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NEET 2020-E1

2020 · 58 questions · First 10 Solutions Free
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Q18 mcq
In gel electrophoresis, separated DNA fragments can be visualized with the help of
a.
Acetocarmine in bright blue light
b.
Ethidium bromide in UV radiation Correct Answer
c.
Acetocarmine in UV radiation
d.
Ethidium bromide in infrared radiation
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
DNA fragments stained with ethidium bromide fluoresce under UV light, allowing visualization.
Q21 mcq
The specific palindromic sequence which is recognized by EcoRI is
a.
5′-GAATTC-3′ 3′-CTTAAG-5′ Correct Answer
b.
5′-GGAACC-3′ 3′-CCTTGG-5′
c.
5′-CTTAAG-3′ 3′-GAATTC-5′
d.
5′-GGATCC-3′ 3′-CCTAGG-5′
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
EcoRI recognizes the palindromic sequence GAATTC and cuts between G and A.
Q22 mcq
Identify the wrong statement with regard to Restriction Enzymes.
a.
Each restriction enzyme functions by inspecting the length of a DNA sequence. Correct Answer
b.
They cut the strand of DNA at palindromic sites.
c.
They are useful in genetic engineering.
d.
Sticky ends can be joined by using DNA ligases.
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Restriction enzymes recognize specific nucleotide sequences, not the length of DNA.
Q91 mcq
Identify a molecule which does not exist.
a.
He2 Correct Answer
b.
Li2
c.
C2
d.
O2
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
He2 does not exist as a stable molecule because helium has a complete valence shell and does not form a stable bond.
Q92 mcq
Find out the solubility of Ni(OH)2 in 0.1 M NaOH. Given that the ionic product of Ni(OH)2 is 2 × 10^-15.
a.
2 × 10^-13 M Correct Answer
b.
2 × 10^-8 M
c.
1 × 10^-13 M
d.
1 × 10^8 M
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
For Ni(OH)2, Ksp = [Ni2+][OH-]^2. In 0.1 M NaOH, [OH-] ≈ 0.1 M, so solubility s = Ksp/(0.1)^2 = 2 × 10^-15 / 10^-2 = 2 × 10^-13 M.
Q93 mcq
Identify the correct statements from the following: (a) CO2(g) is used as refrigerant for ice-cream and frozen food. (b) The structure of C60 contains twelve six-membered rings and twenty five carbon rings. (c) ZSM-5, a type of zeolite, is used to convert alcohols into gasoline. (d) CO is a colorless and odourless gas.
a.
(a), (b) and (c) only
b.
(a) and (c) only
c.
(b) and (c) only
d.
(c) and (d) only Correct Answer
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
ZSM-5 is used to convert alcohols into gasoline, and CO is colorless and odourless. The C60 statement is incorrect because fullerene has 12 pentagons and 20 hexagons.
Q94 mcq
Hydrolysis of sucrose is given by the following reaction: Sucrose + H2O ⇌ Glucose + Fructose If the equilibrium constant (Kc) is 2 × 10^13 at 300 K, the value of ΔrG° at the same temperature will be:
a.
−8.314 J mol^-1 K^-1 × 300 K × ln(2 × 10^13) Correct Answer
b.
8.314 J mol^-1 K^-1 × 300 K × ln(2 × 10^13)
c.
8.314 J mol^-1 K^-1 × 300 K × ln(3 × 10^13)
d.
−8.314 J mol^-1 K^-1 × 300 K × ln(4 × 10^13)
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Using ΔrG° = −RT ln Kc, the correct expression is −8.314 × 300 × ln(2 × 10^13).
Q95 mcq
Identify compound X in the following sequence of reactions: CH3Cl / hν → X → HO2, 373 K → CHO
a.
Cl
b.
CHCl2
c.
CHCl2 Correct Answer
d.
CCl3
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Successive chlorination of methane derivative followed by hydrolysis leads to chloroform-related intermediate; X is CHCl2 as per the intended reaction sequence.
Q96 mcq
Identify the incorrect match. Name IUPAC official name (a) Unnilunium (i) Mendelevium (b) Unniltrium (ii) Lawrencium (c) Unnilhexium (iii) Seaborgium (d) Unununnium (iv) Darmstadtium
a.
(a), (i)
b.
(b), (ii)
c.
(c), (iii)
d.
(d), (iv) Correct Answer
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Unununnium corresponds to element 111, which is Roentgenium, not Darmstadtium.
Q98 mcq
Which of the following set of molecules will have zero dipole moment?
a.
Ammonia, beryllium difluoride, water, 1,4-dichlorobenzene
b.
Boron trifluoride, hydrogen fluoride, carbon dioxide, 1,3-dichlorobenzene
c.
Nitrogen trifluoride, beryllium difluoride, water, 1,3-dichlorobenzene
d.
Boron trifluoride, beryllium difluoride, carbon dioxide, 1,4-dichlorobenzene Correct Answer
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
BF3, BeF2, CO2, and 1,4-dichlorobenzene are symmetrical molecules and have zero dipole moment.
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Q99 mcq
On electrolysis of dilute sulphuric acid using platinum (Pt) electrodes, the product obtained at anode will be
a.
Hydrogen gas
b.
Oxygen gas
c.
H2S gas
d.
SO2 gas
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Q99 mcq
On electrolysis of dilute sulphuric acid using platinum (Pt) electrodes, the product obtained at anode will be
a.
Hydrogen gas
b.
Oxygen gas
c.
H2S gas
d.
SO2 gas
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Q100 mcq
Reaction between acetone and methylmagnesium chloride followed by hydrolysis will give:
a.
Isopropyl alcohol
b.
Sec. butyl alcohol
c.
Tert. butyl alcohol
d.
Isobutyl alcohol
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Q100 mcq
Reaction between acetone and methylmagnesium chloride followed by hydrolysis will give:
a.
Isopropyl alcohol
b.
Sec. butyl alcohol
c.
Tert. butyl alcohol
d.
Isobutyl alcohol
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Q101 mcq
Which of the following oxoacid of sulphur has –O–O– linkage?
a.
H2SO3, sulphurous acid
b.
H2SO4, sulphuric acid
c.
H2S2O8, peroxodisulphuric acid
d.
H2S2O7, pyrosulphuric acid
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Q101 mcq
Which of the following oxoacids of sulphur has an –O–O– linkage?
a.
H2SO3, sulphurous acid
b.
H2SO4, sulphuric acid
c.
H2S2O8, peroxodisulphuric acid
d.
H2S2O7, pyrosulphuric acid
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Q102 mcq
Which of the following amine will give the carbylamine test?
a.
Aniline (C6H5NH2)
b.
N-methylaniline (C6H5NHCH3)
c.
N,N-dimethylaniline (C6H5N(CH3)2)
d.
Ethylmethylamine (C2H5NHCH3)
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Q102 mcq
Which of the following amine will give the carbylamine test?
a.
CH3NH2
b.
NHCH3
c.
N(CH3)2
d.
NH(C2H5)
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Q103 mcq
The calculated spin only magnetic moment of Cr2+ ion is
a.
3.87 BM
b.
4.90 BM
c.
5.92 BM
d.
2.84 BM
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Q104 mcq
The correct option for free expansion of an ideal gas under adiabatic condition is
a.
q = 0, ΔT = 0 and w = 0
b.
q = 0, ΔT < 0 and w > 0
c.
q < 0, ΔT = 0 and w = 0
d.
q > 0, ΔT > 0 and w > 0
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Q105 mcq
The freezing point depression constant (Kf) of benzene is 5.12 K kg mol−1. The freezing point depression for the solution of molality 0.078 m containing a non-electrolyte solute in benzene is (rounded off upto two decimal places):
a.
0.20 K
b.
0.80 K
c.
0.40 K
d.
0.60 K
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Q106 mcq
The number of Faradays (F) required to produce 20 g of calcium from molten CaCl2 (Atomic mass of Ca = 40 g mol−1) is
a.
1
b.
2
c.
3
d.
4
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Q107 mcq
Reaction between benzaldehyde and acetophenone in presence of dilute NaOH is known as
a.
Aldol condensation
b.
Cannizzaro’s reaction
c.
Cross Cannizzaro’s reaction
d.
Cross Aldol condensation
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Q108 mcq
Paper chromatography is an example of
a.
Adsorption chromatography
b.
Partition chromatography
c.
Thin layer chromatography
d.
Column chromatography
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Q109 mcq
An increase in the concentration of the reactants of a reaction leads to change in
a.
activation energy
b.
heat of reaction
c.
threshold energy
d.
collision frequency
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Q110 mcq
A mixture of N2 and Ar gases in a cylinder contains 7 g of N2 and 8 g of Ar. If the total pressure of the mixture of the gases in the cylinder is 27 bar, the partial pressure of N2 is:
a.
9 bar
b.
12 bar
c.
15 bar
d.
18 bar
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Q111 mcq
Identify the correct statement from the following:
a.
Wrought iron is impure iron with 4% carbon.
b.
Blister copper has blistered appearance due to evolution of CO2.
c.
Vapour phase refining is carried out for Nickel by Van Arkel method.
d.
Pig iron can be moulded into a variety of shapes.
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Q112 mcq
A tertiary butyl carbocation is more stable than a secondary butyl carbocation because of
a.
−I effect of −CH3 groups
b.
+R effect of −CH3 groups
c.
−R effect of −CH3 groups
d.
Hyperconjugation
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Q113 mcq
Which of the following is a cationic detergent?
a.
Sodium lauryl sulphate
b.
Sodium stearate
c.
Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide
d.
Sodium dodecylbenzene sulphonate
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Q114 mcq
Elimination reaction of 2-bromopentane to form pent-2-ene is (a) β-elimination reaction (b) Follows Zaitsev rule (c) Dehydrohalogenation reaction (d) Dehydration reaction Which of the following is correct?
a.
(a), (b), (c)
b.
(a), (c), (d)
c.
(b), (c), (d)
d.
(a), (b), (d)
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Q115 mcq
The mixture which shows positive deviation from Raoult’s law is
a.
Ethanol + Acetone
b.
Benzene + Toluene
c.
Acetone + Chloroform
d.
Chloroethane + Bromoethane
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Q116 mcq
Which of the following is the correct order of increasing field strength of ligands to form coordination compounds?
a.
SCN− < F− < CO < CN−
b.
SCN− < F− < CN− < CO
c.
F− < SCN− < CO < CN−
d.
CN− < CO < SCN− < F−
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Q117 mcq
Which of the following is a basic amino acid?
a.
Serine
b.
Alanine
c.
Tyrosine
d.
Lysine
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Q117 mcq
Which of the following is a basic amino acid?
a.
Serine
b.
Alanine
c.
Tyrosine
d.
Lysine
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Q118 mcq
HCl was passed through a solution of CaCl2, MgCl2 and NaCl. Which compound(s) crystallise(s)?
a.
Both MgCl2 and CaCl2
b.
Only NaCl
c.
Only MgCl2
d.
NaCl, MgCl2 and CaCl2
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Q118 mcq
HCl was passed through a solution of CaCl2, MgCl2 and NaCl. Which compound(s) crystallise(s)?
a.
Both MgCl2 and CaCl2
b.
Only NaCl
c.
Only MgCl2
d.
NaCl, MgCl2 and CaCl2
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Q119 mcq
Which of the following is a natural polymer?
a.
cis-1,4-polyisoprene
b.
poly(butadiene-styrene)
c.
polybutadiene
d.
poly(butadiene-acrylonitrile)
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Q119 mcq
Which of the following is a natural polymer?
a.
cis-1,4-polyisoprene
b.
poly(butadiene-styrene)
c.
polybutadiene
d.
poly(butadiene-acrylonitrile)
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Q121 mcq
Sucrose on hydrolysis gives
a.
β-D-Glucose + α-D-Fructose
b.
α-D-Glucose + β-D-Glucose
c.
α-D-Glucose + β-D-Fructose
d.
α-D-Fructose + β-D-Fructose
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Q121 mcq
Sucrose on hydrolysis gives
a.
β-D-Glucose + α-D-Fructose
b.
α-D-Glucose + β-D-Glucose
c.
α-D-Glucose + β-D-Fructose
d.
α-D-Fructose + β-D-Fructose
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Q122 mcq
The following metal ion activates many enzymes, participates in the oxidation of glucose to produce ATP and, with Na, is responsible for the transmission of nerve signals.
a.
Iron
b.
Copper
c.
Calcium
d.
Potassium
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Q123 mcq
Which one of the following has the maximum number of atoms?
a.
1 g of Ag(s) [Atomic mass of Ag = 108]
b.
1 g of Mg(s) [Atomic mass of Mg = 24]
c.
1 g of O2(g) [Atomic mass of O = 16]
d.
1 g of Li(s) [Atomic mass of Li = 7]
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Q125 mcq
What is the change in oxidation number of carbon in the following reaction? CH4(g) + 4Cl2(g) → CCl4(l) + 4HCl(g)
a.
+4 to +4
b.
0 to +4
c.
−4 to +4
d.
0 to −4
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Q126 mcq
Identify the incorrect statement.
a.
Cr2+ (d4) is a stronger reducing agent than Fe2+ (d6) in water.
b.
The transition metals and their compounds are known for their catalytic activity due to their ability to adopt multiple oxidation states and to form complexes.
c.
Interstitial compounds are those that are formed when small atoms like H, C or N are trapped inside the crystal lattices of metals.
d.
The oxidation states of chromium in CrO4^2− and Cr2O7^2− are not the same.
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Q127 mcq
For the reaction, 2Cl(g) → Cl2(g), the correct option is:
a.
ΔrH > 0 and ΔrS > 0
b.
ΔrH > 0 and ΔrS < 0
c.
ΔrH < 0 and ΔrS > 0
d.
ΔrH < 0 and ΔrS < 0
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Q128 mcq
Measuring zeta potential is useful in determining which property of colloidal solution?
a.
Viscosity
b.
Solubility
c.
Stability of the colloidal particles
d.
Size of the colloidal particles
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Q129 mcq
Urea reacts with water to form A which will decompose to form B. B when passed through Cu2+ (aq), deep blue colour solution C is formed. What is the formula of C from the following?
a.
CuSO4
b.
[Cu(NH3)4]2+
c.
Cu(OH)2
d.
CuCO3·Cu(OH)2
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Q130 mcq
Match the following and identify the correct option. (a) CO(g) + H2(g) (b) Temporary hardness of water (c) B2H6 (d) H2O2 (i) Mg(HCO3)2 + Ca(HCO3)2 (ii) An electron deficient hydride (iii) Synthesis gas (iv) Non-planar structure
a.
(a) (b) (c) (d) = (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
b.
(a) (b) (c) (d) = (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
c.
(a) (b) (c) (d) = (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
d.
(a) (b) (c) (d) = (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
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Q131 mcq
Match the following: Oxide — Nature (a) CO (b) BaO (c) Al2O3 (d) Cl2O7 Which is the correct option?
a.
(a) Neutral, (b) Basic, (c) Amphoteric, (d) Acidic
b.
(a) Neutral, (b) Basic, (c) Amphoteric, (d) Acidic
c.
(a) Acidic, (b) Amphoteric, (c) Neutral, (d) Basic
d.
(a) Amphoteric, (b) Acidic, (c) Basic, (d) Neutral
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Q132 mcq
The rate constant for a first-order reaction is 4.606 × 10^-3 s^-1. The time required to reduce 2.0 g of the reactant to 0.2 g is:
a.
100 s
b.
200 s
c.
500 s
d.
1000 s
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Q132 mcq
The rate constant for a first-order reaction is 4.606 × 10−3 s−1. The time required to reduce 2.0 g of the reactant to 0.2 g is:
a.
100 s
b.
200 s
c.
500 s
d.
1000 s
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Q133 mcq
An alkene on ozonolysis gives methanal as one of the products. Its structure is
a.
CH2=CH−CH3
b.
CH3−CH2−CH3
c.
CH2=CH−CH2−CH3
d.
CH3−CH=CH2
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Q133 mcq
An alkene on ozonolysis gives methanal as one of the products. Its structure is
a.
CH2=CH–CH3
b.
CH3–CH2–CH3
c.
CH2=C(CH3)2
d.
CH3CH2CH3
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Q134 mcq
Which of the following alkanes cannot be made in good yield by Wurtz reaction?
a.
n-Hexane
b.
2,3-Dimethylbutane
c.
n-Heptane
d.
n-Butane
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Q134 mcq
Which of the following alkanes cannot be made in good yield by Wurtz reaction?
a.
n-Hexane
b.
2,3-Dimethylbutane
c.
n-Heptane
d.
n-Butane
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Q135 mcq
Anisole on cleavage with HI gives
a.
Phenol + CH3I
b.
Iodobenzene + CH3OH
c.
Phenol + C2H5I
d.
Iodobenzene + C2H5OH
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Q135 mcq
Anisole on cleavage with HI gives
a.
Phenol + CH3I
b.
Iodobenzene + CH3OH
c.
Phenol + C2H5I
d.
Iodobenzene + C2H5OH
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Q142 mcq
The energy equivalent of 0.5 g of a substance is:
a.
4.5 × 10^16 J
b.
4.5 × 10^13 J
c.
1.5 × 10^13 J
d.
0.5 × 10^13 J
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