.
Which among the following is true regarding Q?
a.
Q likes black
Correct Answer
b.
Q sits next to T
c.
Q sits immediate left of S
d.
Q sits immediate right of T
e.
None is true
No explanation saved for this question yet.
Q4
mcq
and answer the questions given below:
Eight student P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W sits in a circular table
(all facing towards the center). Each of them like different
colors i.e. Magenta, Blue, Pink, Yellow, Grey, Black, Brown
and Violet. (Not necessary in the same order).
There are two persons gap between T and the one who
likes Black. U sits immediate right of the one who likes
Black color. There are two persons gap between U and the
one who likes Blue color. Q faces the one who likes Blue
color. W sits second to the right of the one who likes Blue.
R likes Pink and faces the one who likes Brown. W does not
like Black Color. The one who likes Violet sits next to T.
Persons who like Magenta and Grey faces each other. U
doesnβt like Magenta. The one who likes Grey doesnβt sit
next to one who likes Violet. P likes Blue and sits third to
the right of the one who likes Grey color. V sits third to the
right of Brown and doesnβt like Blue colour. P sits second
to right of the one who likes Yellow Color.
Four of the following five are alike in certain way
based from a group, find the one which does not
belong to that group?
a.
PT
b.
TW
c.
UV
d.
PR
Correct Answer
e.
VR 1 www.bankersadda.com | www.sscadda.com Mains 2019 ABILITY
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Q5
mcq
and answer the questions given below:
Eight student P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W sits in a circular table
(all facing towards the center). Each of them like different
colors i.e. Magenta, Blue, Pink, Yellow, Grey, Black, Brown
and Violet. (Not necessary in the same order).
There are two persons gap between T and the one who
likes Black. U sits immediate right of the one who likes
Black color. There are two persons gap between U and the
one who likes Blue color. Q faces the one who likes Blue
color. W sits second to the right of the one who likes Blue.
R likes Pink and faces the one who likes Brown. W does not
like Black Color. The one who likes Violet sits next to T.
Persons who like Magenta and Grey faces each other. U
doesnβt like Magenta. The one who likes Grey doesnβt sit
next to one who likes Violet. P likes Blue and sits third to
the right of the one who likes Grey color. V sits third to the
right of Brown and doesnβt like Blue colour. P sits second
to right of the one who likes Yellow Color.
Who among the following person faces the one that
likes Yellow colour?
a.
The person who like Blue
b.
The person who like Pink
c.
The person who like Grey
d.
The person who like Brown
e.
The person who like Violet
Correct Answer
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Solutions (6-10): Months Dates Persons 7 A March 10 O 15 C 7 L June 10 N 15 B 7 P December 10 D 15 M
Q6
mcq
carefully and answer the questions given below:
Nine teachers i.e. A, B, C, D, L, M, N, O and P have taken
lecture on different dates- 7 th , 10 th and 15 th of the month-
March, June and December but not necessarily in the same
order.
N has lecture on an even date in the month of having 30
days. Two persons have lecture in between N and O. B has
lecture just before P but not in the same month. P does not
take lecture before N. More than two persons take lecture
between O and P. Both D and M have lectures in the same
month. There is one person takes the lecture in between A
and C. Not more than four persons have taken lectures in
between C and D.
Who among the following persons take lectures in the
month of December?
a.
L, D
b.
P, M, C
c.
P, D, M
Correct Answer
d.
O, B
e.
None of these
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Q7
mcq
carefully and answer the questions given below:
Nine teachers i.e. A, B, C, D, L, M, N, O and P have taken
lecture on different dates- 7 th , 10 th and 15 th of the month-
March, June and December but not necessarily in the same
order.
N has lecture on an even date in the month of having 30
days. Two persons have lecture in between N and O. B has
lecture just before P but not in the same month. P does not
take lecture before N. More than two persons take lecture
between O and P. Both D and M have lectures in the same
month. There is one person takes the lecture in between A
and C. Not more than four persons have taken lectures in
between C and D.
Who among the following person has taken a lecture
just before O?
a.
L
b.
A
Correct Answer
c.
D
d.
M
e.
None of these
No explanation saved for this question yet.
Q8
mcq
carefully and answer the questions given below:
Nine teachers i.e. A, B, C, D, L, M, N, O and P have taken
lecture on different dates- 7 th , 10 th and 15 th of the month-
March, June and December but not necessarily in the same
order.
N has lecture on an even date in the month of having 30
days. Two persons have lecture in between N and O. B has
lecture just before P but not in the same month. P does not
take lecture before N. More than two persons take lecture
between O and P. Both D and M have lectures in the same
month. There is one person takes the lecture in between A
and C. Not more than four persons have taken lectures in
between C and D.
How many persons have lectures in between N and C?
a.
None
b.
One
Correct Answer
c.
Two
d.
Three
e.
None of these
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Q9
mcq
carefully and answer the questions given below:
Nine teachers i.e. A, B, C, D, L, M, N, O and P have taken
lecture on different dates- 7 th , 10 th and 15 th of the month-
March, June and December but not necessarily in the same
order.
N has lecture on an even date in the month of having 30
days. Two persons have lecture in between N and O. B has
lecture just before P but not in the same month. P does not
take lecture before N. More than two persons take lecture
between O and P. Both D and M have lectures in the same
month. There is one person takes the lecture in between A
and C. Not more than four persons have taken lectures in
between C and D.
Who among the following person definitely does not
have lecture in March?
a.
O
b.
and
c.
A
d.
L
e.
Both
Correct Answer
No explanation saved for this question yet.
Q10
mcq
carefully and answer the questions given below:
Nine teachers i.e. A, B, C, D, L, M, N, O and P have taken
lecture on different dates- 7 th , 10 th and 15 th of the month-
March, June and December but not necessarily in the same
order.
N has lecture on an even date in the month of having 30
days. Two persons have lecture in between N and O. B has
lecture just before P but not in the same month. P does not
take lecture before N. More than two persons take lecture
between O and P. Both D and M have lectures in the same
month. There is one person takes the lecture in between A
and C. Not more than four persons have taken lectures in
between C and D.
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way
and hence they form a group. Which one of the
following does not belong to that group?
a.
L
Correct Answer
b.
A
c.
C
d.
M
e.
D | www.careerpower.in | Adda247 App
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Solutions (11-15): Words Codes Safety wr Is gh Very tf Important qs Food dv Required sx Good zx
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Q11
mcq
carefully and answer the questions given below:
In a certain code language:
βfood safety is requiredβ is coded as βdv sx wr ghβ
βsafety is very importantβ is coded as βwr tf gh qsβ
βfood is very goodβ is coded as βtf zx gh dvβ
What is the code of βimportantβ as per the given code
language?
a.
wr
b.
tf
c.
gh
d.
qs
e.
None of these
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Q12
mcq
carefully and answer the questions given below:
In a certain code language:
βfood safety is requiredβ is coded as βdv sx wr ghβ
βsafety is very importantβ is coded as βwr tf gh qsβ
βfood is very goodβ is coded as βtf zx gh dvβ
Which of the following word has code βzxβ as per the
given code language?
a.
food
b.
is
c.
good
d.
very
e.
None of these
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Q13
mcq
carefully and answer the questions given below:
In a certain code language:
βfood safety is requiredβ is coded as βdv sx wr ghβ
βsafety is very importantβ is coded as βwr tf gh qsβ
βfood is very goodβ is coded as βtf zx gh dvβ
What is the code of βfood is goodβ as per the given
code language?
a.
wr zx gh
b.
tf dv zx
c.
gh zx dv
d.
qs dv gh
e.
None of these
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Q14
mcq
carefully and answer the questions given below:
In a certain code language:
βfood safety is requiredβ is coded as βdv sx wr ghβ
βsafety is very importantβ is coded as βwr tf gh qsβ
βfood is very goodβ is coded as βtf zx gh dvβ
Which of the following words have code βtf qs dvβ as
per the gsiven code language?
a.
food is good
b.
safety is required
c.
safety is good
d.
very important food
e.
None of these
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Q15
mcq
carefully and answer the questions given below:
In a certain code language:
βfood safety is requiredβ is coded as βdv sx wr ghβ
βsafety is very importantβ is coded as βwr tf gh qsβ
βfood is very goodβ is coded as βtf zx gh dvβ
What may be the code of βroad is importantβ as per
the given code language?
a.
rv zx gh
b.
tf rv zx
c.
gh rv qs
d.
qs dv gh
e.
gh qs tf
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Q16
mcq
carefully and answer the questions given below:
Nine persons viz. A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and P are sitting in a
row facing to the north direction but not necessarily in the
same order. D sits 3 rd to the left of F and one of them are
sitting at the extreme end. There is one person sits
between D and E. There are four persons sit between C and
B, who sit near to E. Both G and A are immediate neighbors
to each other. Both P and H are immediate neighbors to
each other. There are more than two persons sit between
P and G, who does not sit at any of the extreme end.
How many persons sit between B and G?
a.
None
b.
One
c.
Two
d.
Four
e.
None of these
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Q17
mcq
carefully and answer the questions given below:
Nine persons viz. A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and P are sitting in a
row facing to the north direction but not necessarily in the
same order. D sits 3 rd to the left of F and one of them are
sitting at the extreme end. There is one person sits
between D and E. There are four persons sit between C and
B, who sit near to E. Both G and A are immediate neighbors
to each other. Both P and H are immediate neighbors to
each other. There are more than two persons sit between
P and G, who does not sit at any of the extreme end.
What is the position of F with respect to C?
a.
3 rd to the right
b.
2 nd to the right
c.
2 nd to the left
d.
4 th to the left
e.
None of these 2 www.bankersadda.com | www.sscadda.com
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Q18
mcq
carefully and answer the questions given below:
Nine persons viz. A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and P are sitting in a
row facing to the north direction but not necessarily in the
same order. D sits 3 rd to the left of F and one of them are
sitting at the extreme end. There is one person sits
between D and E. There are four persons sit between C and
B, who sit near to E. Both G and A are immediate neighbors
to each other. Both P and H are immediate neighbors to
each other. There are more than two persons sit between
P and G, who does not sit at any of the extreme end.
Who among the following one sits at the extreme ends
of the row?
a.
B
b.
F
c.
P
d.
H
e.
None of these
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Q19
mcq
carefully and answer the questions given below:
Nine persons viz. A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and P are sitting in a
row facing to the north direction but not necessarily in the
same order. D sits 3 rd to the left of F and one of them are
sitting at the extreme end. There is one person sits
between D and E. There are four persons sit between C and
B, who sit near to E. Both G and A are immediate neighbors
to each other. Both P and H are immediate neighbors to
each other. There are more than two persons sit between
P and G, who does not sit at any of the extreme end.
How many persons sit between E and A?
a.
Two
b.
One
c.
None
d.
Four
e.
None of these
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Q20
mcq
carefully and answer the questions given below:
Nine persons viz. A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and P are sitting in a
row facing to the north direction but not necessarily in the
same order. D sits 3 rd to the left of F and one of them are
sitting at the extreme end. There is one person sits
between D and E. There are four persons sit between C and
B, who sit near to E. Both G and A are immediate neighbors
to each other. Both P and H are immediate neighbors to
each other. There are more than two persons sit between
P and G, who does not sit at any of the extreme end.
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way
and hence they form a group. Which one of the
following does not belong to that group?
a.
D and E
b.
A and F
c.
P and C
d.
F and E
e.
B and F
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Q21
mcq
carefully and answer the given questions.
In certain coding language, the directions are coded as per
below conditions.
A@B means β A is North of B
A%B means β A is South of B
A#B means β A is East of B
A$B means β A is West of B
Example: A @ 14 B means A is north of B and the distance
between A and B is 14m.
Condition: D#100C, E%120D, H#130E, A$120B, C@80B,
G@150H, K@100F, K$70G
What is the direction of Point G with respect to Point
E?
a.
North-east
b.
South-east
c.
North-west
d.
South-west
e.
North
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Q22
mcq
carefully and answer the given questions.
In certain coding language, the directions are coded as per
below conditions.
A@B means β A is North of B
A%B means β A is South of B
A#B means β A is East of B
A$B means β A is West of B
Example: A @ 14 B means A is north of B and the distance
between A and B is 14m.
Condition: D#100C, E%120D, H#130E, A$120B, C@80B,
G@150H, K@100F, K$70G
What is the total distance from Point C to Point H?
a.
250m
b.
350m
c.
330m
d.
300m
e.
220m
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Q23
mcq
carefully and answer the given questions.
In certain coding language, the directions are coded as per
below conditions.
A@B means β A is North of B
A%B means β A is South of B
A#B means β A is East of B
A$B means β A is West of B
Example: A @ 14 B means A is north of B and the distance
between A and B is 14m.
Condition: D#100C, E%120D, H#130E, A$120B, C@80B,
G@150H, K@100F, K$70G
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way
and hence they form a group. Which one of the
following does not belong to that group?
a.
A-C
b.
E-H
c.
B-D
d.
F-G
e.
D-K
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Q24
mcq
carefully and answer the questions given below:
There are nine boxes i.e. P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W and X placed
one above the another but not necessarily in the same
order. Box P was placed just above the Box U. There are two
boxes gap between Q and U. There are three boxes gap
between T and S. There are three boxes gap between T and
X. There is one box gap between R and Q. There are more
than three boxes gap between P and R. The number of
boxes above of W is one more than the number of boxes
placed below V. There are more than three boxes gap
between S and V. Box W was placed above V.
Which of the following box is placed just below S?
a.
W
b.
P
c.
Q
d.
V
e.
R | www.careerpower.in | Adda247 App
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Q25
mcq
carefully and answer the questions given below:
There are nine boxes i.e. P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W and X placed
one above the another but not necessarily in the same
order. Box P was placed just above the Box U. There are two
boxes gap between Q and U. There are three boxes gap
between T and S. There are three boxes gap between T and
X. There is one box gap between R and Q. There are more
than three boxes gap between P and R. The number of
boxes above of W is one more than the number of boxes
placed below V. There are more than three boxes gap
between S and V. Box W was placed above V.
How many boxes are placed between Q and X?
a.
One
b.
Two
c.
None
d.
Three
e.
None of these
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Q26
mcq
carefully and answer the questions given below:
There are nine boxes i.e. P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W and X placed
one above the another but not necessarily in the same
order. Box P was placed just above the Box U. There are two
boxes gap between Q and U. There are three boxes gap
between T and S. There are three boxes gap between T and
X. There is one box gap between R and Q. There are more
than three boxes gap between P and R. The number of
boxes above of W is one more than the number of boxes
placed below V. There are more than three boxes gap
between S and V. Box W was placed above V.
Which of the following box is placed in bottom most
position?
a.
T
b.
U
c.
W
d.
X
e.
V
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Q27
mcq
carefully and answer the questions given below:
There are nine boxes i.e. P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W and X placed
one above the another but not necessarily in the same
order. Box P was placed just above the Box U. There are two
boxes gap between Q and U. There are three boxes gap
between T and S. There are three boxes gap between T and
X. There is one box gap between R and Q. There are more
than three boxes gap between P and R. The number of
boxes above of W is one more than the number of boxes
placed below V. There are more than three boxes gap
between S and V. Box W was placed above V.
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way
and hence they form a group. Which one of the
following does not belong to that group?
a.
S and U
b.
W and Q
c.
V and X
d.
R and X
e.
U and T
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Q28
mcq
carefully and answer the questions given below:
There are nine boxes i.e. P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W and X placed
one above the another but not necessarily in the same
order. Box P was placed just above the Box U. There are two
boxes gap between Q and U. There are three boxes gap
between T and S. There are three boxes gap between T and
X. There is one box gap between R and Q. There are more
than three boxes gap between P and R. The number of
boxes above of W is one more than the number of boxes
placed below V. There are more than three boxes gap
between S and V. Box W was placed above V.
If the positions of S and W are interchanged with each
other, then find how many boxes are placed between
Q and S?
a.
None
b.
One
c.
Two
d.
Four
e.
More than five
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Q29
mcq
carefully and answer the questions given below:
A, B, C, D, E, F and G are students in same class and each of
them having different heights. They are arranged
according to their heights in decreasing order from left to
right.
Only two students are shorter than C. F is taller than G and
shorter than D. D is not the tallest. A is taller than E and
shorter than B. G is taller than C. Dβs height is three times
than Aβs height. Eβs height is 40cm which is 80% of Aβs
height.
Who among the following student is shortest among
all?
a.
or
b.
B
c.
E
d.
Either
e.
None of these
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Q30
mcq
carefully and answer the questions given below:
A, B, C, D, E, F and G are students in same class and each of
them having different heights. They are arranged
according to their heights in decreasing order from left to
right.
Only two students are shorter than C. F is taller than G and
shorter than D. D is not the tallest. A is taller than E and
shorter than B. G is taller than C. Dβs height is three times
than Aβs height. Eβs height is 40cm which is 80% of Aβs
height.
What may be the possible height of F?
a.
90cm
b.
80cm
c.
70cm
d.
60cm
e.
Canβt be determined
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Q31
mcq
carefully and answer the questions given below:
A, B, C, D, E, F and G are students in same class and each of
them having different heights. They are arranged
according to their heights in decreasing order from left to
right.
Only two students are shorter than C. F is taller than G and
shorter than D. D is not the tallest. A is taller than E and
shorter than B. G is taller than C. Dβs height is three times
than Aβs height. Eβs height is 40cm which is 80% of Aβs
height.
How many students are taller than B?
a.
One
b.
None
c.
Two
d.
Three
e.
Four
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Q32
mcq
How many such numerals are there in the number
β457891256β which will remain at the same position
when arranged in descending order from left to right?
a.
None
b.
One
c.
Two
d.
Three
e.
More than three 3 www.bankersadda.com | www.sscadda.com
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Q33
mcq
carefully and answer the questions given below:
Seven people P, Q, R, S, T, U and V live on separate floors of
a 7-floor building but not necessarily in the same order.
Ground floor is as 1 st floor, just above floor is as 2 nd floor
and so on until the topmost floor as 7 th floor.
β’ There are more than three floors gap between P and S.
β’ Q lives just above the floor in which V lives.
β’ There is one floor gap between V and R.
β’ U lives below the Pβs floor but not just below.
β’ There is one floor gap between T and Q.
β’ V is neither lives just below nor just above the Tβs floor.
β’ The number of floors gap between Q and R is same as
between T and V.
β’ There is more than one floor gap between U and S.
Who among the following person lives just above the
Tβs floor?
a.
P
b.
U
c.
R
d.
S
e.
None of these
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Q34
mcq
carefully and answer the questions given below:
Seven people P, Q, R, S, T, U and V live on separate floors of
a 7-floor building but not necessarily in the same order.
Ground floor is as 1 st floor, just above floor is as 2 nd floor
and so on until the topmost floor as 7 th floor.
β’ There are more than three floors gap between P and S.
β’ Q lives just above the floor in which V lives.
β’ There is one floor gap between V and R.
β’ U lives below the Pβs floor but not just below.
β’ There is one floor gap between T and Q.
β’ V is neither lives just below nor just above the Tβs floor.
β’ The number of floors gap between Q and R is same as
between T and V.
β’ There is more than one floor gap between U and S.
Who among the following person lives on the ground
floor?
a.
P
b.
S
c.
T
d.
R
e.
U
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Q35
mcq
carefully and answer the questions given below:
Seven people P, Q, R, S, T, U and V live on separate floors of
a 7-floor building but not necessarily in the same order.
Ground floor is as 1 st floor, just above floor is as 2 nd floor
and so on until the topmost floor as 7 th floor.
β’ There are more than three floors gap between P and S.
β’ Q lives just above the floor in which V lives.
β’ There is one floor gap between V and R.
β’ U lives below the Pβs floor but not just below.
β’ There is one floor gap between T and Q.
β’ V is neither lives just below nor just above the Tβs floor.
β’ The number of floors gap between Q and R is same as
between T and V.
β’ There is more than one floor gap between U and S.
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way
and hence they form a group. Which one of the
following does not belong to that group?
a.
R
b.
Q
c.
P
d.
V
e.
U
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Q36
mcq
carefully and answer the questions given below:
Seven people P, Q, R, S, T, U and V live on separate floors of
a 7-floor building but not necessarily in the same order.
Ground floor is as 1 st floor, just above floor is as 2 nd floor
and so on until the topmost floor as 7 th floor.
β’ There are more than three floors gap between P and S.
β’ Q lives just above the floor in which V lives.
β’ There is one floor gap between V and R.
β’ U lives below the Pβs floor but not just below.
β’ There is one floor gap between T and Q.
β’ V is neither lives just below nor just above the Tβs floor.
β’ The number of floors gap between Q and R is same as
between T and V.
β’ There is more than one floor gap between U and S.
How many floors gap is between P and Q?
a.
None
b.
One
c.
Two
d.
Three
e.
More than Three
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Q37
mcq
carefully and answer the questions given below:
Seven people P, Q, R, S, T, U and V live on separate floors of
a 7-floor building but not necessarily in the same order.
Ground floor is as 1 st floor, just above floor is as 2 nd floor
and so on until the topmost floor as 7 th floor.
β’ There are more than three floors gap between P and S.
β’ Q lives just above the floor in which V lives.
β’ There is one floor gap between V and R.
β’ U lives below the Pβs floor but not just below.
β’ There is one floor gap between T and Q.
β’ V is neither lives just below nor just above the Tβs floor.
β’ The number of floors gap between Q and R is same as
between T and V.
β’ There is more than one floor gap between U and S.
If P is interchanged his floor with U, then who among
the following person lives just below the floor in
which T lives?
a.
S
b.
P
c.
R
d.
U
e.
None of these
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Q38
mcq
#, @, * , % and Β© are used with the following meanings as
illustrated below. Study the following information and
answer the given questions:
P#Q β P is the son of Q.
P@Q β Q is the child of P.
PΒ©Q β P is the parent of Q.
P*Qβ P is the husband of Q.
P%Qβ P is the wife of Q.
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If Y @ B * Q Β© T % E, F @ B then how Y is related T?
a.
Grandfather
b.
Grandson
c.
Daughter
d.
Grandmother
e.
Canβt be determined
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Q39
mcq
#, @, * , % and Β© are used with the following meanings as
illustrated below. Study the following information and
answer the given questions:
P#Q β P is the son of Q.
P@Q β Q is the child of P.
PΒ©Q β P is the parent of Q.
P*Qβ P is the husband of Q.
P%Qβ P is the wife of Q.
| www.careerpower.in | Adda247 App
If H * M Β© O * N @ Z, the age of Z is 9 years and the age
of H is 45 years then what is the probable age of N?
a.
49 years
b.
21 years
c.
6 years
d.
52 years
e.
68 years QUANTITATIVE
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Q40
mcq
#, @, * , % and Β© are used with the following meanings as
illustrated below. Study the following information and
answer the given questions:
P#Q β P is the son of Q.
P@Q β Q is the child of P.
PΒ©Q β P is the parent of Q.
P*Qβ P is the husband of Q.
P%Qβ P is the wife of Q.
| www.careerpower.in | Adda247 App
If A @ C * D Β© E % G, then how E is related to A?
a.
1
b.
2
c.
4
d.
6
e.
8
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Q41
mcq
Glass βAβ contains 400 ml sprite & glass βBβ contains
220 ml coke. 4X ml sprite taken out from βAβ and mixed
in βBβ and then 3X ml mixture from βBβ taken out and
poured into a vacant glass βCβ. If ratio of coke to sprite
in glass C is 11 : 4, then find remaining quantity of
sprite in glass βBβ?
a.
240 ml
b.
60 ml
c.
64 ml
d.
80 ml
e.
48 ml
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Q42
mcq
Diameter of a cylinder is 2 rd of sum of its radius &
3
height, while ratio of curved surface area to volume of
cylinder is 1 : 7. If radius and height of a cone is same
as that of cylinder, then find slant height of cone?
a.
21 β5 cm
b.
10 β5 cm
c.
7 β5 cm
d.
14 β5 cm
e.
16 β5 cm
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Q43
mcq
A, B & C invested their respective savings in a scheme,
which offered CI at 20% p.a. for two years and
received total interest of Rs. 1694. If A & C invested
double of their respective saving in another scheme,
which offered SI at 10% p.a. for two years and
received total interest of Rs. 1100, then find difference
between saving of A & C together & saving of B?
a.
1250 Rs.
b.
1650 Rs.
c.
1150 Rs.
d.
1050 Rs.
e.
750 Rs.
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Q44
mcq
Cost price of a jeans is Rs. 200 more than cost price of
a shirt. If shirt is sold at 20% loss and jeans is sold at
25% profit, then shopkeeper gets a total profit of 5 5 %
7
on selling a shirt and a jeans. Find the overall profit or
loss (in %) of shopkeeper, if shirt is sold at 25% profit
and jeans is sold at 20% loss?
a.
5 %
b.
4 %
c.
3 % 7 7 7
d.
2 %
e.
6 % 7 7
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Q45
mcq
A bag contains 12 balls (Red & blue). Two balls are
taken out randomly from the bag and probability of
one ball being red and one ball being blue is 35 . If βnβ
66
blue balls added in bag and then two balls are taken
out randomly from bag, then minimum probability of
remaining blue balls in bag is 9 , find βnβ? (blue balls
14
are more than red balls in the bag initially).
4 www.bankersadda.com | www.sscadda.com
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Q46
mcq
and answer the following questions carefully.
There are 3 flight operators Air India, Indigo and Go Air
offering services to two destinations from Delhi to Goa and
Ooty. A total of 800 passengers travelled on these routes
on a particular day of which 60% travelled to Ooty. Indigo
because of its lowest fare always travel to its full capacity.
All planes have 180 seating capacity each. Air India and Go
Air issued same number of boarding passes. Passengers
travelled to Ooty from Air India and Go Air are in ratio of
8:7.
The unoccupied capacity of Air India is what percent
of total passengers to Ooty?
a.
29 1 %
b.
30 1 %
c.
70 5 % 6 6 6
d.
45 5 %
e.
63 7 % 6 11
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Q47
mcq
and answer the following questions carefully.
There are 3 flight operators Air India, Indigo and Go Air
offering services to two destinations from Delhi to Goa and
Ooty. A total of 800 passengers travelled on these routes
on a particular day of which 60% travelled to Ooty. Indigo
because of its lowest fare always travel to its full capacity.
All planes have 180 seating capacity each. Air India and Go
Air issued same number of boarding passes. Passengers
travelled to Ooty from Air India and Go Air are in ratio of
8:7.
What is the average number of passengers travelled
to Ooty from Air India and Indigo?
a.
240
b.
140
c.
170
d.
160
e.
180
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Q48
mcq
and answer the following questions carefully.
There are 3 flight operators Air India, Indigo and Go Air
offering services to two destinations from Delhi to Goa and
Ooty. A total of 800 passengers travelled on these routes
on a particular day of which 60% travelled to Ooty. Indigo
because of its lowest fare always travel to its full capacity.
All planes have 180 seating capacity each. Air India and Go
Air issued same number of boarding passes. Passengers
travelled to Ooty from Air India and Go Air are in ratio of
8:7.
Which flight has maximum unoccupied seats?
a.
Indigo
b.
Air India
c.
Go Air
d.
Air India and Go Air both
e.
All have same no. of unoccupied seats
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Q49
mcq
and answer the following questions carefully.
There are 3 flight operators Air India, Indigo and Go Air
offering services to two destinations from Delhi to Goa and
Ooty. A total of 800 passengers travelled on these routes
on a particular day of which 60% travelled to Ooty. Indigo
because of its lowest fare always travel to its full capacity.
All planes have 180 seating capacity each. Air India and Go
Air issued same number of boarding passes. Passengers
travelled to Ooty from Air India and Go Air are in ratio of
8:7.
What is the ratio of passengers travelled to Ooty from
Air India and Go Air together to the passengers
travelled to Goa using Indigo and Go Air together?
a.
3 : 2
b.
15 : 13
c.
17 : 13
d.
15 : 7
e.
1 : 1
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Q50
mcq
and answer the following questions carefully.
There are 3 flight operators Air India, Indigo and Go Air
offering services to two destinations from Delhi to Goa and
Ooty. A total of 800 passengers travelled on these routes
on a particular day of which 60% travelled to Ooty. Indigo
because of its lowest fare always travel to its full capacity.
All planes have 180 seating capacity each. Air India and Go
Air issued same number of boarding passes. Passengers
travelled to Ooty from Air India and Go Air are in ratio of
8:7.
Passengers travelling to Goa using Indigo are what
percent more or less than passengers travelling to
Ooty using Go Air? (approx.)
a.
22
b.
64
c.
39
d.
40
e.
29 | www.careerpower.in | Adda247 App Direction (51 β 55): Bar graph given below shows percentage labor working in a firm βXβ in five different years. Read the data Note β Total labor = (adult male labor + adult female labor + 60 50 40 30 20 10 0 2011 2012 2013 Adult male labor
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Q51
mcq
If ratio of girlsβ child labor to boyβs child labor working
in the year 2013 is 3 : 4 and their difference is 48, then
find the difference between adult male labor and adult
female labor working in that year?
a.
84
b.
96
c.
108
d.
88
e.
72
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Q52
mcq
Total labor working in 2015 are 20% more than that
of total labor working in 2011, then find total adult
female labor working in 2015 is what percent more
than total child labors working in 2011?
a.
42%
b.
48%
c.
40%
d.
36%
e.
44%
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Q53
mcq
If ratio of adult male labors working in 2011 to 2012
is 5 : 4 and total labors working in these two years is
2200, then find total child labors working in these two
years?
a.
420
b.
480
c.
440
d.
400
e.
520
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Q54
mcq
A child NGO inspection team in 2014 in the city
inspected firm X and imposed fine on firm of Rs. 25 for
each child labor. If inspection team imposed total Rs.
2000 on the firm and total child labor working in 2015
are 220 more than that of in 2014, then find ratio of
adult male labors working in 2014 and 2015
respectively?
a.
3 : 7
b.
4 : 9
c.
4 : 7
d.
4 : 5
e.
4 : 3
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Q55
mcq
If ratio of total labors working in 2011, 2012 and 2013
is 8 : 10 : 5 and total adult female workers working in
these three years is 720, then find total number of
child labors working in these three years?
a.
550
b.
450
c.
400
d.
300
e.
500 5 www.bankersadda.com | www.sscadda.com of labor (adult male labor & adult female labor) out of total carefully answer the questions. child labor) 2014 2015 Adult female labor
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Q56
mcq
Amitβs present age is 75% of Binnyβs present age
where as present age of Chintu is 5 π‘β of Binnyβs
8
present age. If difference between difference of Chintu
and Binny age and difference of Binny and Amit age is
6 years then find the average of their age two years
later?
a.
44 years
b.
42 years
c.
36 years
d.
40 years
e.
38 years
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Q57
mcq
Speed of boat in still water is 37.5% less than the
speed of the boat in downstream and boat covers 30
km in upstream in 5 hours, then find time taken by
boat to cover 84 km in downstream?
a.
3.5 hr
b.
3 hr
c.
4.5 hr
d.
4 hr
e.
5 hr
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Q58
mcq
If we add 4 to the numerator of the fraction and
increases denominator by 50% then both become
equal. And when the numerator is increased by 5 and
denominator is doubled then it becomes equal to the
original fraction. What will be two times of that
fraction?
a.
4
b.
3
c.
8 5 2 5
d.
5
e.
5 2 3
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Q59
mcq
Efficiency of A is 40% more than that of B and ratio of
efficiency of C to A is 6:7. Time taken by A and C
together to complete the work is 18 days. Find the
number of days taken by all of them working together
to complete twice of the same work?
a.
32 days
b.
24 days
c.
25 days
d.
26 days
e.
27.5 days | www.careerpower.in | Adda247 App
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Q60
mcq
Ravi cuts a square field of maximum possible area
from his circular field. Find the area of the remaining
circular field if the cost of grass cutting of the square
field at Rs 4 per mΒ² is Rs 882?
a.
120 mΒ²
b.
126 mΒ²
c.
121 mΒ²
d.
116 mΒ²
e.
109 mΒ²
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Q61
mcq
answer the following questions.
Pie charts shows the percentage distribution of total
consumption (fruits + vegetables) on five different days of
a week (Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday and
Friday) and percentage distribution of total vegetables
consumption on these 5 days.
Total consumption (fruits + vegetables)
= 20000 kg
Friday
30%
Monday
40%
Wednesd
ay Tuesday
10% 8%
Total vegetables consumption
= 15000 kg
Friday
32%
Monday
42%
Thursday
10%
Wednesday Tuesday
10% 6%
Fruits consumed on Monday and Tuesday together
are what percent more or less than vegetables
consumed on Wednesday and Thursday together?
a.
20%
b.
50%
c.
80%
d.
40%
e.
70% 6 www.bankersadda.com | www.sscadda.com
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Q62
mcq
answer the following questions.
Pie charts shows the percentage distribution of total
consumption (fruits + vegetables) on five different days of
a week (Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday and
Friday) and percentage distribution of total vegetables
consumption on these 5 days.
Total consumption (fruits + vegetables)
= 20000 kg
Friday
30%
Monday
40%
Wednesd
ay Tuesday
10% 8%
Total vegetables consumption
= 15000 kg
Friday
32%
Monday
42%
Thursday
10%
Wednesday Tuesday
10% 6%
If fruits consumed on Saturday are 50% more than
that of consumed on Friday and ratio of fruits
consumed to vegetables consumed on Saturday is 2 :
3, then find total fruits and vegetables consumed on
Saturday.
a.
3900
b.
4800
c.
4300
d.
4500
e.
4000
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Q63
mcq
answer the following questions.
Pie charts shows the percentage distribution of total
consumption (fruits + vegetables) on five different days of
a week (Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday and
Friday) and percentage distribution of total vegetables
consumption on these 5 days.
Total consumption (fruits + vegetables)
= 20000 kg
Friday
30%
Monday
40%
Wednesd
ay Tuesday
10% 8%
Total vegetables consumption
= 15000 kg
Friday
32%
Monday
42%
Thursday
10%
Wednesday Tuesday
10% 6%
Fruits consumed on Wednesday and Thursday
together are what percent of total fruits and
vegetables consumed on these two days together?
a.
34 4 %
b.
31 9 %
c.
41 4 % 11 11 11
d.
39 9 %
e.
43 4 % 11 11
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Q64
mcq
answer the following questions.
Pie charts shows the percentage distribution of total
consumption (fruits + vegetables) on five different days of
a week (Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday and
Friday) and percentage distribution of total vegetables
consumption on these 5 days.
Total consumption (fruits + vegetables)
= 20000 kg
Friday
30%
Monday
40%
Wednesd
ay Tuesday
10% 8%
Total vegetables consumption
= 15000 kg
Friday
32%
Monday
42%
Thursday
10%
Wednesday Tuesday
10% 6%
The average of fruits consumed on Tuesday,
Wednesday and Thursday are how much less than
average of vegetables consumed on Monday and
Friday?
a.
4250
b.
5050
c.
4650
d.
5450
e.
4850
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Q65
mcq
answer the following questions.
Pie charts shows the percentage distribution of total
consumption (fruits + vegetables) on five different days of
a week (Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday and
Friday) and percentage distribution of total vegetables
consumption on these 5 days.
Total consumption (fruits + vegetables)
= 20000 kg
Friday
30%
Monday
40%
Wednesd
ay Tuesday
10% 8%
Total vegetables consumption
= 15000 kg
Friday
32%
Monday
42%
Thursday
10%
Wednesday Tuesday
10% 6%
Vegetables consumed on Tuesday and Friday
together are how much more or less than vegetables
consumed on Wednesday and Thursday together?
a.
2900
b.
2200
c.
2700
d.
2500
e.
1800
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Q66
mcq
answer the following questions.
Data gives information about total crop production in a
village in 2012, 2013, 2014, 2015 & 2016. Ratio of total
crop production in 2012 to that of in 2013 is 13 : 20. Total
crop production in 2015 is 10% less than that of in 2016
and total crop production in 2015 is equal to average of
crop production in 2012 & 2014. Total crop production in
2014 is 60% more than that of in 2013. Average crop
production in all these 5 years is 4500 tonnes.
Find total crop production in 2015 & 2016 together.
a.
8000 tonnes
b.
9500 tonnes
c.
9000 tonnes
d.
7500 tonnes
e.
8500 tonnes
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Q67
mcq
answer the following questions.
Data gives information about total crop production in a
village in 2012, 2013, 2014, 2015 & 2016. Ratio of total
crop production in 2012 to that of in 2013 is 13 : 20. Total
crop production in 2015 is 10% less than that of in 2016
and total crop production in 2015 is equal to average of
crop production in 2012 & 2014. Total crop production in
2014 is 60% more than that of in 2013. Average crop
production in all these 5 years is 4500 tonnes.
If in 2013 village produced only three crops (wheat,
rice and bajra) in the ratio 36 : 27 : 17 respectively,
then find difference in production of wheat and
production of bajra in the village in 2013.
a.
850 tonnes
b.
1100 tonnes
c.
750 tonnes
d.
500 tonnes
e.
950 tonnes
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Q68
mcq
answer the following questions.
Data gives information about total crop production in a
village in 2012, 2013, 2014, 2015 & 2016. Ratio of total
crop production in 2012 to that of in 2013 is 13 : 20. Total
crop production in 2015 is 10% less than that of in 2016
and total crop production in 2015 is equal to average of
crop production in 2012 & 2014. Total crop production in
2014 is 60% more than that of in 2013. Average crop
production in all these 5 years is 4500 tonnes.
If village produced only wheat and bajra in 2012 in
the ratio 8 : 5 and selling price (per ton) of wheat and
bajra in 2012 is Rs.625 and Rs.500 respectively, then
find total revenue of village in 2012.
a.
Rs.10,00,000
b.
Rs.25,00,000
c.
Rs.22,00,000
d.
Rs.15,00,000
e.
Rs.18,00,000 | www.careerpower.in | Adda247 App
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Q69
mcq
answer the following questions.
Data gives information about total crop production in a
village in 2012, 2013, 2014, 2015 & 2016. Ratio of total
crop production in 2012 to that of in 2013 is 13 : 20. Total
crop production in 2015 is 10% less than that of in 2016
and total crop production in 2015 is equal to average of
crop production in 2012 & 2014. Total crop production in
2014 is 60% more than that of in 2013. Average crop
production in all these 5 years is 4500 tonnes.
In 2016 & 2017 village produced only wheat & rice
and ratio of production of wheat to that of rice in the
village in 2016 & 2017 is 16 : 9 and 4 : 3 respectively.
If production of wheat in village in 2017 is 400 tonnes
more than that of in 2016, then find production of rice
in the village in 2017 is what percent of that of in
2016?
a.
120%
b.
150%
c.
160%
d.
180%
e.
80%
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Q70
mcq
answer the following questions.
Data gives information about total crop production in a
village in 2012, 2013, 2014, 2015 & 2016. Ratio of total
crop production in 2012 to that of in 2013 is 13 : 20. Total
crop production in 2015 is 10% less than that of in 2016
and total crop production in 2015 is equal to average of
crop production in 2012 & 2014. Total crop production in
2014 is 60% more than that of in 2013. Average crop
production in all these 5 years is 4500 tonnes.
Find ratio of total crop production in the village in
2013 to that of in 2014.
a.
5 : 8
b.
3 : 4
c.
1 : 4
d.
7 : 10
e.
None of the above. Directions (71β75): In the given questions, two quantities are given one as βQuantity Iβ and another as βQuantity IIβ. You have to determine relationship between two quantities and choose the appropriate option.
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Q71
mcq
Quantity I: A train can cross a pole in 24 sec with a
speed of 75 km/h. Length of train.
Quantity II: A train can cross a pole in 12 sec and a
tunnel in 55.2 sec. If length of tunnel is 1800 m. length
of train.
a.
Quantity I > Quantity II
b.
Quantity I < Quantity II
c.
Quantity I β₯ Quantity II
d.
Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation
e.
Quantity Iβ€ Quantity II
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Q72
mcq
Quantity I: Marked price of article, if article is marked
at 50% above cost price and on selling the article,
profit earned is 20% and S. P is Rs 1020.
Quantity II: Total cost of fencing a square of side 37.5
meter and cost of wire is Rs 0.17 per centimeter.
a.
Quantity I > Quantity II
b.
Quantity I < Quantity II
c.
Quantity I β₯ Quantity II
d.
Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation
e.
Quantity Iβ€ Quantity II
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Q73
mcq
Quantity I: value of x
(π₯ + 3) 2 = (π₯ β 3) 2 + π₯Β²
Quantity II: value of y
π¦ 2 β 29π¦ + 204 = 0
a.
Quantity I > Quantity II
b.
Quantity I < Quantity II
c.
Quantity I β₯ Quantity II
d.
Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation
e.
Quantity Iβ€ Quantity II
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Q74
mcq
Quantity I: Amount obtained after two years on Rs.
2450 at 14 2 % simple interest per annum.
7
Quantity II: Amount obtained after two years on
investment of Rs 2450 at 12 1 % π. π. compounded
2
yearly.
7 www.bankersadda.com | www.sscadda.com
a.
Quantity I > Quantity II
b.
Quantity I < Quantity II
c.
Quantity I β₯ Quantity II
d.
Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation
e.
Quantity Iβ€ Quantity II
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Q75
mcq
Quantity I: Actual discount percent. If a shopkeeper
gives 1 article free at every purchase of 4 articles and
also give 20% discount.
Quantity II: Final new profit percent. If selling price
is increased by 14 2 % then profit percent becomes 36
of initial profit percent. 7 19
a.
Quantity I > Quantity II
b.
Quantity I < Quantity II
c.
Quantity I β₯ Quantity II
d.
Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation
e.
Quantity I β€ Quantity II
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Q76
mcq
Cost price of article A is Rs 600 more than that of B
and selling price of A is Rs 1200 more than that of B.
If difference between profit earned on selling these
two articles is 13 1 % of the cost price of A then find
3
profit earned on B if profit % earned on A is 33 1 %?
3
a.
Rs 800
b.
Rs 900
c.
Rs 840
d.
Rs 960
e.
Rs 1000
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Q77
mcq
In 100 lit mixture of milk and water, milk is 68 lit more
than that of water. When βaβ lit of milk is taken out and
(a+15) lit of water is added, milk becomes 50% more
than that of water. Find value of βaβ?
a.
20
b.
15
c.
18
d.
12
e.
16
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Q78
mcq
Investment of Sumit is 25% more than that of Maanik
and that of Ravi is Rs 8000 in that business. After 8
months, Sumit and Maanik have increased their
amount by 20%,25% respectively and at the end of
the year, profit share of Sumit and Ravi becomes equal
then find the profit share percentage of Maanik?
a.
28 8 %
b.
28 1 %
c.
27 4 % 9 3 9
d.
33 1 %
e.
26 2 % 3 3
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Q79
mcq
Area of rectangle having length and breadth in the
ratio of 4: 3 is 432 cm 2 . A square whose side is equal
to diagonal of rectangle then find ratio of numerical
value of perimeter to the area of square?
a.
60 sec
b.
58 sec
c.
55 sec
d.
50sec
e.
65 sec | www.careerpower.in | Adda247 App ENGLISH LANGUAGE
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Q81
mcq
and answer the questions given below them. Certain words
are given in bold to help you locate them while answering
some of the questions.
At the first monetary policy statement of the Reserve Bank
of India (RBI) for 2018-19, it seems impossible to believe
that the previous bi-monthly on 7 February marked a high
point in the relationship between the Union finance
ministry and the RBI. There was on that date a regulatory
add-on of a 180-day window of forbearance for payment
dues from small borrowers, and abolition of loan limits in
the MSME (medium, small and micro enterprises) segment.
Those initiatives followed the supportive measures for the
small- scale sector in the Union budget on 1 February,
through the corporate tax cut, and additional funding for
the Micro-units Development Refinance Agency (Mudra).
The appearance of team play was shattered after the
Punjab National Bank (PNB) fraud broke in mid- February.
The PNB fraud has variously been placed as having been in
operation since 2011, perhaps even earlier. Union finance
minister Arun Jaitley, speaking at the Economic Times
Global Business Summit on 23 February, blamed the top
management and auditors of PNB, but was also quoted as
having added: βRegulators ultimately decide the rules of
the game and regulators have to have a third eye which is
to be perpetually open. But unfortunately in the Indian
system, we politicians are accountable, the regulators
are not.β
RBI governor Urjit Patel came back forcefully on the
occasion of a 14 March address at the Gujarat National Law
University, pointing to the lack of ownership-neutrality in
the Banking Regulation Act of 1949. The act as amended
withholds the RBI from imposing certain types of penalties
for errant conduct on public sector banks, like firing the
chief executive officer, removing directors or superseding
the board. The speech lists seven of them. Patel was right
to have pointed them out, appropriately in an address to
young entrants into the legal profession. That kind of
unevenness in the regulatory landscape clearly has to be
swept away.
The PNB fraud is said to have started rolling in 2011. As it
happens, RBI that year appointed a high-level steering
committee chaired by then deputy governor K.C.
Chakraborty (a past chairman of PNB), to upgrade banking
supervision to global best practices. Its report
recommended that supervision be expanded in scope to go
beyond a narrow focus on regulatory compliance or bank
solvency, towards assessing the riskiness of a bankβs
operations, and its risk mitigation strategies.
Independently, an inspection of select overseas branches
of Indian banks was also conducted in May 2012, the
previous one having been done in May 2008, but the
findings are not publicly known.
8 www.bankersadda.com | www.sscadda.com
The Chakraborty Committee report was submitted in June
2012. Its recommendations were accepted, and the
supervisory system overhauled on to a new risk-based
supervision (RBS) platform. Training was initiated for
senior officers of the major banks. The new framework
went into operation in 2013-14, renamed SPARC
(supervisory programme for assessment of risk and
capital). An initial set of 28 banks from across the
ownership spectrum, accounting for 60% of total banking
assets, was covered that year. PNB may well have been
among them. Eight more banks were added over the next
two years, and by 2016- 17, all scheduled commercial
banks were covered. SPARC specifically calls for ongoing
interaction between banks and supervisors, not just
periodic inspections. Finally, there is a further overlay
since 28 February 2017 of a standing committee on cyber
security.
In a parallel development starting in 2012-13, memoranda
of understanding (MoUs) were signed with 16 overseas
regulators, which the annual report for that year says led
to βsubstantial progress in supervisory information
sharing and cooperation within jurisdictions where Indian
banks are operatingβ. By the close of reporting year 2016-
17, the number of such MoUs had expanded to 40, and
there was also a statement of cooperation with three US
financial regulators. Since overseas jurisdictions were
another point from which the PNB fraud could have been
spotted, these agreements do not seem to have led to
information exchange of any diagnostic value.
What benefits have been provided by the government
to small borrowers?
(I) Allocation of additional funds.
(II) Abrogating the loan limits in the MSME segment.
(III) Government has extended the time period for
small borrowers for payment of their dues.
a.
Only (I)
b.
Only (III)
c.
Both (II) and (III)
d.
Both (I) and (III)
e.
All are correct
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Q82
mcq
and answer the questions given below them. Certain words
are given in bold to help you locate them while answering
some of the questions.
At the first monetary policy statement of the Reserve Bank
of India (RBI) for 2018-19, it seems impossible to believe
that the previous bi-monthly on 7 February marked a high
point in the relationship between the Union finance
ministry and the RBI. There was on that date a regulatory
add-on of a 180-day window of forbearance for payment
dues from small borrowers, and abolition of loan limits in
the MSME (medium, small and micro enterprises) segment.
Those initiatives followed the supportive measures for the
small- scale sector in the Union budget on 1 February,
through the corporate tax cut, and additional funding for
the Micro-units Development Refinance Agency (Mudra).
The appearance of team play was shattered after the
Punjab National Bank (PNB) fraud broke in mid- February.
The PNB fraud has variously been placed as having been in
operation since 2011, perhaps even earlier. Union finance
minister Arun Jaitley, speaking at the Economic Times
Global Business Summit on 23 February, blamed the top
management and auditors of PNB, but was also quoted as
having added: βRegulators ultimately decide the rules of
the game and regulators have to have a third eye which is
to be perpetually open. But unfortunately in the Indian
system, we politicians are accountable, the regulators
are not.β
RBI governor Urjit Patel came back forcefully on the
occasion of a 14 March address at the Gujarat National Law
University, pointing to the lack of ownership-neutrality in
the Banking Regulation Act of 1949. The act as amended
withholds the RBI from imposing certain types of penalties
for errant conduct on public sector banks, like firing the
chief executive officer, removing directors or superseding
the board. The speech lists seven of them. Patel was right
to have pointed them out, appropriately in an address to
young entrants into the legal profession. That kind of
unevenness in the regulatory landscape clearly has to be
swept away.
The PNB fraud is said to have started rolling in 2011. As it
happens, RBI that year appointed a high-level steering
committee chaired by then deputy governor K.C.
Chakraborty (a past chairman of PNB), to upgrade banking
supervision to global best practices. Its report
recommended that supervision be expanded in scope to go
beyond a narrow focus on regulatory compliance or bank
solvency, towards assessing the riskiness of a bankβs
operations, and its risk mitigation strategies.
Independently, an inspection of select overseas branches
of Indian banks was also conducted in May 2012, the
previous one having been done in May 2008, but the
findings are not publicly known.
8 www.bankersadda.com | www.sscadda.com
The Chakraborty Committee report was submitted in June
2012. Its recommendations were accepted, and the
supervisory system overhauled on to a new risk-based
supervision (RBS) platform. Training was initiated for
senior officers of the major banks. The new framework
went into operation in 2013-14, renamed SPARC
(supervisory programme for assessment of risk and
capital). An initial set of 28 banks from across the
ownership spectrum, accounting for 60% of total banking
assets, was covered that year. PNB may well have been
among them. Eight more banks were added over the next
two years, and by 2016- 17, all scheduled commercial
banks were covered. SPARC specifically calls for ongoing
interaction between banks and supervisors, not just
periodic inspections. Finally, there is a further overlay
since 28 February 2017 of a standing committee on cyber
security.
In a parallel development starting in 2012-13, memoranda
of understanding (MoUs) were signed with 16 overseas
regulators, which the annual report for that year says led
to βsubstantial progress in supervisory information
sharing and cooperation within jurisdictions where Indian
banks are operatingβ. By the close of reporting year 2016-
17, the number of such MoUs had expanded to 40, and
there was also a statement of cooperation with three US
financial regulators. Since overseas jurisdictions were
another point from which the PNB fraud could have been
spotted, these agreements do not seem to have led to
information exchange of any diagnostic value.
What can be inferred from the statement, βwe
politicians are accountable, the regulators are
not.β?
a.
Only politicians need to take decisions for regulating the banks.
b.
and
c.
In Indian system, politicians are made responsible for any type of fraudulent activity.
d.
Both
e.
All are correct | www.careerpower.in | Adda247 App
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Q83
mcq
and answer the questions given below them. Certain words
are given in bold to help you locate them while answering
some of the questions.
At the first monetary policy statement of the Reserve Bank
of India (RBI) for 2018-19, it seems impossible to believe
that the previous bi-monthly on 7 February marked a high
point in the relationship between the Union finance
ministry and the RBI. There was on that date a regulatory
add-on of a 180-day window of forbearance for payment
dues from small borrowers, and abolition of loan limits in
the MSME (medium, small and micro enterprises) segment.
Those initiatives followed the supportive measures for the
small- scale sector in the Union budget on 1 February,
through the corporate tax cut, and additional funding for
the Micro-units Development Refinance Agency (Mudra).
The appearance of team play was shattered after the
Punjab National Bank (PNB) fraud broke in mid- February.
The PNB fraud has variously been placed as having been in
operation since 2011, perhaps even earlier. Union finance
minister Arun Jaitley, speaking at the Economic Times
Global Business Summit on 23 February, blamed the top
management and auditors of PNB, but was also quoted as
having added: βRegulators ultimately decide the rules of
the game and regulators have to have a third eye which is
to be perpetually open. But unfortunately in the Indian
system, we politicians are accountable, the regulators
are not.β
RBI governor Urjit Patel came back forcefully on the
occasion of a 14 March address at the Gujarat National Law
University, pointing to the lack of ownership-neutrality in
the Banking Regulation Act of 1949. The act as amended
withholds the RBI from imposing certain types of penalties
for errant conduct on public sector banks, like firing the
chief executive officer, removing directors or superseding
the board. The speech lists seven of them. Patel was right
to have pointed them out, appropriately in an address to
young entrants into the legal profession. That kind of
unevenness in the regulatory landscape clearly has to be
swept away.
The PNB fraud is said to have started rolling in 2011. As it
happens, RBI that year appointed a high-level steering
committee chaired by then deputy governor K.C.
Chakraborty (a past chairman of PNB), to upgrade banking
supervision to global best practices. Its report
recommended that supervision be expanded in scope to go
beyond a narrow focus on regulatory compliance or bank
solvency, towards assessing the riskiness of a bankβs
operations, and its risk mitigation strategies.
Independently, an inspection of select overseas branches
of Indian banks was also conducted in May 2012, the
previous one having been done in May 2008, but the
findings are not publicly known.
8 www.bankersadda.com | www.sscadda.com
The Chakraborty Committee report was submitted in June
2012. Its recommendations were accepted, and the
supervisory system overhauled on to a new risk-based
supervision (RBS) platform. Training was initiated for
senior officers of the major banks. The new framework
went into operation in 2013-14, renamed SPARC
(supervisory programme for assessment of risk and
capital). An initial set of 28 banks from across the
ownership spectrum, accounting for 60% of total banking
assets, was covered that year. PNB may well have been
among them. Eight more banks were added over the next
two years, and by 2016- 17, all scheduled commercial
banks were covered. SPARC specifically calls for ongoing
interaction between banks and supervisors, not just
periodic inspections. Finally, there is a further overlay
since 28 February 2017 of a standing committee on cyber
security.
In a parallel development starting in 2012-13, memoranda
of understanding (MoUs) were signed with 16 overseas
regulators, which the annual report for that year says led
to βsubstantial progress in supervisory information
sharing and cooperation within jurisdictions where Indian
banks are operatingβ. By the close of reporting year 2016-
17, the number of such MoUs had expanded to 40, and
there was also a statement of cooperation with three US
financial regulators. Since overseas jurisdictions were
another point from which the PNB fraud could have been
spotted, these agreements do not seem to have led to
information exchange of any diagnostic value.
Which type(s) of unevenness has/have been pointed
out by RBI governor?
a.
appointment of high level supervision committee
b.
growing fraudulent activities and scams in banks.
c.
uncontrolled regulation in banks.
d.
imposing penalty on PSBs.
e.
All are correct
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Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q84
mcq
and answer the questions given below them. Certain words
are given in bold to help you locate them while answering
some of the questions.
At the first monetary policy statement of the Reserve Bank
of India (RBI) for 2018-19, it seems impossible to believe
that the previous bi-monthly on 7 February marked a high
point in the relationship between the Union finance
ministry and the RBI. There was on that date a regulatory
add-on of a 180-day window of forbearance for payment
dues from small borrowers, and abolition of loan limits in
the MSME (medium, small and micro enterprises) segment.
Those initiatives followed the supportive measures for the
small- scale sector in the Union budget on 1 February,
through the corporate tax cut, and additional funding for
the Micro-units Development Refinance Agency (Mudra).
The appearance of team play was shattered after the
Punjab National Bank (PNB) fraud broke in mid- February.
The PNB fraud has variously been placed as having been in
operation since 2011, perhaps even earlier. Union finance
minister Arun Jaitley, speaking at the Economic Times
Global Business Summit on 23 February, blamed the top
management and auditors of PNB, but was also quoted as
having added: βRegulators ultimately decide the rules of
the game and regulators have to have a third eye which is
to be perpetually open. But unfortunately in the Indian
system, we politicians are accountable, the regulators
are not.β
RBI governor Urjit Patel came back forcefully on the
occasion of a 14 March address at the Gujarat National Law
University, pointing to the lack of ownership-neutrality in
the Banking Regulation Act of 1949. The act as amended
withholds the RBI from imposing certain types of penalties
for errant conduct on public sector banks, like firing the
chief executive officer, removing directors or superseding
the board. The speech lists seven of them. Patel was right
to have pointed them out, appropriately in an address to
young entrants into the legal profession. That kind of
unevenness in the regulatory landscape clearly has to be
swept away.
The PNB fraud is said to have started rolling in 2011. As it
happens, RBI that year appointed a high-level steering
committee chaired by then deputy governor K.C.
Chakraborty (a past chairman of PNB), to upgrade banking
supervision to global best practices. Its report
recommended that supervision be expanded in scope to go
beyond a narrow focus on regulatory compliance or bank
solvency, towards assessing the riskiness of a bankβs
operations, and its risk mitigation strategies.
Independently, an inspection of select overseas branches
of Indian banks was also conducted in May 2012, the
previous one having been done in May 2008, but the
findings are not publicly known.
8 www.bankersadda.com | www.sscadda.com
The Chakraborty Committee report was submitted in June
2012. Its recommendations were accepted, and the
supervisory system overhauled on to a new risk-based
supervision (RBS) platform. Training was initiated for
senior officers of the major banks. The new framework
went into operation in 2013-14, renamed SPARC
(supervisory programme for assessment of risk and
capital). An initial set of 28 banks from across the
ownership spectrum, accounting for 60% of total banking
assets, was covered that year. PNB may well have been
among them. Eight more banks were added over the next
two years, and by 2016- 17, all scheduled commercial
banks were covered. SPARC specifically calls for ongoing
interaction between banks and supervisors, not just
periodic inspections. Finally, there is a further overlay
since 28 February 2017 of a standing committee on cyber
security.
In a parallel development starting in 2012-13, memoranda
of understanding (MoUs) were signed with 16 overseas
regulators, which the annual report for that year says led
to βsubstantial progress in supervisory information
sharing and cooperation within jurisdictions where Indian
banks are operatingβ. By the close of reporting year 2016-
17, the number of such MoUs had expanded to 40, and
there was also a statement of cooperation with three US
financial regulators. Since overseas jurisdictions were
another point from which the PNB fraud could have been
spotted, these agreements do not seem to have led to
information exchange of any diagnostic value.
What are the efforts made by RBI to avoid the future
loss in banks?
(I) turning towards privatization of banks.
(II) providing training to bank officials.
(III) updating supervisory system
a.
Only (I)
b.
Only (III)
c.
Both (II) and (III)
d.
Both (I) and (III)
e.
All are correct
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Q85
mcq
and answer the questions given below them. Certain words
are given in bold to help you locate them while answering
some of the questions.
At the first monetary policy statement of the Reserve Bank
of India (RBI) for 2018-19, it seems impossible to believe
that the previous bi-monthly on 7 February marked a high
point in the relationship between the Union finance
ministry and the RBI. There was on that date a regulatory
add-on of a 180-day window of forbearance for payment
dues from small borrowers, and abolition of loan limits in
the MSME (medium, small and micro enterprises) segment.
Those initiatives followed the supportive measures for the
small- scale sector in the Union budget on 1 February,
through the corporate tax cut, and additional funding for
the Micro-units Development Refinance Agency (Mudra).
The appearance of team play was shattered after the
Punjab National Bank (PNB) fraud broke in mid- February.
The PNB fraud has variously been placed as having been in
operation since 2011, perhaps even earlier. Union finance
minister Arun Jaitley, speaking at the Economic Times
Global Business Summit on 23 February, blamed the top
management and auditors of PNB, but was also quoted as
having added: βRegulators ultimately decide the rules of
the game and regulators have to have a third eye which is
to be perpetually open. But unfortunately in the Indian
system, we politicians are accountable, the regulators
are not.β
RBI governor Urjit Patel came back forcefully on the
occasion of a 14 March address at the Gujarat National Law
University, pointing to the lack of ownership-neutrality in
the Banking Regulation Act of 1949. The act as amended
withholds the RBI from imposing certain types of penalties
for errant conduct on public sector banks, like firing the
chief executive officer, removing directors or superseding
the board. The speech lists seven of them. Patel was right
to have pointed them out, appropriately in an address to
young entrants into the legal profession. That kind of
unevenness in the regulatory landscape clearly has to be
swept away.
The PNB fraud is said to have started rolling in 2011. As it
happens, RBI that year appointed a high-level steering
committee chaired by then deputy governor K.C.
Chakraborty (a past chairman of PNB), to upgrade banking
supervision to global best practices. Its report
recommended that supervision be expanded in scope to go
beyond a narrow focus on regulatory compliance or bank
solvency, towards assessing the riskiness of a bankβs
operations, and its risk mitigation strategies.
Independently, an inspection of select overseas branches
of Indian banks was also conducted in May 2012, the
previous one having been done in May 2008, but the
findings are not publicly known.
8 www.bankersadda.com | www.sscadda.com
The Chakraborty Committee report was submitted in June
2012. Its recommendations were accepted, and the
supervisory system overhauled on to a new risk-based
supervision (RBS) platform. Training was initiated for
senior officers of the major banks. The new framework
went into operation in 2013-14, renamed SPARC
(supervisory programme for assessment of risk and
capital). An initial set of 28 banks from across the
ownership spectrum, accounting for 60% of total banking
assets, was covered that year. PNB may well have been
among them. Eight more banks were added over the next
two years, and by 2016- 17, all scheduled commercial
banks were covered. SPARC specifically calls for ongoing
interaction between banks and supervisors, not just
periodic inspections. Finally, there is a further overlay
since 28 February 2017 of a standing committee on cyber
security.
In a parallel development starting in 2012-13, memoranda
of understanding (MoUs) were signed with 16 overseas
regulators, which the annual report for that year says led
to βsubstantial progress in supervisory information
sharing and cooperation within jurisdictions where Indian
banks are operatingβ. By the close of reporting year 2016-
17, the number of such MoUs had expanded to 40, and
there was also a statement of cooperation with three US
financial regulators. Since overseas jurisdictions were
another point from which the PNB fraud could have been
spotted, these agreements do not seem to have led to
information exchange of any diagnostic value.
Identify the tone of the author with respect to the
passage.
a.
eulogistic
b.
informal
c.
nostalgic
d.
critical
e.
didactic
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Q86
mcq
and answer the questions given below them. Certain words
are given in bold to help you locate them while answering
some of the questions.
At the first monetary policy statement of the Reserve Bank
of India (RBI) for 2018-19, it seems impossible to believe
that the previous bi-monthly on 7 February marked a high
point in the relationship between the Union finance
ministry and the RBI. There was on that date a regulatory
add-on of a 180-day window of forbearance for payment
dues from small borrowers, and abolition of loan limits in
the MSME (medium, small and micro enterprises) segment.
Those initiatives followed the supportive measures for the
small- scale sector in the Union budget on 1 February,
through the corporate tax cut, and additional funding for
the Micro-units Development Refinance Agency (Mudra).
The appearance of team play was shattered after the
Punjab National Bank (PNB) fraud broke in mid- February.
The PNB fraud has variously been placed as having been in
operation since 2011, perhaps even earlier. Union finance
minister Arun Jaitley, speaking at the Economic Times
Global Business Summit on 23 February, blamed the top
management and auditors of PNB, but was also quoted as
having added: βRegulators ultimately decide the rules of
the game and regulators have to have a third eye which is
to be perpetually open. But unfortunately in the Indian
system, we politicians are accountable, the regulators
are not.β
RBI governor Urjit Patel came back forcefully on the
occasion of a 14 March address at the Gujarat National Law
University, pointing to the lack of ownership-neutrality in
the Banking Regulation Act of 1949. The act as amended
withholds the RBI from imposing certain types of penalties
for errant conduct on public sector banks, like firing the
chief executive officer, removing directors or superseding
the board. The speech lists seven of them. Patel was right
to have pointed them out, appropriately in an address to
young entrants into the legal profession. That kind of
unevenness in the regulatory landscape clearly has to be
swept away.
The PNB fraud is said to have started rolling in 2011. As it
happens, RBI that year appointed a high-level steering
committee chaired by then deputy governor K.C.
Chakraborty (a past chairman of PNB), to upgrade banking
supervision to global best practices. Its report
recommended that supervision be expanded in scope to go
beyond a narrow focus on regulatory compliance or bank
solvency, towards assessing the riskiness of a bankβs
operations, and its risk mitigation strategies.
Independently, an inspection of select overseas branches
of Indian banks was also conducted in May 2012, the
previous one having been done in May 2008, but the
findings are not publicly known.
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The Chakraborty Committee report was submitted in June
2012. Its recommendations were accepted, and the
supervisory system overhauled on to a new risk-based
supervision (RBS) platform. Training was initiated for
senior officers of the major banks. The new framework
went into operation in 2013-14, renamed SPARC
(supervisory programme for assessment of risk and
capital). An initial set of 28 banks from across the
ownership spectrum, accounting for 60% of total banking
assets, was covered that year. PNB may well have been
among them. Eight more banks were added over the next
two years, and by 2016- 17, all scheduled commercial
banks were covered. SPARC specifically calls for ongoing
interaction between banks and supervisors, not just
periodic inspections. Finally, there is a further overlay
since 28 February 2017 of a standing committee on cyber
security.
In a parallel development starting in 2012-13, memoranda
of understanding (MoUs) were signed with 16 overseas
regulators, which the annual report for that year says led
to βsubstantial progress in supervisory information
sharing and cooperation within jurisdictions where Indian
banks are operatingβ. By the close of reporting year 2016-
17, the number of such MoUs had expanded to 40, and
there was also a statement of cooperation with three US
financial regulators. Since overseas jurisdictions were
another point from which the PNB fraud could have been
spotted, these agreements do not seem to have led to
information exchange of any diagnostic value.
According to the passage, the new framework SPARC
includes
(I) to upgrade banking supervision to global
standards.
(II) interaction between banks and supervisors.
(III) enhancing cyber security of scheduled
commercial banks
a.
Only (I)
b.
Only (III)
c.
Both (II) and (III)
d.
Both (I) and (III)
e.
All are correct
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Q87
mcq
similar in meaning to the word printed in bold in the
context of the passage.
Perpetually
a.
abate
b.
constantly
c.
dissent
d.
harness
e.
stride
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Q88
mcq
similar in meaning to the word printed in bold in the
context of the passage.
Forbearance
a.
banish
b.
cease
c.
recuperate
d.
usurp
e.
tolerance
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Q89
mcq
opposite in meaning of the word printed in bold in the
context of the passage.
Overhaul
a.
ensue
b.
accede
c.
acquiesce
d.
ruin
e.
hapless
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Q90
mcq
opposite in meaning of the word printed in bold in the
context of the passage.
Supersede
a.
herald
b.
confide
c.
concede
d.
relinquish
e.
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Q91
mcq
of the table is used in four different ways, numbered (a) to
(d). Choose the option in which the usage of the word is
INCORRECT or INAPPROPRIATE. If it is used correctly in
every sentence choose option (e) as your choice.
APPRAISE
a.
The President appropriately appraised Russell and Financial Times readers that he had already signed into law the National Peace and Reconciliation Commission Act.
b.
In cooperation with other professionals, social workers will appraise the individual's needs.
c.
He coolly appraised the situation, deciding which person would be most likely to succeed.
d.
This prompted many employers to appraise their selection and recruitment policies
e.
All are correct.
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Q92
mcq
of the table is used in four different ways, numbered (a) to
(d). Choose the option in which the usage of the word is
INCORRECT or INAPPROPRIATE. If it is used correctly in
every sentence choose option (e) as your choice.
CREDULOUS
a.
Because my brother is a credulous consumer, he is a salespersonβs dream.
b.
Even though there was very little evidence, the credulous jury decided the defendant was guilty.
c.
Reference credulous sources to strengthen your argument.
d.
Because the credulous public wanted to believe the killer was off the streets, they never questioned the arrest of an innocent man.
e.
All are correct.
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Q93
mcq
of the table is used in four different ways, numbered (a) to
(d). Choose the option in which the usage of the word is
INCORRECT or INAPPROPRIATE. If it is used correctly in
every sentence choose option (e) as your choice.
FLAUNT
a.
While many people love to flaunt their possessions, I prefer people that keep a low profile.
b.
The orchestra decided to flaunt convention/ tradition and wear their everyday clothes for the concert.
c.
Donald Trump loves to flaunt his wealth and grandiose, whenever he has the chance.
d.
Flavio was flaunting his tan in a pair of white trunks.
e.
All are correct.
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Q94
mcq
of the table is used in four different ways, numbered (a) to
(d). Choose the option in which the usage of the word is
INCORRECT or INAPPROPRIATE. If it is used correctly in
every sentence choose option (e) as your choice.
UNBEARABLE
a.
A delegation of councilors is lobbying the Government because they say the noise is unbearable.
b.
This argument is unbearable from an intellectual, moral and practical standpoint.
c.
All I remember of childbirth was the unbearable pain and the relief when it was all over.
d.
The grief she felt over Helen's death was almost unbearable.
e.
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Q95
mcq
of the table is used in four different ways, numbered (a) to
(d). Choose the option in which the usage of the word is
INCORRECT or INAPPROPRIATE. If it is used correctly in
every sentence choose option (e) as your choice.
LUXURIANT
a.
We've bought a wonderfully luxuriant carpet for our bedroom.
b.
In addition to its inferior size, the coyote is also shorter in the leg than the wolf, and carries a more luxuriant coat of hair.
c.
This stretch of land was once covered with luxuriant forest, but is now bare.
d.
He took no leading part in the war against the English, his energies being largely occupied with the satisfaction of his artistic and luxuriant tastes.
e.
All are correct.
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Q103
mcq
paragraph in a jumbled fashion. Arrange the sentences to
form a coherent paragraph and answer the following
questions.
(A) It plans to use this for the Chandrayaan-II moon
mission in the early months of 2019.
(B) The multi-band, multi-beam satellite can cater to the
communication needs of people in Jammu and
Kashmir and the Northeast.
(C) With a liftoff mass of 640 tonnes, the GSLV MkIII is the
heaviest launch vehicle made in India, and GSAT29 is
the heaviest satellite to take off from Indian soil.
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(D) The Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle MarkIII
(GSLV Mk III) launched GSAT29, an advanced
communications satellite, into a geosynchronous
transfer orbit where the satelliteβs closest approach to
earth would be 190 km and the farthest 35,975 km.
(E) The Indian Space Research Organization has marked
a big milestone by successfully testing its heavy- lift
launcher while launching an advanced
communication satellite.
What should be the last sentence of the sequence?
a.
D
b.
A
c.
B
d.
C
e.
E
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Q104
mcq
paragraph in a jumbled fashion. Arrange the sentences to
form a coherent paragraph and answer the following
questions.
(A) It plans to use this for the Chandrayaan-II moon
mission in the early months of 2019.
(B) The multi-band, multi-beam satellite can cater to the
communication needs of people in Jammu and
Kashmir and the Northeast.
(C) With a liftoff mass of 640 tonnes, the GSLV MkIII is the
heaviest launch vehicle made in India, and GSAT29 is
the heaviest satellite to take off from Indian soil.
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(D) The Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle MarkIII
(GSLV Mk III) launched GSAT29, an advanced
communications satellite, into a geosynchronous
transfer orbit where the satelliteβs closest approach to
earth would be 190 km and the farthest 35,975 km.
(E) The Indian Space Research Organization has marked
a big milestone by successfully testing its heavy- lift
launcher while launching an advanced
communication satellite.
What should be the SECOND sentence of the
sequence?
a.
D
b.
A
c.
B
d.
C
e.
E
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Q105
mcq
paragraph in a jumbled fashion. Arrange the sentences to
form a coherent paragraph and answer the following
questions.
(A) It plans to use this for the Chandrayaan-II moon
mission in the early months of 2019.
(B) The multi-band, multi-beam satellite can cater to the
communication needs of people in Jammu and
Kashmir and the Northeast.
(C) With a liftoff mass of 640 tonnes, the GSLV MkIII is the
heaviest launch vehicle made in India, and GSAT29 is
the heaviest satellite to take off from Indian soil.
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(D) The Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle MarkIII
(GSLV Mk III) launched GSAT29, an advanced
communications satellite, into a geosynchronous
transfer orbit where the satelliteβs closest approach to
earth would be 190 km and the farthest 35,975 km.
(E) The Indian Space Research Organization has marked
a big milestone by successfully testing its heavy- lift
launcher while launching an advanced
communication satellite.
What should be the FOURTH sentence of the final
sequence?
a.
A
b.
E
c.
D
d.
B
e.
C
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Q106
mcq
paragraph in a jumbled fashion. Arrange the sentences to
form a coherent paragraph and answer the following
questions.
(A) It plans to use this for the Chandrayaan-II moon
mission in the early months of 2019.
(B) The multi-band, multi-beam satellite can cater to the
communication needs of people in Jammu and
Kashmir and the Northeast.
(C) With a liftoff mass of 640 tonnes, the GSLV MkIII is the
heaviest launch vehicle made in India, and GSAT29 is
the heaviest satellite to take off from Indian soil.
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(D) The Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle MarkIII
(GSLV Mk III) launched GSAT29, an advanced
communications satellite, into a geosynchronous
transfer orbit where the satelliteβs closest approach to
earth would be 190 km and the farthest 35,975 km.
(E) The Indian Space Research Organization has marked
a big milestone by successfully testing its heavy- lift
launcher while launching an advanced
communication satellite.
What should be the THIRD sentence of the final
sequence?
a.
D
b.
A
c.
C
d.
B
e.
E
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Q107
mcq
paragraph in a jumbled fashion. Arrange the sentences to
form a coherent paragraph and answer the following
questions.
(A) It plans to use this for the Chandrayaan-II moon
mission in the early months of 2019.
(B) The multi-band, multi-beam satellite can cater to the
communication needs of people in Jammu and
Kashmir and the Northeast.
(C) With a liftoff mass of 640 tonnes, the GSLV MkIII is the
heaviest launch vehicle made in India, and GSAT29 is
the heaviest satellite to take off from Indian soil.
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(D) The Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle MarkIII
(GSLV Mk III) launched GSAT29, an advanced
communications satellite, into a geosynchronous
transfer orbit where the satelliteβs closest approach to
earth would be 190 km and the farthest 35,975 km.
(E) The Indian Space Research Organization has marked
a big milestone by successfully testing its heavy- lift
launcher while launching an advanced
communication satellite.
What should be the FIRST sentence of the final
sequence?
a.
C
b.
D
c.
B
d.
E
e.
A
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Q108
mcq
sentence is divided into four parts consisting of a
highlighted word in each part. Choose the option reflecting
the word which is either misspelt or grammatically
incorrect. If all the highlighted words are correct, choose
option (e) i.e. βall are correctβ as your answer choice.
The Monetry Policy Committee / of India is a
committee of the Reserve Bank of India/ that is
responsible for fixing the / benchmark interest rate
in India.
a.
Monetry
b.
Reserve
c.
Responsible
d.
Interest
e.
All are correct
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Q109
mcq
sentence is divided into four parts consisting of a
highlighted word in each part. Choose the option reflecting
the word which is either misspelt or grammatically
incorrect. If all the highlighted words are correct, choose
option (e) i.e. βall are correctβ as your answer choice.
Trade wars can easily / lead to confrontation, which
may / result in impulsive / behviour and
misjudgment.
a.
Trade
b.
Confrontation
c.
Impulsive
d.
Behviour
e.
All are correct
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Q110
mcq
sentence is divided into four parts consisting of a
highlighted word in each part. Choose the option reflecting
the word which is either misspelt or grammatically
incorrect. If all the highlighted words are correct, choose
option (e) i.e. βall are correctβ as your answer choice.
Saudi Arabia signalled its discomfort / with the
faling prices / and hinted at a fresh cut / of one
million barrels a day.
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a.
Signalled
b.
Faling
c.
Hinted
d.
Barrels
e.
All are correct
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