RRB · RRB-CLERK-MAINS
RRB RRB-CLERK-MAINS 2018
2018
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103 questions
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Q1
mcq
and answer the questions given below.
Eight persons i.e. C, D, E, J, K, P, R and Q sitting in a two-
parallel row such that person sitting in row 2 faces north
and the person sitting in row 1 faces south. They all are of
different age. The one who faces K sits third to the right of
J. One of the immediate neighbour of K is 9 years old and
faces E. D sits second to the right of R. Q faces south
direction. D does not sit in the same row with E. One of the
immediate neighbour of E faces the one who is 14 years
old. One of the immediate neighbour of R faces C, who is 7
years old. C does not face the immediate neighbour of D. P
is 18 years of Age. The one who is 10 years of age sits
second to the right of the one who is 23 years of age. K is 1
year older than D, whose age is an even number. The
immediate neighbour of P faces the one who is 12 years of
age and faces south direction.
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inbox + total no. of spam mail received
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Q2
mcq
and answer the questions given below.
Eight persons i.e. C, D, E, J, K, P, R and Q sitting in a two-
parallel row such that person sitting in row 2 faces north
and the person sitting in row 1 faces south. They all are of
different age. The one who faces K sits third to the right of
J. One of the immediate neighbour of K is 9 years old and
faces E. D sits second to the right of R. Q faces south
direction. D does not sit in the same row with E. One of the
immediate neighbour of E faces the one who is 14 years
old. One of the immediate neighbour of R faces C, who is 7
years old. C does not face the immediate neighbour of D. P
is 18 years of Age. The one who is 10 years of age sits
second to the right of the one who is 23 years of age. K is 1
year older than D, whose age is an even number. The
immediate neighbour of P faces the one who is 12 years of
age and faces south direction.
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No explanation saved for this question yet.
Q3
mcq
and answer the questions given below.
Eight persons i.e. C, D, E, J, K, P, R and Q sitting in a two-
parallel row such that person sitting in row 2 faces north
and the person sitting in row 1 faces south. They all are of
different age. The one who faces K sits third to the right of
J. One of the immediate neighbour of K is 9 years old and
faces E. D sits second to the right of R. Q faces south
direction. D does not sit in the same row with E. One of the
immediate neighbour of E faces the one who is 14 years
old. One of the immediate neighbour of R faces C, who is 7
years old. C does not face the immediate neighbour of D. P
is 18 years of Age. The one who is 10 years of age sits
second to the right of the one who is 23 years of age. K is 1
year older than D, whose age is an even number. The
immediate neighbour of P faces the one who is 12 years of
age and faces south direction.
Some data are missing, calculate if necessary.
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Q4
mcq
and answer the questions given below.
Eight persons i.e. C, D, E, J, K, P, R and Q sitting in a two-
parallel row such that person sitting in row 2 faces north
and the person sitting in row 1 faces south. They all are of
different age. The one who faces K sits third to the right of
J. One of the immediate neighbour of K is 9 years old and
faces E. D sits second to the right of R. Q faces south
direction. D does not sit in the same row with E. One of the
immediate neighbour of E faces the one who is 14 years
old. One of the immediate neighbour of R faces C, who is 7
years old. C does not face the immediate neighbour of D. P
is 18 years of Age. The one who is 10 years of age sits
second to the right of the one who is 23 years of age. K is 1
year older than D, whose age is an even number. The
immediate neighbour of P faces the one who is 12 years of
age and faces south direction.
Four of the following five belongs to a group find the
one that does not belong to that group?
a.
K
b.
J
c.
D
d.
C
e.
Q
Correct Answer
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Q5
mcq
and answer the questions given below.
Eight persons i.e. C, D, E, J, K, P, R and Q sitting in a two-
parallel row such that person sitting in row 2 faces north
and the person sitting in row 1 faces south. They all are of
different age. The one who faces K sits third to the right of
J. One of the immediate neighbour of K is 9 years old and
faces E. D sits second to the right of R. Q faces south
direction. D does not sit in the same row with E. One of the
immediate neighbour of E faces the one who is 14 years
old. One of the immediate neighbour of R faces C, who is 7
years old. C does not face the immediate neighbour of D. P
is 18 years of Age. The one who is 10 years of age sits
second to the right of the one who is 23 years of age. K is 1
year older than D, whose age is an even number. The
immediate neighbour of P faces the one who is 12 years of
age and faces south direction.
Who among the following pairs are the immediate
neighbour of Q?
a.
C and J
b.
D and R
Correct Answer
c.
P and R
d.
K and P
e.
None of these
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Q6
mcq
carefully and answer the questions given below:
Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F sit around a circular table
equidistant to each other facing center. Each of them is
from different city viz. Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata, Hyderabad,
Chennai and Pune but not necessarily in the same order.
Only one person sits between A and the one who is from
Pune. The one who is from Mumbai sits second to the right
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Mains 2018
ABILITY
of one who is from Pune. F sits opposite to the one who is
from Mumbai. F sits second to the left of C. Only one person
sits between the one who is from Chennai and C. E sits
immediate left of the one who is from Chennai. F is not from
Chennai and D is not from Pune. The one who is from Delhi
sits second to the left of the one who is from Kolkata.
Who among the following belongs to Kolkata?
a.
A
b.
B
c.
C
Correct Answer
d.
D
e.
E
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Q7
mcq
carefully and answer the questions given below:
Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F sit around a circular table
equidistant to each other facing center. Each of them is
from different city viz. Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata, Hyderabad,
Chennai and Pune but not necessarily in the same order.
Only one person sits between A and the one who is from
Pune. The one who is from Mumbai sits second to the right
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ABILITY
of one who is from Pune. F sits opposite to the one who is
from Mumbai. F sits second to the left of C. Only one person
sits between the one who is from Chennai and C. E sits
immediate left of the one who is from Chennai. F is not from
Chennai and D is not from Pune. The one who is from Delhi
sits second to the left of the one who is from Kolkata.
The one who sits opposite to C belongs to which city?
a.
Kolkata
b.
Hyderabad
Correct Answer
c.
Pune
d.
Delhi
e.
Mumbai
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Q8
mcq
carefully and answer the questions given below:
Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F sit around a circular table
equidistant to each other facing center. Each of them is
from different city viz. Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata, Hyderabad,
Chennai and Pune but not necessarily in the same order.
Only one person sits between A and the one who is from
Pune. The one who is from Mumbai sits second to the right
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Mains 2018
ABILITY
of one who is from Pune. F sits opposite to the one who is
from Mumbai. F sits second to the left of C. Only one person
sits between the one who is from Chennai and C. E sits
immediate left of the one who is from Chennai. F is not from
Chennai and D is not from Pune. The one who is from Delhi
sits second to the left of the one who is from Kolkata.
E belongs to which city?
a.
Mumbai
Correct Answer
b.
Kolkata
c.
Pune
d.
Chennai
e.
Delhi
No explanation saved for this question yet.
Q9
mcq
carefully and answer the questions given below:
Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F sit around a circular table
equidistant to each other facing center. Each of them is
from different city viz. Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata, Hyderabad,
Chennai and Pune but not necessarily in the same order.
Only one person sits between A and the one who is from
Pune. The one who is from Mumbai sits second to the right
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Mains 2018
ABILITY
of one who is from Pune. F sits opposite to the one who is
from Mumbai. F sits second to the left of C. Only one person
sits between the one who is from Chennai and C. E sits
immediate left of the one who is from Chennai. F is not from
Chennai and D is not from Pune. The one who is from Delhi
sits second to the left of the one who is from Kolkata.
How many persons sit between A and D counting from
right of A?
a.
one
b.
two
c.
three
d.
four
Correct Answer
e.
None
No explanation saved for this question yet.
Q10
mcq
carefully and answer the questions given below:
Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F sit around a circular table
equidistant to each other facing center. Each of them is
from different city viz. Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata, Hyderabad,
Chennai and Pune but not necessarily in the same order.
Only one person sits between A and the one who is from
Pune. The one who is from Mumbai sits second to the right
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ABILITY
of one who is from Pune. F sits opposite to the one who is
from Mumbai. F sits second to the left of C. Only one person
sits between the one who is from Chennai and C. E sits
immediate left of the one who is from Chennai. F is not from
Chennai and D is not from Pune. The one who is from Delhi
sits second to the left of the one who is from Kolkata.
Who belongs to Chennai?
a.
B
b.
C
c.
D
Correct Answer
d.
E
e.
F
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Designation Person City Clerk K Shimla PO P Mangalore AM M Kochi MG N Thrissur DGM J Gwalior GM L Cuttack
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Q11
mcq
carefully and answer the questions given below.
Six employees J, K, L, M, N and P work in a company at
different post viz. clerk, PO, AM, MG, DGM and GM. All the
designations given are to be considered in a given order (as
GM is considered as Senior-most and Clerk is considered as
the Junior-most). Each of them belongs to six different
cities viz. Gwalior, Mangalore, Cuttack, Kochi, Shimla and
Thrissur.
Only two persons are junior to M, who belongs to Kochi. N
is senior to M but junior to the one who belongs to Cuttack.
J is immediate senior to the one who belongs to Thrissur.
The one who is from Gwalior is immediate junior to L. J is
not from Cuttack. The one who is junior most belongs to
Shimla. K does not belong to Mangalore.
Who among the following is DGM?
a.
J
b.
K
c.
L
d.
M
e.
N
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Q12
mcq
carefully and answer the questions given below.
Six employees J, K, L, M, N and P work in a company at
different post viz. clerk, PO, AM, MG, DGM and GM. All the
designations given are to be considered in a given order (as
GM is considered as Senior-most and Clerk is considered as
the Junior-most). Each of them belongs to six different
cities viz. Gwalior, Mangalore, Cuttack, Kochi, Shimla and
Thrissur.
Only two persons are junior to M, who belongs to Kochi. N
is senior to M but junior to the one who belongs to Cuttack.
J is immediate senior to the one who belongs to Thrissur.
The one who is from Gwalior is immediate junior to L. J is
not from Cuttack. The one who is junior most belongs to
Shimla. K does not belong to Mangalore.
GM of the company belongs to which city?
a.
Mangalore
b.
Gwalior
c.
Thrissur
d.
Cuttack
e.
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Q13
mcq
carefully and answer the questions given below.
Six employees J, K, L, M, N and P work in a company at
different post viz. clerk, PO, AM, MG, DGM and GM. All the
designations given are to be considered in a given order (as
GM is considered as Senior-most and Clerk is considered as
the Junior-most). Each of them belongs to six different
cities viz. Gwalior, Mangalore, Cuttack, Kochi, Shimla and
Thrissur.
Only two persons are junior to M, who belongs to Kochi. N
is senior to M but junior to the one who belongs to Cuttack.
J is immediate senior to the one who belongs to Thrissur.
The one who is from Gwalior is immediate junior to L. J is
not from Cuttack. The one who is junior most belongs to
Shimla. K does not belong to Mangalore.
How many persons are senior to the one who belongs
to Mangalore?
a.
one
b.
two
c.
three
d.
four
e.
five
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Q14
mcq
carefully and answer the questions given below.
Six employees J, K, L, M, N and P work in a company at
different post viz. clerk, PO, AM, MG, DGM and GM. All the
designations given are to be considered in a given order (as
GM is considered as Senior-most and Clerk is considered as
the Junior-most). Each of them belongs to six different
cities viz. Gwalior, Mangalore, Cuttack, Kochi, Shimla and
Thrissur.
Only two persons are junior to M, who belongs to Kochi. N
is senior to M but junior to the one who belongs to Cuttack.
J is immediate senior to the one who belongs to Thrissur.
The one who is from Gwalior is immediate junior to L. J is
not from Cuttack. The one who is junior most belongs to
Shimla. K does not belong to Mangalore.
P belongs to which city?
a.
Mangalore
b.
Gwalior
c.
Thrissur
d.
Cuttack
e.
Cannot be determined
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Q15
mcq
carefully and answer the questions given below.
Six employees J, K, L, M, N and P work in a company at
different post viz. clerk, PO, AM, MG, DGM and GM. All the
designations given are to be considered in a given order (as
GM is considered as Senior-most and Clerk is considered as
the Junior-most). Each of them belongs to six different
cities viz. Gwalior, Mangalore, Cuttack, Kochi, Shimla and
Thrissur.
Only two persons are junior to M, who belongs to Kochi. N
is senior to M but junior to the one who belongs to Cuttack.
J is immediate senior to the one who belongs to Thrissur.
The one who is from Gwalior is immediate junior to L. J is
not from Cuttack. The one who is junior most belongs to
Shimla. K does not belong to Mangalore.
Who is immediate junior to J and he belongs to which
city?
a.
N, Kochi
b.
P, Mangalore
c.
L, Shimla
d.
K, Cuttack
e.
N, Thrissur
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Q16
mcq
carefully and answer the questions given below.
Six jars namely C, D, E, F, G and H contains different amount
of mixtures. Jar E has more than 10 litre mixture. Jar C is
lighter than only two jars. E is heavier than D but lighter
than F. Jar G is heavier than H. F is not heaviest. Jar H is
heavier than D and has 9 litre mixture.
Which among the following jar is second lightest?
a.
F
b.
C
c.
D
d.
H
e.
E
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Q17
mcq
carefully and answer the questions given below.
Six jars namely C, D, E, F, G and H contains different amount
of mixtures. Jar E has more than 10 litre mixture. Jar C is
lighter than only two jars. E is heavier than D but lighter
than F. Jar G is heavier than H. F is not heaviest. Jar H is
heavier than D and has 9 litre mixture.
Which among the following jar is heaviest?
a.
E
b.
G
c.
F
d.
D
e.
H
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Q18
mcq
carefully and answer the questions given below.
Six jars namely C, D, E, F, G and H contains different amount
of mixtures. Jar E has more than 10 litre mixture. Jar C is
lighter than only two jars. E is heavier than D but lighter
than F. Jar G is heavier than H. F is not heaviest. Jar H is
heavier than D and has 9 litre mixture.
What could be the amount of mixture in jar E if jar C
has 16 litre mixture?
a.
11 litre
b.
8 litre
c.
23 litre
d.
18 litre
e.
21 litre
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Q19
mcq
carefully and answer the questions given below:
There are Seven Members A, B, C, D, E, F and L in a family.
There are two married couples and only three generations
in the family. F is grandmother of B, who is niece of D. F has
one son and one daughter. C is brother-in-law of D. L is
grandfather of E. B has no siblings.
How is F related to mother of B?
a.
sister
b.
grandmother
c.
daughter
d.
mother
e.
wife
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Q20
mcq
carefully and answer the questions given below:
There are Seven Members A, B, C, D, E, F and L in a family.
There are two married couples and only three generations
in the family. F is grandmother of B, who is niece of D. F has
one son and one daughter. C is brother-in-law of D. L is
grandfather of E. B has no siblings.
How is A related to child of D?
a.
Grandfather
b.
Aunt
c.
Uncle
d.
Brother
e.
Cousin
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Q21
mcq
carefully and answer the questions given below:
Eleven persons i.e. A, B, C, H, L, N, T, G, R, M and Q who all
bought laptops on different days one after the other. Three
person bought laptop between G and T. Only one person
bought laptop between L and T. H bought immediately
after T. Four person bought laptop between L and M. Only
three persons bought laptop between R and L. More than
three persons bought laptop between Q and H. Four
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persons bought laptop between R and C, who bought
laptop after R. Not More than two persons bought laptop
after C. More than three person bought laptop between M
and B. Q does not bought laptop first or last. A bought
laptop before C but after N. M bought after H and B bought
after N.
Who among the following bought laptop first among
all?
a.
N
b.
L
c.
T
d.
A
e.
None of these
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Q22
mcq
carefully and answer the questions given below:
Eleven persons i.e. A, B, C, H, L, N, T, G, R, M and Q who all
bought laptops on different days one after the other. Three
person bought laptop between G and T. Only one person
bought laptop between L and T. H bought immediately
after T. Four person bought laptop between L and M. Only
three persons bought laptop between R and L. More than
three persons bought laptop between Q and H. Four
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persons bought laptop between R and C, who bought
laptop after R. Not More than two persons bought laptop
after C. More than three person bought laptop between M
and B. Q does not bought laptop first or last. A bought
laptop before C but after N. M bought after H and B bought
after N.
How many persons bought laptop between N and G?
a.
Two
b.
Three
c.
One
d.
Four
e.
None of these
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Q23
mcq
carefully and answer the questions given below:
Eleven persons i.e. A, B, C, H, L, N, T, G, R, M and Q who all
bought laptops on different days one after the other. Three
person bought laptop between G and T. Only one person
bought laptop between L and T. H bought immediately
after T. Four person bought laptop between L and M. Only
three persons bought laptop between R and L. More than
three persons bought laptop between Q and H. Four
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persons bought laptop between R and C, who bought
laptop after R. Not More than two persons bought laptop
after C. More than three person bought laptop between M
and B. Q does not bought laptop first or last. A bought
laptop before C but after N. M bought after H and B bought
after N.
Who among the following bought immediately after
A?
a.
Q
b.
R
c.
B
d.
L
e.
None of these
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Q24
mcq
carefully and answer the questions given below:
Eleven persons i.e. A, B, C, H, L, N, T, G, R, M and Q who all
bought laptops on different days one after the other. Three
person bought laptop between G and T. Only one person
bought laptop between L and T. H bought immediately
after T. Four person bought laptop between L and M. Only
three persons bought laptop between R and L. More than
three persons bought laptop between Q and H. Four
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persons bought laptop between R and C, who bought
laptop after R. Not More than two persons bought laptop
after C. More than three person bought laptop between M
and B. Q does not bought laptop first or last. A bought
laptop before C but after N. M bought after H and B bought
after N.
Four of the following five pairs belongs to a group find
the one that does not belong to that group?
a.
G and C
b.
R and T
c.
N and H
d.
M and A
e.
L and T
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Q25
mcq
carefully and answer the questions given below:
Eleven persons i.e. A, B, C, H, L, N, T, G, R, M and Q who all
bought laptops on different days one after the other. Three
person bought laptop between G and T. Only one person
bought laptop between L and T. H bought immediately
after T. Four person bought laptop between L and M. Only
three persons bought laptop between R and L. More than
three persons bought laptop between Q and H. Four
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persons bought laptop between R and C, who bought
laptop after R. Not More than two persons bought laptop
after C. More than three person bought laptop between M
and B. Q does not bought laptop first or last. A bought
laptop before C but after N. M bought after H and B bought
after N.
Which of the following statement is false regarding Q?
a.
Only two persons bought after Q.
b.
More than Three persons bought between Q and T.
c.
Q bought laptop immediately after C
d.
Two persons bought between Q and M.
e.
All are correct
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Q26
mcq
of a question and two statements numbered I and II given
below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in
the statements are sufficient to answer the question.
(a) If statements I alone is sufficient to answer the
question, but statement II alone is not sufficient to
answer the question.
(b) If statement II alone is sufficient to answer the
question, but statement I alone is not sufficient to
answer the question.
(c) If statement either I or II is sufficient to answer the
question.
(d) If both the statements I and II taken together are not
sufficient to answer the questions.
(e) If both the statements I and II taken together are
sufficient to answer the questions.
Five persons i.e. M, N, O, P and Q who all are of
different heights who among the following is the
shortest?
I. N is shorter than only one person. O is taller than
both P and Q. M is taller than P.
II. Q is taller than only two persons. P is taller than
N but shorter than O. N is not the shortest among
all.
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Q27
mcq
of a question and two statements numbered I and II given
below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in
the statements are sufficient to answer the question.
(a) If statements I alone is sufficient to answer the
question, but statement II alone is not sufficient to
answer the question.
(b) If statement II alone is sufficient to answer the
question, but statement I alone is not sufficient to
answer the question.
(c) If statement either I or II is sufficient to answer the
question.
(d) If both the statements I and II taken together are not
sufficient to answer the questions.
(e) If both the statements I and II taken together are
sufficient to answer the questions.
Six persons i.e. A, B, C, D, E and F who sits in a row
such that all are facing towards north. Who among the
following sits at the right end at the row?
I. A sits second to the right of B. Both A and B does
not sit at the end of the row. Only one person sits
between E and D.
II. C and F are the immediate neighbour of each
other. More than two persons sits between C and
A. E is not the immediate neighbour of B.
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Q28
mcq
of a question and two statements numbered I and II given
below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in
the statements are sufficient to answer the question.
(a) If statements I alone is sufficient to answer the
question, but statement II alone is not sufficient to
answer the question.
(b) If statement II alone is sufficient to answer the
question, but statement I alone is not sufficient to
answer the question.
(c) If statement either I or II is sufficient to answer the
question.
(d) If both the statements I and II taken together are not
sufficient to answer the questions.
(e) If both the statements I and II taken together are
sufficient to answer the questions.
Five persons i.e. U, V, W, X and Y lives in a multi storey
building such that ground floor is numbered 1 and
above it is number 2 and the top floor is numbered 5.
Who among the following lives immediately above V?
I. Only two person lives between V and X. Y does
not live above V. Only one person lives between
U and Y. X lives below U. V and Y does not lives
on adjacent floors of each other.
II. Only one person lives between W and Y. U and V
lives on and adjacent floors. One person lives
between X and V. Only one person lives between
W and U. X lives below V.
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Q29
mcq
of a question and two statements numbered I and II given
below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in
the statements are sufficient to answer the question.
(a) If statements I alone is sufficient to answer the
question, but statement II alone is not sufficient to
answer the question.
(b) If statement II alone is sufficient to answer the
question, but statement I alone is not sufficient to
answer the question.
(c) If statement either I or II is sufficient to answer the
question.
(d) If both the statements I and II taken together are not
sufficient to answer the questions.
(e) If both the statements I and II taken together are
sufficient to answer the questions.
Six persons i.e. A, B, C, D, E,F sits around a circular
table such that facing towards the centre. Who among
the following sits second to the left of D?
I. Only one person sits between A and D. Only two
persons sits between D and E. Only two persons
sits between A and B. B and F are immediate
neighbours.
II. Only two person sits between D and A. E sits
second to the right of C. Only one person sits
between B and F.
Directions (30): Study the following information to
answer the given questions:
A word and number arrangement machine when given an
input line of words, rearranges them following a particular
rule in the given examples. The following is an illustration
of input and rearrangement.
Example 1:
Input: ring 14 wise loyal 36 51 down 97.
output: 14 wise 36 ring 51 loyal 97 down.
Example 2:
Input: hello 91 rise given 21 65 blown 40.
output: 21 rise 40 hello 65 given 91 blown.
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Q30
mcq
What will be the possible output of the given Input?
Input: Sing 84 pen 25 wrong 39 full 60.
a.
25 wrong 39 sing 84 pen 60 full.
b.
39 wrong 25 sing 84 pen 60 full.
c.
25 wrong 39 sing 60 pen 84 full.
d.
39 sing 25 wrong 84 pen 60 full.
e.
None of these 3 www.bankersadda.com | www.sscadda.com
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Q31
mcq
carefully and answer the questions given below:
Arun starts walking in east direction from point A. After
walking for 16m he reaches point B. From B he takes right
turn and walks for 13m to reach point C. Then he takes left
turn and walks 15m to reach point D. Again, he takes left
turn and walks for 20m to reach point E and stop.
Arunβs friend Luv starts from P and walks for 16m in west
direction to reach point Q.
(Note: Point P is North of Point B and also West of Point E.)
What is the shortest distance between Q and A?
a.
13m
b.
18m
c.
9m
d.
10m
e.
7m
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Q32
mcq
carefully and answer the questions given below:
Arun starts walking in east direction from point A. After
walking for 16m he reaches point B. From B he takes right
turn and walks for 13m to reach point C. Then he takes left
turn and walks 15m to reach point D. Again, he takes left
turn and walks for 20m to reach point E and stop.
Arunβs friend Luv starts from P and walks for 16m in west
direction to reach point Q.
(Note: Point P is North of Point B and also West of Point E.)
Point Q is in which direction with respect to point C ?
a.
North
b.
South
c.
Northwest
d.
Northeast
e.
Southwest
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Q33
mcq
carefully and answer the questions given below:
Arun starts walking in east direction from point A. After
walking for 16m he reaches point B. From B he takes right
turn and walks for 13m to reach point C. Then he takes left
turn and walks 15m to reach point D. Again, he takes left
turn and walks for 20m to reach point E and stop.
Arunβs friend Luv starts from P and walks for 16m in west
direction to reach point Q.
(Note: Point P is North of Point B and also West of Point E.)
If F is the mid-point of line ED the F is in which
direction with respect to point B?
a.
East
b.
Southeast
c.
Southwest
d.
Northeast
e.
West
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Q34
mcq
carefully and answer the questions given below:
Arun starts walking in east direction from point A. After
walking for 16m he reaches point B. From B he takes right
turn and walks for 13m to reach point C. Then he takes left
turn and walks 15m to reach point D. Again, he takes left
turn and walks for 20m to reach point E and stop.
Arunβs friend Luv starts from P and walks for 16m in west
direction to reach point Q.
(Note: Point P is North of Point B and also West of Point E.)
Find the odd one out among the following?
a.
BQ
b.
CA
c.
DP
d.
CQ
e.
EB
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Q35
mcq
If in a certain code (10, 23, 52) is written as (5, 11, 26)
and (61, 18, 47) is written as (30, 9, 23) then how
(3616, 25, 11) can be coded?
a.
187, 12, 5
b.
188, 13, 5
c.
1808, 13, 6
d.
3616, 12, 5
e.
1808, 12, 5
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Q36
mcq
carefully and answer the questions given below:
Nine persons i.e. P, Q, R, S, T, X, W, U and V who all born on
different dates in three different months i.e. January, June
and December but not necessarily in the same order. Only
three persons born in any of the month. One person born
between X and R. Both X and R does not born in the month
having 30 days. Five persons born between P and R. P born
on the 30 th of the month. X born before R. The one who
born immediately before R was born on 18 th . T born on 24 th
but not in the month X and P born. V born on 25 th and
immediately after T. Only one person born between W and
U. The number of persons born between S and V is same as
the number of persons sits between V and W. R born on the
last day of the month. S born on 27 th but not in the month
in which T born. The one who born before W born on 16 th .
One of the persons born on 29 th in the month of June. There
is a difference of 8 days between the birthdate of Q and S.
How many persons born after R?
a.
Two
b.
Three
c.
Four
d.
One
e.
No One | www.careerpower.in | Adda247 App
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Q37
mcq
carefully and answer the questions given below:
Nine persons i.e. P, Q, R, S, T, X, W, U and V who all born on
different dates in three different months i.e. January, June
and December but not necessarily in the same order. Only
three persons born in any of the month. One person born
between X and R. Both X and R does not born in the month
having 30 days. Five persons born between P and R. P born
on the 30 th of the month. X born before R. The one who
born immediately before R was born on 18 th . T born on 24 th
but not in the month X and P born. V born on 25 th and
immediately after T. Only one person born between W and
U. The number of persons born between S and V is same as
the number of persons sits between V and W. R born on the
last day of the month. S born on 27 th but not in the month
in which T born. The one who born before W born on 16 th .
One of the persons born on 29 th in the month of June. There
is a difference of 8 days between the birthdate of Q and S.
Who among the following pair of persons born in the
same month?
a.
W and V
b.
V and P
c.
Q and U
d.
W and R
e.
None of these
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Q38
mcq
carefully and answer the questions given below:
Nine persons i.e. P, Q, R, S, T, X, W, U and V who all born on
different dates in three different months i.e. January, June
and December but not necessarily in the same order. Only
three persons born in any of the month. One person born
between X and R. Both X and R does not born in the month
having 30 days. Five persons born between P and R. P born
on the 30 th of the month. X born before R. The one who
born immediately before R was born on 18 th . T born on 24 th
but not in the month X and P born. V born on 25 th and
immediately after T. Only one person born between W and
U. The number of persons born between S and V is same as
the number of persons sits between V and W. R born on the
last day of the month. S born on 27 th but not in the month
in which T born. The one who born before W born on 16 th .
One of the persons born on 29 th in the month of June. There
is a difference of 8 days between the birthdate of Q and S.
Who among the following born immediately after X?
a.
U
b.
W
c.
S
d.
Q
e.
None of these
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Q39
mcq
carefully and answer the questions given below:
Nine persons i.e. P, Q, R, S, T, X, W, U and V who all born on
different dates in three different months i.e. January, June
and December but not necessarily in the same order. Only
three persons born in any of the month. One person born
between X and R. Both X and R does not born in the month
having 30 days. Five persons born between P and R. P born
on the 30 th of the month. X born before R. The one who
born immediately before R was born on 18 th . T born on 24 th
but not in the month X and P born. V born on 25 th and
immediately after T. Only one person born between W and
U. The number of persons born between S and V is same as
the number of persons sits between V and W. R born on the
last day of the month. S born on 27 th but not in the month
in which T born. The one who born before W born on 16 th .
One of the persons born on 29 th in the month of June. There
is a difference of 8 days between the birthdate of Q and S.
X born on which of the following day?
a.
16th
b.
29th
c.
20th
d.
26th
e.
None of these Directions (40): In each question below are given some statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. QUANTITATIVE
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Q40
mcq
Statement: Some Doctor are Student.
All Professor are Doctor.
Some teacher are Scholar.
No Student are Scholar.
Conclusion:
I. Some Teacher are not student.
II. All Doctor never be Scholar.
APTITUDE
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Q41
mcq
received in inbox by different users & the percentage of
mails read by the users & the total no. of spam mails
received in a month.
Users Total no. of % of Total no. of
mails inbox spam mails
received in mails received
inbox read by
user
X 725 68% 88
Y 840 65% 82
Z 800 β 152
K β 45% 92
L 580 β 76
Note:
1. Total no. of mails received = Total mails received in
inbox + total no. of spam mail received
2. Spam mails are not read by user.
3. Some data are missing, calculate if necessary.
Average no. of mails received in inbox by user X, Y &
K is 750% of average no. of spam mail received by
user X, Y and K. Then find the total no. of mails
received by user K?
a.
492
b.
528
c.
426
d.
482
e.
None of these
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Q42
mcq
received in inbox by different users & the percentage of
mails read by the users & the total no. of spam mails
received in a month.
Users Total no. of % of Total no. of
mails inbox spam mails
received in mails received
inbox read by
user
X 725 68% 88
Y 840 65% 82
Z 800 β 152
K β 45% 92
L 580 β 76
Note:
1. Total no. of mails received = Total mails received in
inbox + total no. of spam mail received
2. Spam mails are not read by user.
3. Some data are missing, calculate if necessary.
Inbox mails read by user Z is what percentage of total
mails received in inbox of Z given that inbox mails
read by user Z is 125% of total spam mails received
by user K?
a.
If only conclusion I follows.
b.
If only conclusion II follows.
c.
If either conclusion I or II follows.
d.
If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
e.
If both conclusions I and II follow.
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Q43
mcq
received in inbox by different users & the percentage of
mails read by the users & the total no. of spam mails
received in a month.
Users Total no. of % of Total no. of
mails inbox spam mails
received in mails received
inbox read by
user
X 725 68% 88
Y 840 65% 82
Z 800 β 152
K β 45% 92
L 580 β 76
Note:
1. Total no. of mails received = Total mails received in
inbox + total no. of spam mail received
2. Spam mails are not read by user.
3. Some data are missing, calculate if necessary.
Inbox mails read by user X & Y together is how much
more/less than spam mails received by the same user
together?
a.
None of these
b.
939 more
c.
728 less
d.
869 more
e.
829 more
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Q44
mcq
received in inbox by different users & the percentage of
mails read by the users & the total no. of spam mails
received in a month.
Users Total no. of % of Total no. of
mails inbox spam mails
received in mails received
inbox read by
user
X 725 68% 88
Y 840 65% 82
Z 800 β 152
K β 45% 92
L 580 β 76
Note:
1. Total no. of mails received = Total mails received in
inbox + total no. of spam mail received
2. Spam mails are not read by user.
3. Some data are missing, calculate if necessary.
Total no. of mails received by K is approximately
what percent of inbox mails read by user X given that
mails received in inbox by K is thrice of mails received
in spam by X?
a.
54%
b.
62%
c.
78%
d.
68%
e.
72%
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Q45
mcq
received in inbox by different users & the percentage of
mails read by the users & the total no. of spam mails
received in a month.
Users Total no. of % of Total no. of
mails inbox spam mails
received in mails received
inbox read by
user
X 725 68% 88
Y 840 65% 82
Z 800 β 152
K β 45% 92
L 580 β 76
Note:
1. Total no. of mails received = Total mails received in
inbox + total no. of spam mail received
2. Spam mails are not read by user.
3. Some data are missing, calculate if necessary.
Number of inbox mails which are not read by user Z is
150% more than mails received in spam by user X.
Then find average of inbox mails read by user Z & Y?
a.
None of these
b.
618
c.
425
d.
563
e.
589
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Q46
mcq
accompanied by two statements (I) and (II). You have to
determine which statements(s) is / are sufficient /
necessary to answer the questions.
Find the value of 9 1 + 9 1 ?
π₯ π¦
I. The difference of inverse of x & y is 8/3.
II. the multiplication of x & y is 3.
a.
Only I
b.
Only II
c.
Either I or II
d.
Only I and II
e.
None of the above
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Q47
mcq
accompanied by two statements (I) and (II). You have to
determine which statements(s) is / are sufficient /
necessary to answer the questions.
How many women are required to complete the work
in 12 days.
I. Efficiency of men are β
rd of efficiency of women.
II. 16 men can complete the same work in 10 days.
a.
Only I
b.
Only II
c.
Either I or II
d.
Only I and II
e.
None of the above | www.careerpower.in | Adda247 App
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Q48
mcq
accompanied by two statements (I) and (II). You have to
determine which statements(s) is / are sufficient /
necessary to answer the questions.
In the triangle ABC. Find β ABD ?
I. Given that BC = CD.
II. β ABC β β BAC = 30Β°
a.
Only I
b.
Only II
c.
Either I or II
d.
Only I and II
e.
None of the above
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Q49
mcq
accompanied by two statements (I) and (II). You have to
determine which statements(s) is / are sufficient /
necessary to answer the questions.
What is the C.I. on a sum at the end of 3 years ?
I. C.I. at the end of two years is Rs. 110.
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Q50
mcq
accompanied by two statements (I) and (II). You have to
determine which statements(s) is / are sufficient /
necessary to answer the questions.
Two trains X and Y starts from point A and B
respectively towards each other. What is the distance
between them when they start ?
I. When both trains cross each other, time taken by
train X to reach B is twice the time taken by train
Y to reach A.
II. Distance between them after 60 min. is 800 km.
a.
Only I
b.
Only II
c.
Either I or II
d.
Only I and II
e.
None of the above the questions. in different years. feet 2014 2015 2016
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Q51
mcq
Line-graph given below shows the price per square feet of land
Rs/ Square
2800
2400
2000
1600
1200
800
2011 2012 2013
In 2015, if Rahul bought a plot of 1800 sq. feet. Then
how much plot he has bought with the same amount
in 2016?
a.
1650 sq. feet
b.
1720 sq. feet
c.
1825 sq. feet
d.
None of these
e.
1850 sq. feet
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Q52
mcq
Line-graph given below shows the price per square feet of land
Rs/ Square
2800
2400
2000
1600
1200
800
2011 2012 2013
In 2016 if veer bought a plot 800 sq. feet & want to
sell it in 2017 to earn profit of 20%. Then find the
price per sq. feet in 2017 for same plot?
a.
Rs. 2250
b.
None of these
c.
Rs. 2730
d.
Rs. 2880
e.
Rs. 2460
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Q53
mcq
Line-graph given below shows the price per square feet of land
Rs/ Square
2800
2400
2000
1600
1200
800
2011 2012 2013
If Satish bought 1840 sq. feet land in 2012 and Sandy
bought 1640 sq. feet land in 2014. Then find ratio of
amount spent by Satish in 2012 to amount spent by
sandy in 2014?
a.
Only I
b.
Only II
c.
Either I or II
d.
Only I and II
e.
None of the above
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Q54
mcq
Line-graph given below shows the price per square feet of land
Rs/ Square
2800
2400
2000
1600
1200
800
2011 2012 2013
If Ayush bought a plot in 2010 at a price 3 th of the
4
price in 2013. Then, find difference of amount paid
by Ayush to buy plot of 2240 sq. feet in 2010 and
2013.
a.
Rs. 8.28 lakh
b.
Rs. 4.84 lakh
c.
Rs. 5.64 lakh
d.
Rs. 6.28 lakh
e.
Rs. 7.84 lakh
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Q55
mcq
Line-graph given below shows the price per square feet of land
Rs/ Square
2800
2400
2000
1600
1200
800
2011 2012 2013
If plot bought by Abhi in 2016 is 2420 sq. feet and
plot bought by Roly in 2011 is 1640 sq. feet. Then
find average of money spent by Abhi and Roly?
a.
Rs. 58.6 lakh
b.
Rs. 53.4 lakh
c.
None of these
d.
Rs. 43.8 lakh
e.
Rs. 48.2 lakh
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Q56
mcq
When digits of a first two digit number are reversed,
then the resulting number will become 75% of second
two digit number. The difference of squares of tens
digit and units digit of the second number is 20. Find
the first number.
a.
77
b.
89
c.
111
d.
84
e.
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Q57
mcq
A vessel contains 25 liters petrol. 20% of the petrol is
replaced by kerosene oil, after that 30%
of the mixture is replaced by kerosene oil. Now, find
the quantity of petrol in the final mixture is what
percent of the quantity of petrol in the vessel initially.
a.
63%
b.
47%
c.
51%
d.
56%
e.
67%
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Q58
mcq
Aman can complete a piece of work in 36 days. Aman
and Bhanu together can complete the same work in
20 days. If Chaman is working at 60% of Amanβs
efficiency, then find in how many days Aman, Bhanu
and Chaman can complete the same work together.
a.
15 days
b.
19 days
c.
9 days
d.
26 days
e.
None of the above.
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Q59
mcq
A lighthouse is situated 30 km away from the shore. If
ratio of time taken by boat to reach lighthouse during
upstream and during downstream is 2 : 1, then find
the ratio of speed of the boat to the speed of the
stream.
a.
1 : 3
b.
3 : 1
c.
5 : 3
d.
3 : 5
e.
4 : 7
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Q60
mcq
Ratio of curved surface area of hemispherical bowl to
curved surface area of conical tent is 6 : 5 and radius
of bowl and tent is equal. Then, find the ratio volume
of conical tent to the volume of hemispherical bowl.
a.
3 : 2
b.
2 : 3
c.
6 : 7
d.
7 : 6
e.
3 : 4
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Q61
mcq
Average weight of 100 employees of a company is 60
kg. Average weight of male employees and female
employees is 70kg and 45kg respectively. Then, find
the ratio male employees to female employees in the
company.
a.
1 : 4
b.
4 : 1
c.
7 : 6
d.
6 : 7
e.
3 : 2
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Q62
mcq
A shopkeeper who sells same marked price shirts,
announced an offer β if one buys two shirts then the
buyer can buy the third shirt at the discounted price
of Rs. 150. Ram took the offer and bought 12 shirts by
paying Rs. 5,000 only. Find the overall discount
percentage allowed by the shopkeeper.
a.
17 16 %
b.
29 10 %
c.
24 8 % 33 33 33
d.
36 10 %
e.
28 8 % 33 33
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Q63
mcq
Five two β way pipes A, B, C, D & E can either fill the
empty tank or can empty the full tank in 15 minutes,
18 minutes, 6 minutes, 16 minutes and 24 minutes
respectively. All five pipes were opened
simultaneously when the tank is empty. Then, find
which combination of tank can exactly fill 50% of the
tank.
a.
A, B and D are filling pipes and C is emptying pipe. 6 www.bankersadda.com | www.sscadda.com
b.
A and B are filling pipes and C and D are emptying pipes.
c.
E is filling pipe and B and C are emptying pipes.
d.
C and E are filling pipes and A is emptying pipe.
e.
None of the above.
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Q64
mcq
Two dices are rolled twice. Then, find the probability
that the sum of the numbers on each dice is divisible
by 4.
a.
1
b.
7
c.
1 4 1 11 36 6
e.
3 36
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Q65
mcq
Aman & Bhanu invested Rs. 8,000 and Rs. 12,000 in a
partnership firm. After 6 months, Aman further
invested Rs. 12,000. Aman is entited to 10%
commission on profit before deducting tax and the
remaining profit is shared between them in their
capitals ratio after deducting 20% tax. Bhanu received
a total of Rs. 5400 out of total profits at the end of a
year. Then, find Amanβs commission.
a.
Rs. 1655
b.
Rs. 1625
c.
Rs. 1695
d.
Rs. 1745
e.
None of the above
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Q66
mcq
distribution of quantity of waste (org + wet) produced (in
Kg) on five days and percentage distribution of quantity of
wet waste produced (in kg) on five days.
Friday, Monday,
24% 20%
Tuesday,
Thursday, 18%
15%
Wednesday
, 23%
Friday
, 20% Monday,
22%
Thursday,
16% Tuesday,
24%
Wednesday,
18%
Waste (Dry + Wet) = 800
Waste (Wet) = 500
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Dry waste produced on Saturday is 20% more than
dry waste produced on Thursday. What is the
quantity of dry waste produced on Monday and
Saturday together?
a.
80 kg
b.
98 kg
c.
120 kg
d.
100 kg
e.
95 kg
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Q67
mcq
distribution of quantity of waste (org + wet) produced (in
Kg) on five days and percentage distribution of quantity of
wet waste produced (in kg) on five days.
Friday, Monday,
24% 20%
Tuesday,
Thursday, 18%
15%
Wednesday
, 23%
Friday
, 20% Monday,
22%
Thursday,
16% Tuesday,
24%
Wednesday,
18%
Waste (Dry + Wet) = 800
Waste (Wet) = 500
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Dry waste produced on Tuesday is what percent of
dry waste produced on Wednesday?
a.
12 1 %
b.
12 12 %
c.
23 23 % 47 47 47
d.
25 25 %
e.
25 23 % 47 47
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Q68
mcq
distribution of quantity of waste (org + wet) produced (in
Kg) on five days and percentage distribution of quantity of
wet waste produced (in kg) on five days.
Friday, Monday,
24% 20%
Tuesday,
Thursday, 18%
15%
Wednesday
, 23%
Friday
, 20% Monday,
22%
Thursday,
16% Tuesday,
24%
Wednesday,
18%
Waste (Dry + Wet) = 800
Waste (Wet) = 500
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What is the ratio of the dry waste produced on Friday
to wet waste produced on Monday and Wednesday
together?
a.
23 : 50
b.
14 : 51
c.
13 : 47
d.
50 : 23
e.
None of these
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Q69
mcq
distribution of quantity of waste (org + wet) produced (in
Kg) on five days and percentage distribution of quantity of
wet waste produced (in kg) on five days.
Friday, Monday,
24% 20%
Tuesday,
Thursday, 18%
15%
Wednesday
, 23%
Friday
, 20% Monday,
22%
Thursday,
16% Tuesday,
24%
Wednesday,
18%
Waste (Dry + Wet) = 800
Waste (Wet) = 500
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If on Sunday total waste produced is 120% more
than the dry waste produced on Thursday and dry
waste produced on Sunday is 20% less than dry
waste produced on Monday. Find the quantity of wet
waste produced on Sunday?
a.
30 kg
b.
38 kg
c.
36 kg
d.
24 kg
e.
None of these
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Q70
mcq
distribution of quantity of waste (org + wet) produced (in
Kg) on five days and percentage distribution of quantity of
wet waste produced (in kg) on five days.
Friday, Monday,
24% 20%
Tuesday,
Thursday, 18%
15%
Wednesday
, 23%
Friday
, 20% Monday,
22%
Thursday,
16% Tuesday,
24%
Wednesday,
18%
Waste (Dry + Wet) = 800
Waste (Wet) = 500
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Wet waste produced on Tuesday & Wednesday
together is how much more than dry waste produced
on Friday and Thursday together?
a.
82 kg
b.
96 kg
c.
78 kg
d.
88 kg
e.
None of these
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Q71
mcq
Retailer marks up an article 87 1 % above its cost price
2
and he earned Rs. 250 when he gives 33 1 % discount.
3
Had he sold that article at Rs 1200. Then, find the
discount percent allowed by the shopkeeper.
a.
12 1 %
b.
20%
c.
36% 2
d.
25%
e.
30%
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Q72
mcq
Present age of Deepak is 16 2 % more than Bhavya
3
age. While 5 yrs ago, Deepakβs age was twice than that
of Bhavyaβs age at that time. Five years hence, twice
the sum of ages of Deepak and Bhavya is equal to
Harshβs age at that time. Then, find present age of
Harsh (in years).
a.
46
b.
43
c.
41
d.
42
e.
None of these
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Q73
mcq
Honey can do 30% work in 9 days, Abhishek can do
8% work in 4 days. Then in how many days they can
complete 80% of the work
a.
18
b.
12
c.
None of these
d.
10
e.
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Q74
mcq
A train coves certain distance in two parts. Distance
covered in first part is 100% more than the distance
covered in second part while speed of train is in the
ratio 4 : 1 in first and second part respectively. If
average speed of train is 20 km/hr then, find the
speed of train in first part? (in kmph)
a.
10 km/hr
b.
40 km/hr
c.
20 km/hr
d.
25 km/hr
e.
60 km/hr
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Q75
mcq
Find the probability of forming a 4 digit number
which is divisible by 3 using 2, 4, 6 and 5, repetition of
numbers are not allowed.
a.
0!
b.
4!
c.
5!
d.
None of these
e.
3!
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Q76
mcq
the following questions.
There are three types of vehicles i.e. 3 Auto, 4 car & one
truck which take rides. Distance covered by each type of
vehicle per ride is same. Profit per ride of an auto and a car
is given as Rs. 20 and Rs. 60 respectively. And total profit
of truck in April month is given as Rs. 42000. Ratio of total
ride per day of an auto to total ride per day of a car is 3 : 2.
Ratio of per ride profit of a Truck to per ride profit of a Car
is 70 : 27. And total profit is given as Rs 15920 per day.
What is difference in profit earned by all Cars and
Truck in seven days?
a.
Rs. 56,440
b.
Rs. 54,120
c.
Rs. 64,120
d.
Rs. 72,240
e.
None of these
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Q77
mcq
the following questions.
There are three types of vehicles i.e. 3 Auto, 4 car & one
truck which take rides. Distance covered by each type of
vehicle per ride is same. Profit per ride of an auto and a car
is given as Rs. 20 and Rs. 60 respectively. And total profit
of truck in April month is given as Rs. 42000. Ratio of total
ride per day of an auto to total ride per day of a car is 3 : 2.
Ratio of per ride profit of a Truck to per ride profit of a Car
is 70 : 27. And total profit is given as Rs 15920 per day.
Profit made by Truck in two weeks is approximately
what percent more or less than profit made in a week
by all Auto?
a.
29% more
b.
34% less
c.
24% more
d.
39% less
e.
43% more
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Q78
mcq
the following questions.
There are three types of vehicles i.e. 3 Auto, 4 car & one
truck which take rides. Distance covered by each type of
vehicle per ride is same. Profit per ride of an auto and a car
is given as Rs. 20 and Rs. 60 respectively. And total profit
of truck in April month is given as Rs. 42000. Ratio of total
ride per day of an auto to total ride per day of a car is 3 : 2.
Ratio of per ride profit of a Truck to per ride profit of a Car
is 70 : 27. And total profit is given as Rs 15920 per day.
What is the ratio of number of rides by single Car in
four weeks to number of rides by Truck in two weeks?
a.
44 : 9
b.
22 : 9
c.
None of these
d.
88 : 9
e.
11 : 9
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Q79
mcq
the following questions.
There are three types of vehicles i.e. 3 Auto, 4 car & one
truck which take rides. Distance covered by each type of
vehicle per ride is same. Profit per ride of an auto and a car
is given as Rs. 20 and Rs. 60 respectively. And total profit
of truck in April month is given as Rs. 42000. Ratio of total
ride per day of an auto to total ride per day of a car is 3 : 2.
Ratio of per ride profit of a Truck to per ride profit of a Car
is 70 : 27. And total profit is given as Rs 15920 per day.
What is the average of profit made by all Car and all
Auto in a week?
a.
Rs. 50,820
b.
Rs. 48,240
c.
Rs. 56,220
d.
None of these
e.
Rs. 64,120
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Q80
mcq
the following questions.
There are three types of vehicles i.e. 3 Auto, 4 car & one
truck which take rides. Distance covered by each type of
vehicle per ride is same. Profit per ride of an auto and a car
is given as Rs. 20 and Rs. 60 respectively. And total profit
of truck in April month is given as Rs. 42000. Ratio of total
ride per day of an auto to total ride per day of a car is 3 : 2.
Ratio of per ride profit of a Truck to per ride profit of a Car
is 70 : 27. And total profit is given as Rs 15920 per day.
What is the total profit of a single car, truck and auto
in a day?
a.
Rs. 4860
b.
Rs. 5360
c.
Rs. 4240
d.
Rs. 5620
e.
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Q81
mcq
and answer the questions given below them. Certain words
are given in bold to help you locate them while answering
some of the questions.
At the first monetary policy statement of the Reserve Bank
of India (RBI) for 2018-19, it seems impossible to believe
that the previous bi-monthly on 7 February marked a high
point in the relationship between the Union finance
ministry and the RBI. There was on that date a regulatory
add-on of a 180-day window of forbearance for payment
dues from small borrowers, and abolition of loan limits in
the MSME (medium, small and micro enterprises) segment.
Those initiatives followed the supportive measures for the
small-scale sector in the Union budget on 1 February,
through the corporate tax cut, and additional funding for
the Micro-units Development Refinance Agency (Mudra).
The appearance of team play was shattered after the
Punjab National Bank (PNB) fraud broke in mid-February.
The PNB fraud has variously been placed as having been in
operation since 2011, perhaps even earlier. Union finance
minister Arun Jaitley, speaking at the Economic Times
Global Business Summit on 23 February, blamed the top
management and auditors of PNB, but was also quoted as
having added: βRegulators ultimately decide the rules of
the game and regulators have to have a third eye which is
to be perpetually open. But unfortunately in the Indian
system, we politicians are accountable, the regulators
are not.β
RBI governor Urjit Patel came back forcefully on the
occasion of a 14 March address at the Gujarat National Law
University, pointing to the lack of ownership-neutrality in
the Banking Regulation Act of 1949. The act as amended
withholds the RBI from imposing certain types of penalties
for errant conduct on public sector banks, like firing the
chief executive officer, removing directors or superseding
the board. The speech lists seven of them. Patel was right
to have pointed them out, appropriately in an address to
young entrants into the legal profession. That kind of
unevenness in the regulatory landscape clearly has to be
swept away.
The PNB fraud is said to have started rolling in 2011. As it
happens, RBI that year appointed a high-level steering
committee chaired by then deputy governor K.C.
Chakraborty (a past chairman of PNB), to upgrade banking
supervision to global best practices. Its report
recommended that supervision be expanded in scope to go
beyond a narrow focus on regulatory compliance or bank
solvency, towards assessing the riskiness of a bankβs
operations, and its risk mitigation strategies.
Independently, an inspection of select overseas branches
8 www.bankersadda.com | www.sscadda.com
of Indian banks was also conducted in May 2012, the
previous one having been done in May 2008, but the
findings are not publicly known.
The Chakraborty Committee report was submitted in June
2012. Its recommendations were accepted, and the
supervisory system overhauled on to a new risk-based
supervision (RBS) platform. Training was initiated for
senior officers of the major banks. The new framework
went into operation in 2013-14, renamed SPARC
(supervisory programme for assessment of risk and
capital). An initial set of 28 banks from across the
ownership spectrum, accounting for 60% of total banking
assets, was covered that year. PNB may well have been
among them. Eight more banks were added over the next
two years, and by 2016-17, all scheduled commercial
banks were covered. SPARC specifically calls for ongoing
interaction between banks and supervisors, not just
periodic inspections. Finally, there is a further overlay
since 28 February 2017 of a standing committee on cyber
security.
In a parallel development starting in 2012-13, memoranda
of understanding (MoUs) were signed with 16 overseas
regulators, which the annual report for that year says led
to βsubstantial progress in supervisory information
sharing and cooperation within jurisdictions where Indian
banks are operatingβ. By the close of reporting year 2016-
17, the number of such MoUs had expanded to 40, and
there was also a statement of cooperation with three US
financial regulators. Since overseas jurisdictions were
another point from which the PNB fraud could have been
spotted, these agreements do not seem to have led to
information exchange of any diagnostic value.
What benefits have been provided by the government
to small borrowers?
(I) Allocation of additional funds.
(II) Abrogating the loan limits in the MSME segment.
(III) Government has extended the time period for
small borrowers for payment of their dues.
a.
Only (I)
b.
Only (III)
c.
Both (II) and (III)
d.
Both (I) and (III)
e.
All are correct
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Q82
mcq
and answer the questions given below them. Certain words
are given in bold to help you locate them while answering
some of the questions.
At the first monetary policy statement of the Reserve Bank
of India (RBI) for 2018-19, it seems impossible to believe
that the previous bi-monthly on 7 February marked a high
point in the relationship between the Union finance
ministry and the RBI. There was on that date a regulatory
add-on of a 180-day window of forbearance for payment
dues from small borrowers, and abolition of loan limits in
the MSME (medium, small and micro enterprises) segment.
Those initiatives followed the supportive measures for the
small-scale sector in the Union budget on 1 February,
through the corporate tax cut, and additional funding for
the Micro-units Development Refinance Agency (Mudra).
The appearance of team play was shattered after the
Punjab National Bank (PNB) fraud broke in mid-February.
The PNB fraud has variously been placed as having been in
operation since 2011, perhaps even earlier. Union finance
minister Arun Jaitley, speaking at the Economic Times
Global Business Summit on 23 February, blamed the top
management and auditors of PNB, but was also quoted as
having added: βRegulators ultimately decide the rules of
the game and regulators have to have a third eye which is
to be perpetually open. But unfortunately in the Indian
system, we politicians are accountable, the regulators
are not.β
RBI governor Urjit Patel came back forcefully on the
occasion of a 14 March address at the Gujarat National Law
University, pointing to the lack of ownership-neutrality in
the Banking Regulation Act of 1949. The act as amended
withholds the RBI from imposing certain types of penalties
for errant conduct on public sector banks, like firing the
chief executive officer, removing directors or superseding
the board. The speech lists seven of them. Patel was right
to have pointed them out, appropriately in an address to
young entrants into the legal profession. That kind of
unevenness in the regulatory landscape clearly has to be
swept away.
The PNB fraud is said to have started rolling in 2011. As it
happens, RBI that year appointed a high-level steering
committee chaired by then deputy governor K.C.
Chakraborty (a past chairman of PNB), to upgrade banking
supervision to global best practices. Its report
recommended that supervision be expanded in scope to go
beyond a narrow focus on regulatory compliance or bank
solvency, towards assessing the riskiness of a bankβs
operations, and its risk mitigation strategies.
Independently, an inspection of select overseas branches
8 www.bankersadda.com | www.sscadda.com
of Indian banks was also conducted in May 2012, the
previous one having been done in May 2008, but the
findings are not publicly known.
The Chakraborty Committee report was submitted in June
2012. Its recommendations were accepted, and the
supervisory system overhauled on to a new risk-based
supervision (RBS) platform. Training was initiated for
senior officers of the major banks. The new framework
went into operation in 2013-14, renamed SPARC
(supervisory programme for assessment of risk and
capital). An initial set of 28 banks from across the
ownership spectrum, accounting for 60% of total banking
assets, was covered that year. PNB may well have been
among them. Eight more banks were added over the next
two years, and by 2016-17, all scheduled commercial
banks were covered. SPARC specifically calls for ongoing
interaction between banks and supervisors, not just
periodic inspections. Finally, there is a further overlay
since 28 February 2017 of a standing committee on cyber
security.
In a parallel development starting in 2012-13, memoranda
of understanding (MoUs) were signed with 16 overseas
regulators, which the annual report for that year says led
to βsubstantial progress in supervisory information
sharing and cooperation within jurisdictions where Indian
banks are operatingβ. By the close of reporting year 2016-
17, the number of such MoUs had expanded to 40, and
there was also a statement of cooperation with three US
financial regulators. Since overseas jurisdictions were
another point from which the PNB fraud could have been
spotted, these agreements do not seem to have led to
information exchange of any diagnostic value.
What can be inferred from the statement, βwe
politicians are accountable, the regulators are
not.β?
a.
Only politicians need to take decisions for regulating the banks.
b.
and
c.
In Indian system, politicians are made responsible for any type of fraudulent activity.
d.
Both
e.
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Q83
mcq
and answer the questions given below them. Certain words
are given in bold to help you locate them while answering
some of the questions.
At the first monetary policy statement of the Reserve Bank
of India (RBI) for 2018-19, it seems impossible to believe
that the previous bi-monthly on 7 February marked a high
point in the relationship between the Union finance
ministry and the RBI. There was on that date a regulatory
add-on of a 180-day window of forbearance for payment
dues from small borrowers, and abolition of loan limits in
the MSME (medium, small and micro enterprises) segment.
Those initiatives followed the supportive measures for the
small-scale sector in the Union budget on 1 February,
through the corporate tax cut, and additional funding for
the Micro-units Development Refinance Agency (Mudra).
The appearance of team play was shattered after the
Punjab National Bank (PNB) fraud broke in mid-February.
The PNB fraud has variously been placed as having been in
operation since 2011, perhaps even earlier. Union finance
minister Arun Jaitley, speaking at the Economic Times
Global Business Summit on 23 February, blamed the top
management and auditors of PNB, but was also quoted as
having added: βRegulators ultimately decide the rules of
the game and regulators have to have a third eye which is
to be perpetually open. But unfortunately in the Indian
system, we politicians are accountable, the regulators
are not.β
RBI governor Urjit Patel came back forcefully on the
occasion of a 14 March address at the Gujarat National Law
University, pointing to the lack of ownership-neutrality in
the Banking Regulation Act of 1949. The act as amended
withholds the RBI from imposing certain types of penalties
for errant conduct on public sector banks, like firing the
chief executive officer, removing directors or superseding
the board. The speech lists seven of them. Patel was right
to have pointed them out, appropriately in an address to
young entrants into the legal profession. That kind of
unevenness in the regulatory landscape clearly has to be
swept away.
The PNB fraud is said to have started rolling in 2011. As it
happens, RBI that year appointed a high-level steering
committee chaired by then deputy governor K.C.
Chakraborty (a past chairman of PNB), to upgrade banking
supervision to global best practices. Its report
recommended that supervision be expanded in scope to go
beyond a narrow focus on regulatory compliance or bank
solvency, towards assessing the riskiness of a bankβs
operations, and its risk mitigation strategies.
Independently, an inspection of select overseas branches
8 www.bankersadda.com | www.sscadda.com
of Indian banks was also conducted in May 2012, the
previous one having been done in May 2008, but the
findings are not publicly known.
The Chakraborty Committee report was submitted in June
2012. Its recommendations were accepted, and the
supervisory system overhauled on to a new risk-based
supervision (RBS) platform. Training was initiated for
senior officers of the major banks. The new framework
went into operation in 2013-14, renamed SPARC
(supervisory programme for assessment of risk and
capital). An initial set of 28 banks from across the
ownership spectrum, accounting for 60% of total banking
assets, was covered that year. PNB may well have been
among them. Eight more banks were added over the next
two years, and by 2016-17, all scheduled commercial
banks were covered. SPARC specifically calls for ongoing
interaction between banks and supervisors, not just
periodic inspections. Finally, there is a further overlay
since 28 February 2017 of a standing committee on cyber
security.
In a parallel development starting in 2012-13, memoranda
of understanding (MoUs) were signed with 16 overseas
regulators, which the annual report for that year says led
to βsubstantial progress in supervisory information
sharing and cooperation within jurisdictions where Indian
banks are operatingβ. By the close of reporting year 2016-
17, the number of such MoUs had expanded to 40, and
there was also a statement of cooperation with three US
financial regulators. Since overseas jurisdictions were
another point from which the PNB fraud could have been
spotted, these agreements do not seem to have led to
information exchange of any diagnostic value.
Which type(s) of unevenness has/have been pointed
out by RBI governor?
a.
appointment of high level supervision committee
b.
growing fraudulent activities and scams in banks.
c.
uncontrolled regulation in banks.
d.
imposing penalty on PSBs.
e.
All are correct
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Q84
mcq
and answer the questions given below them. Certain words
are given in bold to help you locate them while answering
some of the questions.
At the first monetary policy statement of the Reserve Bank
of India (RBI) for 2018-19, it seems impossible to believe
that the previous bi-monthly on 7 February marked a high
point in the relationship between the Union finance
ministry and the RBI. There was on that date a regulatory
add-on of a 180-day window of forbearance for payment
dues from small borrowers, and abolition of loan limits in
the MSME (medium, small and micro enterprises) segment.
Those initiatives followed the supportive measures for the
small-scale sector in the Union budget on 1 February,
through the corporate tax cut, and additional funding for
the Micro-units Development Refinance Agency (Mudra).
The appearance of team play was shattered after the
Punjab National Bank (PNB) fraud broke in mid-February.
The PNB fraud has variously been placed as having been in
operation since 2011, perhaps even earlier. Union finance
minister Arun Jaitley, speaking at the Economic Times
Global Business Summit on 23 February, blamed the top
management and auditors of PNB, but was also quoted as
having added: βRegulators ultimately decide the rules of
the game and regulators have to have a third eye which is
to be perpetually open. But unfortunately in the Indian
system, we politicians are accountable, the regulators
are not.β
RBI governor Urjit Patel came back forcefully on the
occasion of a 14 March address at the Gujarat National Law
University, pointing to the lack of ownership-neutrality in
the Banking Regulation Act of 1949. The act as amended
withholds the RBI from imposing certain types of penalties
for errant conduct on public sector banks, like firing the
chief executive officer, removing directors or superseding
the board. The speech lists seven of them. Patel was right
to have pointed them out, appropriately in an address to
young entrants into the legal profession. That kind of
unevenness in the regulatory landscape clearly has to be
swept away.
The PNB fraud is said to have started rolling in 2011. As it
happens, RBI that year appointed a high-level steering
committee chaired by then deputy governor K.C.
Chakraborty (a past chairman of PNB), to upgrade banking
supervision to global best practices. Its report
recommended that supervision be expanded in scope to go
beyond a narrow focus on regulatory compliance or bank
solvency, towards assessing the riskiness of a bankβs
operations, and its risk mitigation strategies.
Independently, an inspection of select overseas branches
8 www.bankersadda.com | www.sscadda.com
of Indian banks was also conducted in May 2012, the
previous one having been done in May 2008, but the
findings are not publicly known.
The Chakraborty Committee report was submitted in June
2012. Its recommendations were accepted, and the
supervisory system overhauled on to a new risk-based
supervision (RBS) platform. Training was initiated for
senior officers of the major banks. The new framework
went into operation in 2013-14, renamed SPARC
(supervisory programme for assessment of risk and
capital). An initial set of 28 banks from across the
ownership spectrum, accounting for 60% of total banking
assets, was covered that year. PNB may well have been
among them. Eight more banks were added over the next
two years, and by 2016-17, all scheduled commercial
banks were covered. SPARC specifically calls for ongoing
interaction between banks and supervisors, not just
periodic inspections. Finally, there is a further overlay
since 28 February 2017 of a standing committee on cyber
security.
In a parallel development starting in 2012-13, memoranda
of understanding (MoUs) were signed with 16 overseas
regulators, which the annual report for that year says led
to βsubstantial progress in supervisory information
sharing and cooperation within jurisdictions where Indian
banks are operatingβ. By the close of reporting year 2016-
17, the number of such MoUs had expanded to 40, and
there was also a statement of cooperation with three US
financial regulators. Since overseas jurisdictions were
another point from which the PNB fraud could have been
spotted, these agreements do not seem to have led to
information exchange of any diagnostic value.
What are the efforts made by RBI to avoid the future
loss in banks?
(I) turning towards privatization of banks.
(II) providing training to bank officials.
(III) updating supervisory system
a.
Only (I)
b.
Only (III)
c.
Both (II) and (III)
d.
Both (I) and (III)
e.
All are correct
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Q85
mcq
and answer the questions given below them. Certain words
are given in bold to help you locate them while answering
some of the questions.
At the first monetary policy statement of the Reserve Bank
of India (RBI) for 2018-19, it seems impossible to believe
that the previous bi-monthly on 7 February marked a high
point in the relationship between the Union finance
ministry and the RBI. There was on that date a regulatory
add-on of a 180-day window of forbearance for payment
dues from small borrowers, and abolition of loan limits in
the MSME (medium, small and micro enterprises) segment.
Those initiatives followed the supportive measures for the
small-scale sector in the Union budget on 1 February,
through the corporate tax cut, and additional funding for
the Micro-units Development Refinance Agency (Mudra).
The appearance of team play was shattered after the
Punjab National Bank (PNB) fraud broke in mid-February.
The PNB fraud has variously been placed as having been in
operation since 2011, perhaps even earlier. Union finance
minister Arun Jaitley, speaking at the Economic Times
Global Business Summit on 23 February, blamed the top
management and auditors of PNB, but was also quoted as
having added: βRegulators ultimately decide the rules of
the game and regulators have to have a third eye which is
to be perpetually open. But unfortunately in the Indian
system, we politicians are accountable, the regulators
are not.β
RBI governor Urjit Patel came back forcefully on the
occasion of a 14 March address at the Gujarat National Law
University, pointing to the lack of ownership-neutrality in
the Banking Regulation Act of 1949. The act as amended
withholds the RBI from imposing certain types of penalties
for errant conduct on public sector banks, like firing the
chief executive officer, removing directors or superseding
the board. The speech lists seven of them. Patel was right
to have pointed them out, appropriately in an address to
young entrants into the legal profession. That kind of
unevenness in the regulatory landscape clearly has to be
swept away.
The PNB fraud is said to have started rolling in 2011. As it
happens, RBI that year appointed a high-level steering
committee chaired by then deputy governor K.C.
Chakraborty (a past chairman of PNB), to upgrade banking
supervision to global best practices. Its report
recommended that supervision be expanded in scope to go
beyond a narrow focus on regulatory compliance or bank
solvency, towards assessing the riskiness of a bankβs
operations, and its risk mitigation strategies.
Independently, an inspection of select overseas branches
8 www.bankersadda.com | www.sscadda.com
of Indian banks was also conducted in May 2012, the
previous one having been done in May 2008, but the
findings are not publicly known.
The Chakraborty Committee report was submitted in June
2012. Its recommendations were accepted, and the
supervisory system overhauled on to a new risk-based
supervision (RBS) platform. Training was initiated for
senior officers of the major banks. The new framework
went into operation in 2013-14, renamed SPARC
(supervisory programme for assessment of risk and
capital). An initial set of 28 banks from across the
ownership spectrum, accounting for 60% of total banking
assets, was covered that year. PNB may well have been
among them. Eight more banks were added over the next
two years, and by 2016-17, all scheduled commercial
banks were covered. SPARC specifically calls for ongoing
interaction between banks and supervisors, not just
periodic inspections. Finally, there is a further overlay
since 28 February 2017 of a standing committee on cyber
security.
In a parallel development starting in 2012-13, memoranda
of understanding (MoUs) were signed with 16 overseas
regulators, which the annual report for that year says led
to βsubstantial progress in supervisory information
sharing and cooperation within jurisdictions where Indian
banks are operatingβ. By the close of reporting year 2016-
17, the number of such MoUs had expanded to 40, and
there was also a statement of cooperation with three US
financial regulators. Since overseas jurisdictions were
another point from which the PNB fraud could have been
spotted, these agreements do not seem to have led to
information exchange of any diagnostic value.
Identify the tone of the author with respect to the
passage.
a.
eulogistic
b.
informal
c.
nostalgic
d.
critical
e.
didactic
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Q86
mcq
and answer the questions given below them. Certain words
are given in bold to help you locate them while answering
some of the questions.
At the first monetary policy statement of the Reserve Bank
of India (RBI) for 2018-19, it seems impossible to believe
that the previous bi-monthly on 7 February marked a high
point in the relationship between the Union finance
ministry and the RBI. There was on that date a regulatory
add-on of a 180-day window of forbearance for payment
dues from small borrowers, and abolition of loan limits in
the MSME (medium, small and micro enterprises) segment.
Those initiatives followed the supportive measures for the
small-scale sector in the Union budget on 1 February,
through the corporate tax cut, and additional funding for
the Micro-units Development Refinance Agency (Mudra).
The appearance of team play was shattered after the
Punjab National Bank (PNB) fraud broke in mid-February.
The PNB fraud has variously been placed as having been in
operation since 2011, perhaps even earlier. Union finance
minister Arun Jaitley, speaking at the Economic Times
Global Business Summit on 23 February, blamed the top
management and auditors of PNB, but was also quoted as
having added: βRegulators ultimately decide the rules of
the game and regulators have to have a third eye which is
to be perpetually open. But unfortunately in the Indian
system, we politicians are accountable, the regulators
are not.β
RBI governor Urjit Patel came back forcefully on the
occasion of a 14 March address at the Gujarat National Law
University, pointing to the lack of ownership-neutrality in
the Banking Regulation Act of 1949. The act as amended
withholds the RBI from imposing certain types of penalties
for errant conduct on public sector banks, like firing the
chief executive officer, removing directors or superseding
the board. The speech lists seven of them. Patel was right
to have pointed them out, appropriately in an address to
young entrants into the legal profession. That kind of
unevenness in the regulatory landscape clearly has to be
swept away.
The PNB fraud is said to have started rolling in 2011. As it
happens, RBI that year appointed a high-level steering
committee chaired by then deputy governor K.C.
Chakraborty (a past chairman of PNB), to upgrade banking
supervision to global best practices. Its report
recommended that supervision be expanded in scope to go
beyond a narrow focus on regulatory compliance or bank
solvency, towards assessing the riskiness of a bankβs
operations, and its risk mitigation strategies.
Independently, an inspection of select overseas branches
8 www.bankersadda.com | www.sscadda.com
of Indian banks was also conducted in May 2012, the
previous one having been done in May 2008, but the
findings are not publicly known.
The Chakraborty Committee report was submitted in June
2012. Its recommendations were accepted, and the
supervisory system overhauled on to a new risk-based
supervision (RBS) platform. Training was initiated for
senior officers of the major banks. The new framework
went into operation in 2013-14, renamed SPARC
(supervisory programme for assessment of risk and
capital). An initial set of 28 banks from across the
ownership spectrum, accounting for 60% of total banking
assets, was covered that year. PNB may well have been
among them. Eight more banks were added over the next
two years, and by 2016-17, all scheduled commercial
banks were covered. SPARC specifically calls for ongoing
interaction between banks and supervisors, not just
periodic inspections. Finally, there is a further overlay
since 28 February 2017 of a standing committee on cyber
security.
In a parallel development starting in 2012-13, memoranda
of understanding (MoUs) were signed with 16 overseas
regulators, which the annual report for that year says led
to βsubstantial progress in supervisory information
sharing and cooperation within jurisdictions where Indian
banks are operatingβ. By the close of reporting year 2016-
17, the number of such MoUs had expanded to 40, and
there was also a statement of cooperation with three US
financial regulators. Since overseas jurisdictions were
another point from which the PNB fraud could have been
spotted, these agreements do not seem to have led to
information exchange of any diagnostic value.
According to the passage, the new framework SPARC
includes
a.
Only (I)
b.
Only (III)
c.
Both (II) and (III)
d.
Both (I) and (III)
e.
All are correct
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Q87
mcq
similar in meaning to the word printed in bold in the
context of the passage.
Perpetually
a.
abate
b.
constantly
c.
dissent
d.
harness
e.
stride
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Q88
mcq
similar in meaning to the word printed in bold in the
context of the passage.
Forbearance
a.
banish
b.
cease
c.
recuperate
d.
usurp
e.
tolerance
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Q89
mcq
opposite in meaning of the word printed in bold in the
context of the passage.
Overhaul
a.
ensue
b.
accede
c.
acquiesce
d.
ruin
e.
hapless
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Q90
mcq
opposite in meaning of the word printed in bold in the
context of the passage.
Supersede
a.
herald
b.
confide
c.
concede
d.
relinquish
e.
retain 9 www.bankersadda.com | www.sscadda.com
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Q91
mcq
of the table is used in four different ways, numbered (a) to
(d). Choose the option in which the usage of the word is
INCORRECT or INAPPROPRIATE. If it is used correctly in
every sentence choose option (e) as your choice.
APPRAISE
a.
The President appropriately appraised Russell and Financial Times readers that he had already signed into law the National Peace and Reconciliation Commission Act.
b.
In cooperation with other professionals, social workers will appraise the individual's needs.
c.
He coolly appraised the situation, deciding which person would be most likely to succeed.
d.
This prompted many employers to appraise their selection and recruitment policies
e.
All are correct.
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Q92
mcq
of the table is used in four different ways, numbered (a) to
(d). Choose the option in which the usage of the word is
INCORRECT or INAPPROPRIATE. If it is used correctly in
every sentence choose option (e) as your choice.
CREDULOUS
a.
Because my brother is a credulous consumer, he is a salespersonβs dream.
b.
Even though there was very little evidence, the credulous jury decided the defendant was guilty.
c.
Reference credulous sources to strengthen your argument.
d.
Because the credulous public wanted to believe the killer was off the streets, they never questioned the arrest of an innocent man.
e.
All are correct.
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Q93
mcq
of the table is used in four different ways, numbered (a) to
(d). Choose the option in which the usage of the word is
INCORRECT or INAPPROPRIATE. If it is used correctly in
every sentence choose option (e) as your choice.
FLAUNT
a.
While many people love to flaunt their possessions, I prefer people that keep a low profile.
b.
The orchestra decided to flaunt convention/tradition, and wear their everyday clothes for the concert.
c.
Donald Trump loves to flaunt his wealth and grandiose, whenever he has the chance.
d.
Flavio was flaunting his tan in a pair of white trunks.
e.
All are correct.
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Q94
mcq
of the table is used in four different ways, numbered (a) to
(d). Choose the option in which the usage of the word is
INCORRECT or INAPPROPRIATE. If it is used correctly in
every sentence choose option (e) as your choice.
UNBEARABLE
a.
A delegation of councillors is lobbying the Government because they say the noise is unbearable.
b.
This argument is unbearable from an intellectual, moral and practical standpoint.
c.
All I remember of childbirth was the unbearable pain and the relief when it was all over.
d.
The grief she felt over Helen's death was almost unbearable.
e.
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Q95
mcq
of the table is used in four different ways, numbered (a) to
(d). Choose the option in which the usage of the word is
INCORRECT or INAPPROPRIATE. If it is used correctly in
every sentence choose option (e) as your choice.
LUXURIANT
a.
We've bought a wonderfully luxuriant carpet for our bedroom.
b.
In addition to its inferior size, the coyote is also shorter in the leg than the wolf, and carries a more luxuriant coat of hair.
c.
This stretch of land was once covered with luxuriant forest, but is now bare.
d.
He took no leading part in the war against the English, his energies being largely occupied with the satisfaction of his artistic and luxuriant tastes.
e.
All are correct.
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Q103
mcq
paragraph in a jumbled fashion. Arrange the sentences to
form a coherent paragraph and answer the following
questions.
(A) It plans to use this for the Chandrayaan-II moon
mission in the early months of 2019.
(B) The multi-band, multi-beam satellite can cater to the
communication needs of people in Jammu and
Kashmir and the Northeast.
(C) With a liftoff mass of 640 tonnes, the GSLV MkIII is the
heaviest launch vehicle made in India, and GSAT29 is
the heaviest satellite to take off from Indian soil.
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(D) The Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle MarkIII
(GSLV Mk III) launched GSAT29, an advanced
communications satellite, into a geosynchronous
transfer orbit where the satelliteβs closest approach to
earth would be 190 km and the farthest 35,975 km.
(E) The Indian Space Research Organization has marked
a big milestone by successfully testing its heavy-lift
launcher while launching an advanced
communication satellite.
What should be the last sentence of the sequence?
a.
D
b.
A
c.
B
d.
C
e.
E
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Q104
mcq
paragraph in a jumbled fashion. Arrange the sentences to
form a coherent paragraph and answer the following
questions.
(A) It plans to use this for the Chandrayaan-II moon
mission in the early months of 2019.
(B) The multi-band, multi-beam satellite can cater to the
communication needs of people in Jammu and
Kashmir and the Northeast.
(C) With a liftoff mass of 640 tonnes, the GSLV MkIII is the
heaviest launch vehicle made in India, and GSAT29 is
the heaviest satellite to take off from Indian soil.
| www.careerpower.in | Adda247 App
(D) The Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle MarkIII
(GSLV Mk III) launched GSAT29, an advanced
communications satellite, into a geosynchronous
transfer orbit where the satelliteβs closest approach to
earth would be 190 km and the farthest 35,975 km.
(E) The Indian Space Research Organization has marked
a big milestone by successfully testing its heavy-lift
launcher while launching an advanced
communication satellite.
What should be the SECOND sentence of the
sequence?
a.
D
b.
A
c.
B
d.
C
e.
E
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Q105
mcq
paragraph in a jumbled fashion. Arrange the sentences to
form a coherent paragraph and answer the following
questions.
(A) It plans to use this for the Chandrayaan-II moon
mission in the early months of 2019.
(B) The multi-band, multi-beam satellite can cater to the
communication needs of people in Jammu and
Kashmir and the Northeast.
(C) With a liftoff mass of 640 tonnes, the GSLV MkIII is the
heaviest launch vehicle made in India, and GSAT29 is
the heaviest satellite to take off from Indian soil.
| www.careerpower.in | Adda247 App
(D) The Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle MarkIII
(GSLV Mk III) launched GSAT29, an advanced
communications satellite, into a geosynchronous
transfer orbit where the satelliteβs closest approach to
earth would be 190 km and the farthest 35,975 km.
(E) The Indian Space Research Organization has marked
a big milestone by successfully testing its heavy-lift
launcher while launching an advanced
communication satellite.
What should be the FOURTH sentence of the final
sequence?
a.
A
b.
E
c.
D
d.
B
e.
C
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Q106
mcq
paragraph in a jumbled fashion. Arrange the sentences to
form a coherent paragraph and answer the following
questions.
(A) It plans to use this for the Chandrayaan-II moon
mission in the early months of 2019.
(B) The multi-band, multi-beam satellite can cater to the
communication needs of people in Jammu and
Kashmir and the Northeast.
(C) With a liftoff mass of 640 tonnes, the GSLV MkIII is the
heaviest launch vehicle made in India, and GSAT29 is
the heaviest satellite to take off from Indian soil.
| www.careerpower.in | Adda247 App
(D) The Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle MarkIII
(GSLV Mk III) launched GSAT29, an advanced
communications satellite, into a geosynchronous
transfer orbit where the satelliteβs closest approach to
earth would be 190 km and the farthest 35,975 km.
(E) The Indian Space Research Organization has marked
a big milestone by successfully testing its heavy-lift
launcher while launching an advanced
communication satellite.
What should be the THIRD sentence of the final
sequence?
a.
D
b.
A
c.
C
d.
B
e.
E
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Q107
mcq
paragraph in a jumbled fashion. Arrange the sentences to
form a coherent paragraph and answer the following
questions.
(A) It plans to use this for the Chandrayaan-II moon
mission in the early months of 2019.
(B) The multi-band, multi-beam satellite can cater to the
communication needs of people in Jammu and
Kashmir and the Northeast.
(C) With a liftoff mass of 640 tonnes, the GSLV MkIII is the
heaviest launch vehicle made in India, and GSAT29 is
the heaviest satellite to take off from Indian soil.
| www.careerpower.in | Adda247 App
(D) The Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle MarkIII
(GSLV Mk III) launched GSAT29, an advanced
communications satellite, into a geosynchronous
transfer orbit where the satelliteβs closest approach to
earth would be 190 km and the farthest 35,975 km.
(E) The Indian Space Research Organization has marked
a big milestone by successfully testing its heavy-lift
launcher while launching an advanced
communication satellite.
What should be the FIRST sentence of the final
sequence?
a.
C
b.
D
c.
B
d.
E
e.
A
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Q108
mcq
sentence is divided into four parts consisting of a
highlighted word in each part. Choose the option reflecting
the word which is either misspelt or grammatically
incorrect. If all the highlighted words are correct, choose
option (e) i.e. βall are correctβ as your answer choice.
The Monetry Policy Committee / of India is a
committee of the Reserve Bank of India/ that is
responsible for fixing the / benchmark interest rate
in India.
a.
Monetry
b.
Reserve
c.
Responsible
d.
Interest
e.
All are correct
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Q109
mcq
sentence is divided into four parts consisting of a
highlighted word in each part. Choose the option reflecting
the word which is either misspelt or grammatically
incorrect. If all the highlighted words are correct, choose
option (e) i.e. βall are correctβ as your answer choice.
Trade wars can easily / lead to confrontation, which
may / result in impulsive / behviour and
misjudgment.
a.
Trade
b.
Confrontation
c.
Impulsive
d.
Behviour
e.
All are correct
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Q110
mcq
sentence is divided into four parts consisting of a
highlighted word in each part. Choose the option reflecting
the word which is either misspelt or grammatically
incorrect. If all the highlighted words are correct, choose
option (e) i.e. βall are correctβ as your answer choice.
Saudi Arabia signalled its discomfort / with the
faling prices / and hinted at a fresh cut / of one
million barrels a day.
11 www.bankersadda.com | www.sscadda.com
a.
Signalled
b.
Faling
c.
Hinted
d.
Barrels
e.
All are correct
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