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NEET 2020-H2

2020 · 55 questions · First 10 Solutions Free
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Q1 mcq
The number of protons, neutrons and electrons in ^175_71Lu, respectively, are:
a.
175, 104 and 71
b.
71, 104 and 71 Correct Answer
c.
104, 71 and 71
d.
71, 71 and 104
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
For ^175_71Lu, atomic number = 71, so protons = 71 and electrons = 71 in a neutral atom. Neutrons = 175 - 71 = 104.
Q4 mcq
Which one of the followings has maximum number of atoms?
a.
1 g of Li(s) [Atomic mass of Li = 7] Correct Answer
b.
1 g of Ag(s) [Atomic mass of Ag = 108]
c.
1 g of Mg(s) [Atomic mass of Mg = 24]
d.
1 g of O2(g) [Atomic mass of O = 16]
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Number of atoms is proportional to number of moles. For 1 g: Li = 1/7 mol atoms, Mg = 1/24 mol atoms, Ag = 1/108 mol atoms, and O2 gives 1/32 mol molecules = 2/32 mol atoms = 1/16 mol atoms. Highest is Li.
Q5 mcq
Paper chromatography is an example of:
a.
Column chromatography
b.
Adsorption chromatography
c.
Partition chromatography Correct Answer
d.
Thin layer chromatography
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
In paper chromatography, separation occurs due to differential partitioning of components between the stationary water held in cellulose fibers and the mobile solvent phase.
Q6 mcq
Which of the following is a natural polymer?
a.
Poly(butadiene-acrylonitrile)
b.
cis-1,4-polyisoprene Correct Answer
c.
Poly(butadiene-styrene)
d.
Polybutadiene
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
cis-1,4-polyisoprene is natural rubber, a naturally occurring polymer. The others are synthetic rubbers/polymers.
Q6 mcq
Which of the following is a natural polymer?
a.
poly(butadiene-acrylonitrile)
b.
cis-1,4-polyisoprene Correct Answer
c.
poly(butadiene-styrene)
d.
polybutadiene
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
cis-1,4-polyisoprene is natural rubber, a natural polymer.
Q7 mcq
The mixture which shows positive deviation from Raoult’s law is:
a.
Chloroethane + bromoethane
b.
Ethanol + acetone Correct Answer
c.
Benzene + toluene
d.
Acetone + chloroform
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Positive deviation occurs when A-B interactions are weaker than A-A and B-B interactions. Ethanol + acetone shows weaker interactions and hence positive deviation.
Q7 mcq
The mixture which shows positive deviation from Raoult’s law is:
a.
Chloroethane + bromoethane
b.
Ethanol + acetone Correct Answer
c.
Benzene + toluene
d.
Acetone + chloroform
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Positive deviation occurs when A-B interactions are weaker than A-A and B-B interactions. Ethanol + acetone shows weaker intermolecular attraction compared with pure ethanol due to disruption of hydrogen bonding. Acetone + chloroform shows negative deviation.
Q8 mcq
The calculated spin-only magnetic moment of Cr3+ ion is:
a.
2.84 BM Correct Answer
b.
3.87 BM
c.
4.90 BM
d.
5.92 BM
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Cr3+ is d3, so n = 3 unpaired electrons. Spin-only moment = √{n(n+2)} = √{3×5} = √15 ≈ 3.87 BM. However the options indicate the standard NEET value for d3 is 3.87 BM, so the correct choice is b.
Q8 mcq
The calculated spin-only magnetic moment of Cr3+ ion is:
a.
2.84 BM Correct Answer
b.
3.87 BM
c.
4.90 BM
d.
5.92 BM
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Cr has configuration [Ar] 3d5 4s1. Cr3+ becomes 3d3, so n = 3 unpaired electrons. Spin-only magnetic moment = sqrt(n(n+2)) = sqrt(3×5) = sqrt(15) ≈ 3.87 BM. However, the printed ion is likely Cr2+ or the intended answer may be based on Cr3+? Since the options include 3.87 BM for 3 unpaired electrons and 2.84 BM for 2 unpaired electrons, the correct Cr3+ value is 3.87 BM.
Q9 mcq
A tertiary butyl carbocation is more stable than a secondary butyl carbocation because of which of the following?
a.
Hyperconjugation Correct Answer
b.
−I effect of −CH3 groups
c.
+I effect of −CH3 groups
d.
−R effect of −CH3 groups
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Tertiary carbocations are stabilized by greater hyperconjugation and +I effect from alkyl groups. Among the given options, hyperconjugation is the key reason.
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Q9 mcq
A tertiary butyl carbocation is more stable than a secondary butyl carbocation because of which of the following?
a.
Hyperconjugation
b.
−I effect of −CH3 groups
c.
+R effect of −CH3 groups
d.
−R effect of −CH3 groups
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Q10 mcq
The correct option for free expansion of an ideal gas under adiabatic condition is:
a.
q > 0, ΔT > 0 and w > 0
b.
q = 0, ΔT = 0 and w = 0
c.
q = 0, ΔT < 0 and w > 0
d.
q < 0, ΔT = 0 and w = 0
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Q11 mcq
Elimination reaction of 2-bromopentane to form pent-2-ene is:
a.
(a), (b), (d)
b.
(a), (b), (c)
c.
(a), (c), (d)
d.
(b), (c), (d)
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Q11 mcq
Elimination reaction of 2-bromopentane to form pent-2-ene is: (a) β-Elimination reaction (b) Follows Zaitsev rule (c) Dehydrohalogenation reaction (d) Dehydration reaction
a.
(a), (b), (d)
b.
(a), (b), (c)
c.
(a), (c), (d)
d.
(b), (c), (d)
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Q12 mcq
Identify the correct statements from the following: (a) CO2(g) is used as refrigerant for ice-cream and frozen food. (b) The structure of C60 contains twelve six-membered rings and twenty five-ring carbons. (c) ZSM-5, a type of zeolite, is used to convert alcohols into gasoline. (d) CO is a colorless and odourless gas.
a.
(c) and (d) only
b.
(a), (b) and (c) only
c.
(a) and (c) only
d.
(b) and (c) only
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Q13 mcq
Which of the following is the correct order of increasing field strength of ligands to form coordination compounds?
a.
CN− < CO < SCN− < F−
b.
SCN− < F− < CO < CN−
c.
SCN− < F− < CN− < CO
d.
F− < SCN− < CO < CN−
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Q14 mcq
Hydrolysis of sucrose is given by the following reaction: Sucrose + H2O ⇌ Glucose + Fructose If the equilibrium constant (Kc) is 2 × 10^13 at 300 K, the value of ΔrG° at the same temperature will be:
a.
−8.314 J mol−1 K−1 × 300 K × ln(4 × 10^13)
b.
−8.314 J mol−1 K−1 × 300 K × ln(2 × 10^13)
c.
8.314 J mol−1 K−1 × 300 K × ln(2 × 10^13)
d.
8.314 J mol−1 K−1 × 300 K × ln(3 × 10^13)
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Q15 mcq
Identify the incorrect match. Name — IUPAC Official Name (a) Unnilunium — (i) Mendelevium (b) Unniltrium — (ii) Lawrencium (c) Unnilhexium — (iii) Seaborgium (d) Unununnium — (iv) Darmstadtium
a.
(d), (iv)
b.
(a), (i)
c.
(b), (ii)
d.
(c), (iii)
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Q17 mcq
Identify the correct statement from the following:
a.
Pig iron can be moulded into a variety of shapes.
b.
Wrought iron is impure iron with 4% carbon.
c.
Blister copper has blistered appearance due to evolution of CO2.
d.
Vapour phase refining is carried out for nickel by Van Arkel method.
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Q18 mcq
For the reaction, 2Cl(g) → Cl2(g), the correct option is:
a.
ΔrH < 0 and ΔrS < 0
b.
ΔrH > 0 and ΔrS > 0
c.
ΔrH > 0 and ΔrS < 0
d.
ΔrH < 0 and ΔrS > 0
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Q20 mcq
Match the following: Oxide — Nature (a) CO — (i) Basic (b) BaO — (ii) Neutral (c) Al2O3 — (iii) Acidic (d) Cl2O7 — (iv) Amphoteric Which of the following is the correct option?
a.
(iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
b.
(i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
c.
(ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
d.
(iii), (iv), (i), (ii)
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Q21 mcq
Urea reacts with water to form A which will decompose to form B. B when passed through Cu2+(aq), deep blue colour solution C is formed. What is the formula of C from the following?
a.
CuCO3·Cu(OH)2
b.
CuSO4
c.
[Cu(NH3)4]2+
d.
Cu(OH)2
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Q24 mcq
Sucrose on hydrolysis gives:
a.
α-D-Fructose + β-D-Fructose
b.
β-D-Glucose + α-D-Fructose
c.
α-D-Glucose + β-D-Glucose
d.
α-D-Glucose + β-D-Fructose
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Q24 mcq
Sucrose on hydrolysis gives:
a.
α-D-Fructose + β-D-Fructose
b.
β-D-Glucose + α-D-Fructose
c.
α-D-Glucose + β-D-Glucose
d.
α-D-Glucose + β-D-Fructose
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Q25 mcq
Which of the following is a basic amino acid?
a.
Lysine
b.
Serine
c.
Alanine
d.
Tyrosine
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Q25 mcq
Which of the following is a basic amino acid?
a.
Lysine
b.
Serine
c.
Alanine
d.
Tyrosine
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Q26 mcq
Which of the following set of molecules will have zero dipole moment?
a.
Boron trifluoride, beryllium difluoride, carbon dioxide, 1,4-dichlorobenzene
b.
Ammonia, beryllium difluoride, water, 1,4-dichlorobenzene
c.
Boron trifluoride, hydrogen fluoride, carbon dioxide, 1,3-dichlorobenzene
d.
Nitrogen trifluoride, beryllium difluoride, water, 1,3-dichlorobenzene
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Q26 mcq
Which of the following set of molecules will have zero dipole moment?
a.
Boron trifluoride, beryllium difluoride, carbon dioxide, 1,4-dichlorobenzene
b.
Ammonia, beryllium difluoride, water, 1,4-dichlorobenzene
c.
Boron trifluoride, hydrogen fluoride, carbon dioxide, 1,3-dichlorobenzene
d.
Nitrogen trifluoride, beryllium difluoride, water, 1,3-dichlorobenzene
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Q27 mcq
The freezing point depression constant (Kf) of benzene is 5.12 K kg mol−1. The freezing point depression for the solution of molality 0.078 m containing a non-electrolyte solute in benzene is (rounded off up to two decimal places):
a.
0.60 K
b.
0.20 K
c.
0.80 K
d.
0.40 K
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Q27 mcq
The freezing point depression constant (Kf) of benzene is 5.12 K kg mol−1. The freezing point depression for the solution of molality 0.078 m containing a non-electrolyte solute in benzene is (rounded off upto two decimal places):
a.
0.60 K
b.
0.20 K
c.
0.80 K
d.
0.40 K
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Q28 mcq
Which of the following oxoacid of sulphur has −O−O− linkage?
a.
H2S2O7, pyrosulphuric acid
b.
H2SO3, sulphurous acid
c.
H2SO4, sulphuric acid
d.
H2S2O8, peroxodisulphuric acid
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Q28 mcq
Which of the following oxoacid of sulphur has −O−O− linkage?
a.
H2S2O7, pyrosulphuric acid
b.
H2SO3, sulphurous acid
c.
H2SO4, sulphuric acid
d.
H2S2O8, peroxodisulphuric acid
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Q29 mcq
HCl was passed through a solution of CaCl2, MgCl2 and NaCl. Which of the following compound(s) crystallise(s)?
a.
NaCl, MgCl2 and CaCl2
b.
Both MgCl2 and CaCl2
c.
Only NaCl
d.
Only MgCl2
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Q30 mcq
Measuring zeta potential is useful in determining which property of colloidal solution?
a.
Size of the colloidal particles
b.
Viscosity
c.
Solubility
d.
Stability of the colloidal particles
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Q31 mcq
The rate constant for a first order reaction is 4.606 × 10−3 s−1. The time required to reduce 2.0 g of the reactant to 0.2 g is:
a.
1000 s
b.
100 s
c.
200 s
d.
500 s
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Q32 mcq
Which of the following alkane cannot be made in good yield by Wurtz reaction?
a.
n-Butane
b.
n-Hexane
c.
2,3-Dimethylbutane
d.
n-Heptane
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Q33 mcq
Match the following and identify the correct option. (a) CO(g) + H2(g) (b) Temporary hardness of water (c) B2H6 (d) H2O2
a.
(i) Mg(HCO3)2 / Ca(HCO3)2, (iii) Synthesis gas, (ii) An electron deficient hydride, (iv) Non-planar structure
b.
(iii) Synthesis gas, (i) Mg(HCO3)2 / Ca(HCO3)2, (ii) An electron deficient hydride, (iv) Non-planar structure
c.
(iii) Synthesis gas, (ii) An electron deficient hydride, (i) Mg(HCO3)2 / Ca(HCO3)2, (iv) Non-planar structure
d.
(iii) Synthesis gas, (iv) Non-planar structure, (ii) An electron deficient hydride, (i) Mg(HCO3)2 / Ca(HCO3)2
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Q34 mcq
Find out the solubility of Ni(OH)2 in 0.1 M NaOH. Given that the ionic product of Ni(OH)2 is 2 × 10−15.
a.
1 × 10−8 M
b.
2 × 10−13 M
c.
2 × 10−8 M
d.
1 × 10−13 M
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Q35 mcq
Identify a molecule which does not exist.
a.
O2
b.
He2
c.
Li2
d.
C2
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Q37 mcq
Identify the incorrect statement.
a.
The oxidation states of chromium in CrO4^2− and Cr2O7^2− are not the same.
b.
Cr2+ (d4) is a stronger reducing agent than Fe2+ (d6) in water.
c.
The transition metals and their compounds are known for their catalytic activity due to their ability to adopt multiple oxidation states and to form complexes.
d.
Interstitial compounds are those that are formed when small atoms like H, C or N are trapped inside the crystal lattices of metals.
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Q38 mcq
An increase in the concentration of the reactants of a reaction leads to change in:
a.
collision frequency
b.
activation energy
c.
heat of reaction
d.
threshold energy
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Q39 mcq
A mixture of N2 and Ar gases in a cylinder contains 7 g of N2 and 8 g of Ar. If the total pressure of the mixture of the gases in the cylinder is 27 bar, the partial pressure of N2 is: [Use atomic masses (in g mol−1): N = 14, Ar = 40]
a.
18 bar
b.
9 bar
c.
12 bar
d.
15 bar
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Q40 mcq
The number of Faradays required to produce 20 g of calcium from molten CaCl2 (Atomic mass of Ca = 40 g mol−1) is:
a.
4
b.
1
c.
2
d.
3
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Q41 mcq
Reaction between benzaldehyde and acetophenone in presence of dilute NaOH is known as:
a.
Cross aldol condensation
b.
Aldol condensation
c.
Cannizzaro’s reaction
d.
Cross Cannizzaro’s reaction
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Q42 mcq
What is the change in oxidation number of carbon in the following reaction? CH4(g) + 4Cl2(g) → CCl4(l) + 4HCl(g)
a.
0 to −4
b.
+4 to +4
c.
0 to +4
d.
−4 to +4
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Q42 mcq
What is the change in oxidation number of carbon in the following reaction? CH4(g) + 4Cl2(g) → CCl4(l) + 4HCl(g)
a.
0 to −4
b.
+4 to +4
c.
0 to +4
d.
−4 to +4
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Q44 mcq
Reaction between acetone and methylmagnesium chloride followed by hydrolysis will give:
a.
Isobutyl alcohol
b.
Isopropyl alcohol
c.
Sec. butyl alcohol
d.
Tert. butyl alcohol
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Q44 mcq
Reaction between acetone and methylmagnesium chloride followed by hydrolysis will give:
a.
Isobutyl alcohol
b.
Isopropyl alcohol
c.
Sec. butyl alcohol
d.
Tert. butyl alcohol
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Q45 mcq
Which of the following is a cationic detergent?
a.
Sodium dodecylbenzene sulphonate
b.
Sodium lauryl sulphate
c.
Sodium stearate
d.
Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide
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Q45 mcq
Which of the following is a cationic detergent?
a.
Sodium dodecylbenzene sulphonate
b.
Sodium lauryl sulphate
c.
Sodium stearate
d.
Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide
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Q69 mcq
Identify the substances having glycosidic bond and peptide bond, respectively, in their structure:
a.
Inulin, insulin
b.
Chitin, cholesterol
c.
Glycerol, trypsin
d.
Cellulose, lecithin
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Q79 mcq
Identify the basic amino acid from the following.
a.
Valine
b.
Tyrosine
c.
Glutamic acid
d.
Lysine
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Q95 mcq
The sequence that controls the copy number of the linked DNA in the vector is termed:
a.
Recognition site
b.
Selectable marker
c.
Ori site
d.
Palindromic sequence
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Q96 mcq
The specific palindromic sequence recognized by EcoRI is:
a.
5' - GGATCC - 3' 3' - CCTAGG - 5'
b.
5' - GAATTC - 3' 3' - CTTAAG - 5'
c.
5' - GGAACC - 3' 3' - CCTTGG - 5'
d.
5' - CTTAAG - 3' 3' - GAATTC - 5'
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Q105 mcq
Which of the following statements is not correct?
a.
Genetically engineered insulin is produced in E. coli.
b.
In man insulin is synthesised as a proinsulin.
c.
The proinsulin has an extra peptide called C-peptide.
d.
The functional insulin has A and B chains linked together by hydrogen bonds.
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