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NEET 2020-E2

2020 · 55 questions · First 10 Solutions Free
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Q1 mcq
Which of the following amine will give the carbylamine test?
a.
Primary aliphatic or aromatic amine Correct Answer
b.
Secondary amine
c.
Tertiary amine
d.
Secondary amine with different alkyl groups
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Carbylamine test is a specific reaction for primary amines (aliphatic or aromatic) which react with chloroform and KOH to form isocyanides (carbylamines) having a foul smell. Only choice (1) in the source represents a primary amine (R-NH2).
Q2 mcq
An alkene on ozonolysis gives methanal as one of the product. Its structure is
a.
CH3-CH=CH2
b.
CH3-CH2-CH=CH2
c.
CH2=CH-CH2-CH3 Correct Answer
d.
CH3-CH2-CH=CH-CH3
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Ozonolysis of an alkene yields methanal (HCHO) only if the alkene has a terminal =CH2 group. Among the options, (3) represents CH2=CH-CH2-CH3, which produces methanal and propanal.
Q3 mcq
Match the following and identify the correct option. (a) CO(g) + H2(g) (i) Mg(HCO3)2 + Ca(HCO3)2 (b) Temporary hardness of water (ii) An electron deficient hydride (c) B2H6 (iii) Synthesis gas (d) H2O2 (iv) Non-planar structure
a.
(a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv) Correct Answer
b.
(a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
c.
(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
d.
(a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
CO + H2 is synthesis gas (syngas). Temporary hardness is caused by bicarbonates. B2H6 is a classic electron-deficient hydride. H2O2 has a non-planar 'open book' structure.
Q4 mcq
The freezing point depression constant (Kf) of benzene is 5.12 K kg mol–1. The freezing point depression for the solution of molality 0.078 m containing a non-electrolyte solute in benzene is (rounded off upto two decimal places) :
a.
0.20 K
b.
0.80 K
c.
0.40 K Correct Answer
d.
0.60 K
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Delta Tf = Kf * molality = 5.12 * 0.078 = 0.39936 K, which rounds to 0.40 K.
Q5 mcq
On electrolysis of dil. sulphuric acid using Platinum (Pt) electrode, the product obtained at anode will be
a.
Hydrogen gas
b.
Oxygen gas Correct Answer
c.
H2S gas
d.
SO2 gas
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
In dilute H2SO4 electrolysis, water is preferentially oxidized at the anode compared to the sulfate ion, resulting in the evolution of Oxygen gas.
Q6 mcq
Identify compound X in the following sequence of reactions: Toluene + Cl2/hv -> X -> H2O/373K -> Benzaldehyde
a.
Chlorotoluene
b.
Benzyl chloride
c.
Benzal chloride (Benzylidene chloride) Correct Answer
d.
Benzotrichloride
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Side chain chlorination of toluene with Cl2/hv followed by hydrolysis is a method to prepare benzaldehyde. Benzal chloride (C6H5CHCl2) upon hydrolysis gives benzaldehyde (C6H5CHO).
Q7 mcq
Which one of the followings has maximum number of atoms?
a.
1 g of Ag(s)
b.
1 g of Mg(s)
c.
1 g of O2(g)
d.
1 g of Li(s) Correct Answer
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Number of atoms = (given mass / molar mass) * Avogadro's number * atomicity. For 1g Li: (1/7) * Na. For 1g Mg: (1/24) * Na. For 1g Ag: (1/108) * Na. For 1g O2: (1/32) * 2 * Na. Li has the smallest molar mass, resulting in the largest number of moles and atoms.
Q8 mcq
Identify the correct statement from the following :
a.
Wrought iron is impure iron with 4% carbon.
b.
Blister copper has blistered appearance due to evolution of CO2.
c.
Vapour phase refining is carried out for Nickel by Van Arkel method.
d.
Pig iron can be moulded into a variety of shapes. Correct Answer
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Pig iron contains about 4% carbon and is hard but brittle. Cast iron is made from pig iron and can be cast into a variety of shapes. Wrought iron is the purest form of iron. Blister copper is due to SO2 evolution. Mond process (not Van Arkel) is used for Nickel.
Q9 mcq
A tertiary butyl carbocation is more stable than a secondary butyl carbocation because of which of the following?
a.
– I effect of – CH3 groups
b.
+ R effect of – CH3 groups
c.
– R effect of – CH3 groups
d.
Hyperconjugation Correct Answer
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Stability of carbocations increases with the number of alpha-hydrogens available for hyperconjugation. A tertiary butyl carbocation has 9 alpha-hydrogens, whereas a secondary butyl carbocation has fewer, making the tertiary one more stable.
Q10 mcq
Urea reacts with water to form A which will decompose to form B. B when passed through Cu2+(aq), deep blue colour solution C is formed. What is the formula of C from the following?
a.
CuSO4
b.
[Cu(NH3)4]2+ Correct Answer
c.
Cu(OH)2
d.
CuCO3⋅Cu(OH)2
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Urea (NH2CONH2) reacts with water to form ammonium carbonate (A), which decomposes into ammonia (B). Ammonia reacts with Cu2+(aq) to form the deep blue complex [Cu(NH3)4]2+ (C).
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Q10 mcq
Urea reacts with water to form A which will decompose to form B. B when passed through Cu2+ (aq), deep blue colour solution C is formed. What is the formula of C from the following?
a.
CuSO4
b.
[Cu(NH3)4]2+
c.
Cu(OH)2
d.
CuCO3·Cu(OH)2
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Q13 mcq
The rate constant for a first order reaction is 4.606 × 10–3 s–1. The time required to reduce 2.0 g of the reactant to 0.2 g is :
a.
100 s
b.
200 s
c.
500 s
d.
1000 s
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Q13 mcq
The rate constant for a first order reaction is 4.606 × 10–3 s–1. The time required to reduce 2.0 g of the reactant to 0.2 g is :
a.
100 s
b.
200 s
c.
500 s
d.
1000 s
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Q14 mcq
Reaction between acetone and methylmagnesium chloride followed by hydrolysis will give :
a.
Isopropyl alcohol
b.
Sec. butyl alcohol
c.
Tert. butyl alcohol
d.
Isobutyl alcohol
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Q15 mcq
Which of the following set of molecules will have zero dipole moment?
a.
Ammonia, beryllium difluoride, water, 1,4-dichlorobenzene
b.
Boron trifluoride, hydrogen fluoride, carbon dioxide, 1,3-dichlorobenzene
c.
Nitrogen trifluoride, beryllium difluoride, water, 1,3-dichlorobenzene
d.
Boron trifluoride, beryllium difluoride, carbon dioxide, 1,4-dichlorobenzene
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Q16 mcq
What is the change in oxidation number of carbon in the following reaction? CH4 (g) + 4Cl2 (g) -> CCl4 (l) + 4HCl (g)
a.
+ 4 to + 4
b.
0 to + 4
c.
– 4 to + 4
d.
0 to – 4
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Q17 mcq
Match the following: Oxide Nature (a) CO (i) Basic (b) BaO (ii) Neutral (c) Al2O3 (iii) Acidic (d) Cl2O7 (iv) Amphoteric
a.
(a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
b.
(a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
c.
(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
d.
(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
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Q18 mcq
Which of the following is not correct about carbon monoxide?
a.
It forms carboxyhaemoglobin
b.
It reduces oxygen carrying ability of blood.
c.
The carboxyhaemoglobin (haemoglobin bound to CO) is less stable than oxyhaemoglobin.
d.
It is produced due to incomplete combustion.
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Q19 mcq
Measuring Zeta potential is useful in determining which property of colloidal solution?
a.
Viscosity
b.
Solubility
c.
Stability of the colloidal particles
d.
Size of the colloidal particles
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Q20 mcq
Which of the following is the correct order of increasing field strength of ligands to form coordination compounds?
a.
SCN– < F– < C2O42– < CN–
b.
SCN– < F– < CN– < C2O42–
c.
F– < SCN– < C2O42– < CN–
d.
CN– < C2O42– < SCN– < F–
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Q21 mcq
Elimination reaction of 2-Bromo-pentane to form pent-2-ene is: (a) β-Elimination reaction, (b) Follows Zaitsev rule, (c) Dehydrohalogenation reaction, (d) Dehydration reaction
a.
(a), (b), (c)
b.
(a), (c), (d)
c.
(b), (c), (d)
d.
(a), (b), (d)
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Q22 mcq
The correct option for free expansion of an ideal gas under adiabatic condition is
a.
q = 0, ΔT = 0 and w = 0
b.
q = 0, ΔT < 0 and w > 0
c.
q < 0, ΔT = 0 and w = 0
d.
q > 0, ΔT > 0 and w > 0
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Q23 mcq
Identify the incorrect statement.
a.
Cr2+ (d4) is a stronger reducing agent than Fe2+ (d6) in water.
b.
The transition metals and their compounds are known for their catalytic activity.
c.
Interstitial compounds are those that are formed when small atoms like H, C or N are trapped inside the crystal lattices of metals.
d.
The oxidation states of chromium in CrO4^2– and Cr2O7^2– are not the same.
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Q24 mcq
Identify the incorrect match.
a.
(a) Unnilunium (i) Mendelevium
b.
(b) Unniltrium (ii) Lawrencium
c.
(c) Unnilhexium (iii) Seaborgium
d.
(d) Unununnium (iv) Darmstadtium
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Q24 mcq
Identify the incorrect match.
a.
Unnilunium (i) Mendelevium
b.
Unniltrium (ii) Lawrencium
c.
Unnilhexium (iii) Seaborgium
d.
Unununnium (iv) Darmstadtium
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Q25 mcq
Reaction between benzaldehyde and acetophenone in presence of dilute NaOH is known as
a.
Aldol condensation
b.
Cannizzaro’s reaction
c.
Cross Cannizzaro’s reaction
d.
Cross Aldol condensation
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Q25 mcq
Reaction between benzaldehyde and acetophenone in presence of dilute NaOH is known as
a.
Aldol condensation
b.
Cannizzaro’s reaction
c.
Cross Cannizzaro’s reaction
d.
Cross Aldol condensation
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Q26 mcq
Which of the following oxoacid of sulphur has – O – O – linkage?
a.
H2SO3, sulphurous acid
b.
H2SO4, sulphuric acid
c.
H2S2O8, peroxodisulphuric acid
d.
H2S2O7, pyrosulphuric acid
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Q26 mcq
Which of the following oxoacid of sulphur has – O – O – linkage?
a.
H2SO3, sulphurous acid
b.
H2SO4, sulphuric acid
c.
H2S2O8, peroxodisulphuric acid
d.
H2S2O7, pyrosulphuric acid
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Q27 mcq
HCl was passed through a solution of CaCl2, MgCl2 and NaCl. Which of the following compound(s) crystallise(s)?
a.
Both MgCl2 and CaCl2
b.
Only NaCl
c.
Only MgCl2
d.
NaCl, MgCl2 and CaCl2
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Q27 mcq
HCl was passed through a solution of CaCl2, MgCl2 and NaCl. Which of the following compound(s) crystallise(s)?
a.
Both MgCl2 and CaCl2
b.
Only NaCl
c.
Only MgCl2
d.
NaCl, MgCl2 and CaCl2
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Q28 mcq
Anisole on cleavage with HI gives
a.
Phenol + CH3I
b.
Iodobenzene + CH3OH
c.
Phenol + C2H5I
d.
Iodobenzene + C2H5OH
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Q29 mcq
Identify the correct statements from the following: (a) CO2(g) is used as refrigerant for ice-cream and frozen food. (b) The structure of C60 contains twelve six carbon rings and twenty five carbon rings. (c) ZSM-5, a type of zeolite, is used to convert alcohols into gasoline. (d) CO is colorless and odourless gas.
a.
(a), (b) and (c) only
b.
(a) and (c) only
c.
(b) and (c) only
d.
(c) and (d) only
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Q30 mcq
For the reaction, 2Cl(g) → Cl2(g), the correct option is:
a.
ΔrH > 0 and ΔrS > 0
b.
ΔrH > 0 and ΔrS < 0
c.
ΔrH < 0 and ΔrS > 0
d.
ΔrH < 0 and ΔrS < 0
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Q31 mcq
Paper chromatography is an example of
a.
Adsorption chromatography
b.
Partition chromatography
c.
Thin layer chromatography
d.
Column chromatography
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Q32 mcq
Which of the following alkane cannot be made in good yield by Wurtz reaction?
a.
n-Hexane
b.
2,3-Dimethylbutane
c.
n-Heptane
d.
n-Butane
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Q33 mcq
An increase in the concentration of the reactants of a reaction leads to change in
a.
activation energy
b.
heat of reaction
c.
threshold energy
d.
collision frequency
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Q34 mcq
The number of Faradays(F) required to produce 20 g of calcium from molten CaCl2 (Atomic mass of Ca = 40 g mol–1) is
a.
1
b.
2
c.
3
d.
4
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Q35 mcq
The mixture which shows positive deviation from Raoult’s law is
a.
Ethanol + Acetone
b.
Benzene + Toluene
c.
Acetone + Chloroform
d.
Chloroethane + Bromoethane
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Q36 mcq
Hydrolysis of sucrose is given by the following reaction. If the equilibrium constant (KC) is 2 × 10^13 at 300 K, the value of ΔrG° at the same temperature will be:
a.
-8.314 J mol–1 K–1 × 300 K × ln(2 × 10^13)
b.
8.314 J mol–1 K–1 × 300 K × ln(2 × 10^13)
c.
8.314 J mol–1 K–1 × 300 K × ln(3 × 10^13)
d.
-8.314 J mol–1 K–1 × 300 K × ln(4 × 10^13)
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Q37 mcq
Sucrose on hydrolysis gives
a.
β-D-Glucose + α-D-Fructose
b.
α-D-Glucose + β-D-Glucose
c.
α-D-Glucose + β-D-Fructose
d.
α-D-Fructose + β-D-Fructose
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Q38 mcq
The calculated spin only magnetic moment of Cr2+ ion is
a.
3.87 BM
b.
4.90 BM
c.
5.92 BM
d.
2.84 BM
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Q39 mcq
Which of the following is a natural polymer?
a.
cis-1, 4-polyisoprene
b.
poly (Butadiene-styrene)
c.
polybutadiene
d.
poly (Butadiene-acrylonitrile)
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Q40 mcq
Which of the following is a basic amino acid?
a.
Serine
b.
Alanine
c.
Tyrosine
d.
Lysine
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Q41 mcq
Which of the following is a cationic detergent?
a.
Sodium lauryl sulphate
b.
Sodium stearate
c.
Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide
d.
Sodium dodecylbenzene sulphonate
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Q42 mcq
Find out the solubility of Ni(OH)2 in 0.1 M NaOH. Given that the ionic product of Ni(OH)2 is 2 × 10^-15.
a.
2 × 10^-13 M
b.
2 × 10^-8 M
c.
1 × 10^-13 M
d.
1 × 10^8 M
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Q42 mcq
Find out the solubility of Ni(OH)2 in 0.1 M NaOH. Given that the ionic product of Ni(OH)2 is 2 × 10^–15
a.
2 × 10^–13 M
b.
2 × 10^–8 M
c.
1 × 10^–13 M
d.
1 × 10^8 M
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Q43 mcq
Identify a molecule which does not exist.
a.
He2
b.
Li2
c.
C2
d.
O2
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Q43 mcq
Identify a molecule which does not exist.
a.
He2
b.
Li2
c.
C2
d.
O2
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Q45 mcq
The number of protons, neutrons and electrons in 175/71 Lu, respectively, are
a.
71, 104 and 71
b.
104, 71 and 71
c.
71, 71 and 104
d.
175, 104 and 71
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Q45 mcq
The number of protons, neutrons and electrons in 175/71Lu, respectively, are
a.
71, 104 and 71
b.
104, 71 and 71
c.
71, 71 and 104
d.
175, 104 and 71
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Q125 mcq
Identify the basic amino acid from the following.
a.
Tyrosine
b.
Glutamic Acid
c.
Lysine
d.
Valine
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Q125 mcq
Identify the basic amino acid from the following.
a.
Tyrosine
b.
Glutamic Acid
c.
Lysine
d.
Valine
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Q136 mcq
Match the following: (a) Inhibitor of catalytic activity (i) Ricin (b) Possess peptide bonds (ii) Malonate (c) Cell wall material in fungi (iii) Chitin (d) Secondary metabolite (iv) Collagen
a.
(1) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
b.
(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
c.
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
d.
(4) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
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Q175 mcq
Identify the substances having glycosidic bond and peptide bond, respectively in their structure
a.
Chitin, cholesterol
b.
Glycerol, trypsin
c.
Cellulose, lecithin
d.
Inulin, insulin
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