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NEET 2026 CODE Q

2026 · 51 questions · First 10 Solutions Free
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Q1 mcq
The addition of a catalyst during a chemical reaction alters which of the following quantities?
a.
Internal energy
b.
Enthalpy
c.
Activation energy Correct Answer
d.
Entropy
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
A catalyst provides an alternative reaction pathway with a lower activation energy, thereby increasing the rate of reaction without changing the internal energy, enthalpy, or entropy of the system.
Q2 mcq
Predict the correct order of repulsion among the following:
a.
lone pair-lone pair > bond pair-bond pair > lone pair-bond pair
b.
bond pair-bond pair > lone pair-bond pair > lone pair-lone pair
c.
lone pair-bond pair > bond pair-bond pair > lone pair-lone pair
d.
lone pair-lone pair > lone pair-bond pair > bond pair-bond pair Correct Answer
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
According to VSEPR theory, lone pair electrons occupy more space around the central atom than bond pair electrons, leading to the order of repulsion: lone pair-lone pair > lone pair-bond pair > bond pair-bond pair.
Q3 mcq
The correct statement regarding the basicity of arylamines is:
a.
Arylamines are generally more basic than alkylamines because the nitrogen lone-pair electrons are not delocalized by interaction with the aromatic ring π electron system.
b.
Arylamines are generally more basic than alkylamines because of the aryl group.
c.
Arylamines are generally more basic than alkylamines, because the nitrogen atom in arylamines is sp-hybridized.
d.
Arylamines are generally less basic than alkylamines because the nitrogen lone-pair electrons are delocalized by interaction with the aromatic ring π electron system. Correct Answer
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
In arylamines, the lone pair on the nitrogen atom is delocalized into the aromatic ring via resonance, making it less available for protonation compared to alkylamines where the lone pair is localized.
Q4 mcq
When copper is heated with conc. HNO3 it produces:
a.
Cu(NO3)2 and NO
b.
Cu(NO3)2, NO and NO2
c.
Cu(NO3)2 and N2O
d.
Cu(NO3)2 and NO2 Correct Answer
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Copper reacts with concentrated nitric acid to produce copper(II) nitrate, water, and reddish-brown nitrogen dioxide gas: Cu + 4HNO3 → Cu(NO3)2 + 2H2O + 2NO2.
Q5 mcq
For the following reactions: (a) CH3CH2CH2Br + KOH → CH3CH=CH2 + KBr + H2O, (b) (CH3)2CHBr + KOH → (CH3)2CHOH + KBr, (c) CH2=CH2 + Br2 → CH2BrCH2Br. Which of the following statements is correct?
a.
(a) is elimination, (b) is substitution and (c) addition reaction. Correct Answer
b.
(a) is elimination, (b) and (c) are substitution reactions.
c.
(a) is substitution, (b) and (c) are addition reactions.
d.
(a) and (b) are elimination reactions and (c) is addition reaction.
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Reaction (a) is a dehydrohalogenation (elimination), (b) is a nucleophilic substitution of Br by OH, and (c) is an electrophilic addition of bromine across the double bond.
Q6 mcq
Two electrons occupying the same orbital are distinguished by:
a.
Magnetic quantum number
b.
Azimuthal quantum number
c.
Spin quantum number Correct Answer
d.
Principal quantum number
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
According to the Pauli exclusion principle, no two electrons in an atom can have the same four quantum numbers. Since they are in the same orbital (n, l, and ml are the same), they must differ in their spin quantum number (ms).
Q7 mcq
The reaction of an alkoxide with an alkyl halide (e.g., Na+O-R + R'-X → R-O-R' + NaX) can be classified as:
a.
Alcohol formation reaction
b.
Dehydration reaction
c.
Williamson alcohol synthesis reaction
d.
Williamson ether synthesis reaction Correct Answer
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
The reaction of a sodium alkoxide with an alkyl halide to form an ether is known as the Williamson ether synthesis.
Q7 mcq
The reaction R–OH + NaH -> R–ONa + H2; R–ONa + Me–I -> R–O–Me + NaI can be classified as:
a.
Alcohol formation reaction
b.
Dehydration reaction
c.
Williamson alcohol synthesis reaction
d.
Williamson ether synthesis reaction Correct Answer
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
It is the Williamson ether synthesis reaction, which involves the reaction of an alkoxide (R-ONa) with an alkyl halide (R-X) to form an ether (R-O-R) and a salt (NaX).
Q8 mcq
The electronic configurations of Eu (Atomic No. 63), Gd (Atomic No. 64) and Tb (Atomic No. 65) are:
a.
[Xe]4f6 5d1 6s2, [Xe]4f7 5d1 6s2 and [Xe]4f9 6s2
b.
[Xe]4f6 5d1 6s2, [Xe]4f7 5d1 6s2 and [Xe]4f8 5d1 6s2
c.
[Xe]4f7 6s2, [Xe]4f7 5d1 6s2 and [Xe]4f9 6s2 Correct Answer
d.
[Xe]4f7 6s2, [Xe]4f8 6s2 and [Xe]4f8 5d1 6s2
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Eu (63) is [Xe]4f7 6s2 (half-filled f-subshell is stable), Gd (64) is [Xe]4f7 5d1 6s2 (extra stability of half-filled f-subshell), and Tb (65) is [Xe]4f9 6s2.
Q9 mcq
At 100ºC the vapour pressure of a solution of 6.5 g of a solute in 100 g water is 732 mm. If Kb = 0.52, the boiling point of this solution will be:
a.
100ºC
b.
102ºC
c.
103ºC
d.
101ºC Correct Answer
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Using Raoult's Law (P0 - Ps)/P0 = n2/(n1 + n2) ≈ n2/n1, molality m is calculated as 2.125. Then ΔTb = Kb * m = 0.52 * 2.125 ≈ 1.10. Boiling point = 100 + 1.10 = 101.1ºC, closest to 101ºC.
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Q10 mcq
The correct statement regarding the comparison of staggered and eclipsed conformations of ethane, is:
a.
The eclipsed conformation of ethane is more stable than staggered conformation, because eclipsed conformation has no torsional strain.
b.
The eclipsed conformation of ethane is more stable than staggered conformation, even though the eclipsed conformation has torsional strain.
c.
The staggered conformation of ethane is more stable than eclipsed conformation, because staggered conformation has no torsional strain.
d.
The staggered conformation of ethane is less stable than eclipsed conformation, because staggered conformation has torsional strain.
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Q11 mcq
Which one of the following characteristics is associated with adsorption?
a.
ΔG, ΔH and ΔS all are negative
b.
ΔG and ΔH are negative but ΔS is positive
c.
ΔG and ΔS are negative but ΔH is positive
d.
ΔG is negative but ΔH and ΔS are positive
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Q12 mcq
Match the compounds given in column I with the hybridisation and shape given in column II and mark the correct option. (a) XeF6 (b) XeO3 (c) XeOF4 (d) XeF4
a.
(a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
b.
(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
c.
(a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
d.
(a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
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Q13 mcq
The correct statement regarding a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon, is:
a.
a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon rapidly equilibrates with its corresponding enol and this process is known as aldehyde-ketone equilibration.
b.
a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon rapidly equilibrates with its corresponding enol and this process is known as carbonylation.
c.
a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon rapidly equilibrates with its corresponding enol and this process is known as keto-enol tautomerism.
d.
a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon never equilibrates with its corresponding enol.
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Q14 mcq
In a protein molecule various amino acids are linked together by:
a.
β-glycosidic bond
b.
peptide bond
c.
dative bond
d.
α-glycosidic bond
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Q15 mcq
Match items of Column I with the items of Column II and assign the correct code: Column I Column II (a) Cyanide process (i) Ultrapure Ge (b) Froth floatation process (ii) Dressing of Zns (c) Electrolytic reduction (iii) Extraction of Al (d) Zone refining (iv) Extraction of Au (v) Purification of Ni
a.
(1) (ii) (iii) (i) (v)
b.
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
c.
(3) (iii) (iv) (v) (i)
d.
(4) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
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Q16 mcq
Which of the following is an analgesic?
a.
Penicillin
b.
Streptomycin
c.
Chloromycetin
d.
Novalgin
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Q17 mcq
Which is the correct statement for the given acids?
a.
Phosphinic acid is a monoprotic acid while phosphonic acid is a diprotic acid
b.
Phosphinic acid is a diprotic acid while phosphonic acid is a monoprotic acid
c.
Both are triprotic acids
d.
Both are diprotic acids
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Q18 mcq
The pair of electron in the given carbanion, CH3C ≡ C–, is present in which of the following orbitals?
a.
sp3
b.
sp2
c.
sp
d.
2p
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Q19 mcq
Consider the molecules CH4, NH3 and H2O. Which of the given statements is false?
a.
The H – O – H bond angle in H2O is larger than the H – C – H bond angle in CH4
b.
The H – O – H bond angle in H2O is smaller than the H – N – H bond angle in NH3
c.
The H – C – H bond angle in CH4 is larger than the H – C – H bond angle in NH3
d.
The H – C – H bond angle in CH4, the H – N – H bond angle in NH3, and the H – O – H bond angle in H2O are all greater than 90º
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Q19 mcq
Consider the molecules CH4, NH3 and H2O. Which of the given statements is false?
a.
The H – O – H bond angle in H2O is larger than the H – C – H bond angle in CH4
b.
The H – O – H bond angle in H2O is smaller than the H – N – H bond angle in NH3
c.
The H – C – H bond angle in CH4 is larger than the H – C – H bond angle in NH3
d.
The H – C – H bond angle in CH4, the H – N – H bond angle in NH3, and the H – O – H bond angle in H2O are all greater than 90º
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Q20 mcq
Which one of the following statements is correct when SO2 is passed through acidified K2Cr2O7 solution?
a.
The solution is decolourized
b.
SO2 is reduced
c.
Green Cr2(SO4)3 is formed
d.
The solution turns blue
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Q21 mcq
The correct thermodynamic conditions for the spontaneous reaction at all temperatures is:
a.
ΔH > 0 and ΔS < 0
b.
ΔH < 0 and ΔS > 0
c.
ΔH < 0 and ΔS < 0
d.
ΔH < 0 and ΔS = 0
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Q22 mcq
Natural rubber has:
a.
All trans-configuration
b.
Alternate cis- and trans-configuration
c.
Random cis- and trans-configuration
d.
All cis-configuration
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Q23 mcq
In which of the following options the order of arrangement does not agree with the variation of property indicated against it?
a.
B < C < N < O (increasing first ionisation enthalpy)
b.
I < Br < Cl < F (increasing electron gain enthalpy)
c.
Li < Na < K < Rb (increasing metallic radius)
d.
Al3+ < Mg2+ < Na+ < F- (increasing ionic size)
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Q24 mcq
Which of the following reagents would distinguish cis-cyclopenta-1, 2-diol from the trans-isomer?
a.
Ozone
b.
MnO2
c.
Aluminium isopropoxide
d.
Acetone
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Q25 mcq
The product obtained as a result of a reaction of nitrogen with CaC2 is
a.
CaCN
b.
CaCN3
c.
Ca2CN
d.
Ca(CN)2
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Q26 mcq
Fog is a colloidal solution of:
a.
Gas in liquid
b.
Solid in gas
c.
Gas in gas
d.
Liquid in gas
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Q27 mcq
Which one of the following orders in correct for the bond dissociation enthalpy of halogen molecules?
a.
Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2
b.
Br2 > I2 > F2 > Cl2
c.
F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2
d.
I2 > Br2 > Cl2 > F2
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Q27 mcq
Which one of the following orders is correct for the bond dissociation enthalpy of halogen molecules ?
a.
Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2
b.
Br2 > I2 > F2 > Cl2
c.
F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2
d.
I2 > Br2 > Cl2 > F2
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Q30 mcq
Which of the following statements about the composition of the vapour over an ideal 1 : 1 molar mixture of benzene and toluene is correct? Assume that the temperature is constant at 25ºC. (Given, Vapour Pressure Data at 25ºC, benzene = 12.8 kPa, toluene = 3.85 kPa)
a.
The vapour will contain a higher percentage of toluene
b.
The vapour will contain equal amounts of benzene and toluene
c.
Not enough information is given to make a prediction
d.
The vapour will contain a higher percentage of benzene
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Q31 mcq
Which of the following has longest C – O bond length ? (Free C – O bond length in CO is 1.128 Å)
a.
[Co(CO)4]–
b.
[Fe(CO)4]2–
c.
[Mn(CO)6]+
d.
Ni(CO)4
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Q32 mcq
Among the following the correct order of acidity is :
a.
HClO < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4
b.
HClO4 < HClO < HClO3 < HClO4
c.
HClO4 < HClO2 < HClO < HClO3
d.
HClO3 < HClO4 < HClO2 < HClO
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Q32 mcq
Among the following the correct order of acidity is :
a.
HClO < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4
b.
HClO4 < HClO < HClO3 < HClO4
c.
HClO4 < HClO2 < HClO < HClO3
d.
HClO3 < HClO4 < HClO2 < HClO
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Q33 mcq
In the reaction sequence: HC≡CH --(NaNH2/liq. NH3, then CH3CH2Br)--> X --(NaNH2/liq. NH3, then CH3CH2Br)--> Y. X and Y are:
a.
X = 2-Butyne ; Y = 3-Hexyne
b.
X = 2-Butyne ; Y = 2-Hexyne
c.
X = 1-Butyne ; Y = 2-Hexyne
d.
X = 1-Butyne ; Y = 3-Hexyne
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Q33 mcq
In the reaction sequence: HC≡CH --(NaNH2/liq. NH3)--> X --(CH3CH2Br)--> Y --(NaNH2/liq. NH3)--> Z --(CH3CH2Br)--> 3-Hexyne. X and Y are :
a.
X = 2-Butyne ; Y=3-Hexyne
b.
X = 2-Butyne ; y=2-Hexyne
c.
X = 1-Butyne; y = 2-Hexyne
d.
X = 1-Butyne ; Y = 3-Hexyne
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Q34 mcq
MY and NY3, two nearly insoluble salts, have the same KSP values of 6.2 × 10^-13 at room temperature. Which statement would be true in regard to MY and NY3?
a.
The molar solubility of MY in water is less than that of NY3
b.
The salts MY and NY3 are more soluble in 0.5 M KY than in pure water
c.
The addition of the salt of KY to solution of MY and NY3 will have no effect on their solubilities
d.
The molar solubilities of MY and NY3 in water are identical
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Q35 mcq
Consider the nitration of benzene using mixed conc. H2SO4 and HNO3. If a large amount of KHSO4 is added to the mixture, the rate of nitration will be :
a.
slower
b.
uncharged
c.
doubled
d.
faster
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Q36 mcq
The product formed by the reaction of an aldehyde with a primary amine is :
a.
Ketone
b.
Carboxylic acid
c.
Aromatic acid
d.
Schiff base
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Q37 mcq
The pressure of H2 required to make the potential of H2-electrode zero in pure water at 298 K is :
a.
10^-12 atm
b.
10^-10 atm
c.
10^-4 atm
d.
10^-14 atm
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Q38 mcq
The correct statement regarding RNA and DNA respectively is :
a.
The sugar component in RNA is ribose and the sugar component in DNA is 2-dexyribose
b.
The sugar component in RNA is arabinose and the sugar component in DNA is ribose
c.
The sugar component in RNA is 2'-dexyribose and the sugar component in DNA is arabinose
d.
The sugar component in RNA is arabinose and the sugar component in DNA is 2'-deoxyribose
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Q39 mcq
Which one given below is a non-reducing sugar ?
a.
Lactose
b.
Glucose
c.
Sucrose
d.
Maltose
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Q39 mcq
Which one given below is a non-reducing sugar?
a.
Lactose
b.
Glucose
c.
Sucrose
d.
Maltose
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Q40 mcq
Which of the following statement about hydrogen is incorrect?
a.
Hydrogen never acts as cation in ionic salts
b.
Hydronium ion, H3O+ exists freely in solution
c.
Dihydrogen does not act as a reducing agent
d.
Hydrogen has three isotopes of which tritium is the most common
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Q41 mcq
Consider the following liquid-vapour equilibrium: Liquid ⇌ Vapour. Which of the following relations (Clausius-Clapeyron equation) is correct?
a.
d(ln P)/dT = -ΔH_v / RT
b.
d(ln P)/dT = -ΔH_v / RT^2
c.
d(ln P)/dT = ΔH_v / RT^2
d.
d(ln G)/dT = ΔH_v / RT^2
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Q42 mcq
Which of the following biphenyls is optically active?
a.
2,2'-diiodo-6,6'-dibromobiphenyl
b.
4,4'-diiodobiphenyl
c.
2,2'-dimethylbiphenyl
d.
2-iodo-2'-nitrobiphenyl
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Q45 mcq
The rate of a first order reaction is 0.04 mol l⁻¹ s⁻¹ at 10 seconds and 0.03 mol l⁻¹ s⁻¹ at 20 seconds after initiation of the reaction. The half-life period of the reaction is :
a.
34.1 s
b.
44.1 s
c.
54.1 s
d.
24.1 s
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Q45 mcq
The rate of a first order reaction is 0.04 mol l^-1 s^-1 at 10 seconds and 0.03 mol l^-1 s^-1 at 20 seconds after initiation of the reaction. The half-life period of the reaction is:
a.
34.1 s
b.
44.1 s
c.
54.1 s
d.
24.1 s
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Q124 mcq
Which one of the following statements is wrong?
a.
Cellulose is a polysaccharide.
b.
Uracil is a pyrimidine.
c.
Glycine is a sulphur containing amino acid.
d.
Sucrose is a disaccharide.
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Q124 mcq
Which one of the following statements is wrong?
a.
Cellulose is a polysaccharide.
b.
Uracil is a pyrimidine.
c.
Glycine is a sulphur containing amino acid.
d.
Sucrose is a disaccharide.
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Q146 mcq
Given the value of Rydberg constant is 10^7 m^-1, the wave number of the last line of the Balmer series in hydrogen spectrum will be:
a.
0.5 × 10^7 m^-1
b.
0.25 × 10^7 m^-1
c.
2.5 × 10^7 m^-1
d.
0.025 × 10^4 m^-1
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