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NEET 2025 CODE 45

2025 · 107 questions · First 10 Solutions Free
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Q91 mcq
The complex II of mitochondrial electron transport chain is also known as
a.
Cytochrome bc1
b.
Succinate dehydrogenase Correct Answer
c.
Cytochrome c oxidase
d.
NADH dehydrogenase
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Complex II of the ETC is succinate dehydrogenase, which links the TCA cycle to the electron transport chain.
Q92 mcq
Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) amplifies DNA following the equation.
a.
N2
b.
2^n Correct Answer
c.
2n + 1
d.
2N2
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
PCR amplification follows exponential growth represented by 2 to the power of n cycles.
Q93 mcq
What are the potential drawbacks in adoption of the IVF method? A. High fatality risk to mother B. Expensive instruments and reagents C. Husband/wife necessary for being donors D. Less adoption of orphans E. Not available in India F. Possibility that the early embryo does not survive Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a.
B, D, F only. Correct Answer
b.
A, C, D, F only
c.
A, B, C, D only
d.
A, B, C, E, F only
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
NCERT highlights that IVF is expensive, requires specialized skills, and involves social issues like the availability of embryos or adoption concerns.
Q94 mcq
What is the name of the blood vessel that carries deoxygenated blood from the body to the heart in a frog?
a.
Aorta
b.
Pulmonary artery
c.
Pulmonary vein
d.
Vena cava Correct Answer
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
In frog anatomy, the vena cava (superior and inferior) collects deoxygenated blood from the body and pours it into the sinus venosus.
Q95 mcq
Which one of the following statements refers to Reductionist Biology?
a.
Physico-chemical approach to study and understand living organisms. Correct Answer
b.
Physiological approach to study and understand, living organisms.
c.
Chemical approach to study and understand living organisms.
d.
Behavioural approach to study and understand living organisms.
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Reductionism in biology is the approach of studying life by breaking it down into molecular/physico-chemical components.
Q96 mcq
Given below are two statements: Statement I: In the RNA world, RNA is considered the first genetic material evolved to carry out essential life processes. RNA acts as a genetic material and also as a catalyst for some important biochemical reactions in living systems. Being reactive, RNA is unstable. Statement II: DNA evolved from RNA and is a more stable genetic material. Its double helical strands being complementary, resist changes by evolving repairing mechanism. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
a.
Both statement I and statement II are correct Correct Answer
b.
Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
c.
Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
d.
Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Both statements accurately reflect current evolutionary biological understanding found in NCERT textbooks regarding the RNA world hypothesis.
Q97 mcq
Epiphytes that are growing on a mango branch is an example of which of the following?
a.
Commensalism Correct Answer
b.
Mutualism
c.
Predation
d.
Amensalism
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Epiphytes (like orchids) benefit by getting support, while the mango tree is neither harmed nor benefited, fitting the definition of commensalism (+/0).
Q97 mcq
Epiphytes that are growing on a mango branch is an example of which of the following?
a.
Commensalism Correct Answer
b.
Mutualism
c.
Predation
d.
Amensalism
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Commensalism is an interaction where one species benefits (epiphyte gets space and light) and the other is neither harmed nor benefited (mango tree).
Q98 mcq
From the statements given below choose the correct option: A. The eukaryotic ribosomes are 80S and prokaryotic ribosomes are 70S. B. Each ribosome has two sub-units. C. The two sub-units of 80S ribosome are 60S and 40S while that of 70S are 50S and 30S. D. The two sub-units of 80S ribosome are 60S and 20S and that of 70S are 50S and 20S. E. The two sub-units of 80S are 60S and 30S and that of 70S are 50S and 30S
a.
A, B, C are true Correct Answer
b.
A, B, D are true
c.
A, B, E are true
d.
B, D, E are true
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Eukaryotic ribosomes (80S) consist of 60S and 40S subunits, while prokaryotic (70S) consist of 50S and 30S subunits. Thus A, B, and C are correct.
Q99 mcq
Which one of the following is an example of ex-situ conservation?
a.
National Park
b.
Wildlife Sanctuary
c.
Zoos and botanical gardens Correct Answer
d.
Protected areas.
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Ex-situ conservation involves protecting species outside their natural habitats, such as in zoos, botanical gardens, and seed banks.
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Q100 mcq
Given below are two statements: Statement I: The primary source of energy in an ecosystem is solar energy. Statement II: The rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis in an ecosystem is called net primary productivity (NPP). In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
a.
Both statement I and statement II are correct
b.
Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
c.
Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
d.
Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
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Q101 mcq
Match List-I with List-II. List-I: A. Emphysema, B. Angina Pectoris, C. Glomerulo-nephritis, D. Tetany List-II: I. Rapid spasms in muscle due to low Ca++ in body fluid, II. Damaged alveolar walls and decreased respiratory surface, III. Acute chest pain when not enough oxygen is reaching to heart muscle, IV. Inflammation of glomeruli of kidney
a.
A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
b.
A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
c.
A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
d.
A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
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Q102 mcq
Given below are two statement: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): Both wind and water pollinated flowers are not very colourful and do not produce nectar. Reason (R): The flowers produce enormous amount of pollen grains in wind and water pollinated flowers. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a.
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b.
Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
c.
A is true but R is false.
d.
A is false but R is true.
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Q103 mcq
Which of the following is an example of non—distilled alcoholic beverage produced by yeast?
a.
Whisky
b.
Brandy
c.
Beer
d.
Rum
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Q104 mcq
Given below are two statements: Statement I: In a floral formula ⊕ stands for zygomorphic nature of the flower, and G stands for inferior ovary. Statement II: In a floral formula ⊕ stands for actinomorphic nature of the flower and G stands for superior ovary. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
a.
Both statement I and statement II are correct
b.
Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
c.
Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
d.
Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
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Q105 mcq
Streptokinase produced by bacterium Streptococcus is used for
a.
Curd production
b.
Ethanol production
c.
Liver disease treatment
d.
Removing clots from blood vessels
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Q105 mcq
Streptokinase produced by bacterium Streptococcus is used for
a.
Curd production
b.
Ethanol production
c.
Liver disease treatment
d.
Removing clots from blood vessels
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Q106 mcq
Which chromosome in the human genome has the highest number of genes?
a.
Chromosome X
b.
Chromosome Y
c.
Chromosome 1
d.
Chromosome 10
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Q106 mcq
Which chromosome in the human genome has the highest number of genes?
a.
Chromosome X
b.
Chromosome Y
c.
Chromosome 1
d.
Chromosome 10
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Q107 mcq
Which of the following statement is correct about location of the male frog copulatory pad?
a.
First and Second digit of fore limb
b.
First digit of hind limb
c.
Second digit of fore limb
d.
First digit of the fore limb
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Q107 mcq
Which of the following statement is correct about location of the male frog copulatory pad?
a.
First and Second digit of fore limb
b.
First digit of hind limb
c.
Second digit of fore limb
d.
First digit of the fore limb
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Q108 mcq
Which one of the following phytohormones promotes nutrient mobilization which helps in the delay of leaf senescence in plants?
a.
Ethylene
b.
Abscisic acid
c.
Gibberellin
d.
Cytokinin
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Q108 mcq
Which one of the following phytohormones promotes nutrient mobilization which helps in the delay of leaf senescence in plants?
a.
Ethylene
b.
Abscisic acid
c.
Gibberellin
d.
Cytokinin
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Q109 mcq
While trying to find out the characteristic of a newly found animal, a researcher did the histology of adult animal and observed a cavity with presence of mesodermal tissue towards the body wall but no mesodermal tissue was observed towards the alimentary canal. What could be the possible coelome of that animal?
a.
Acoelomate
b.
Pseudocoelomate
c.
Schizocoelomate
d.
Spongocoelomate
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Q110 mcq
Match List-I with List-II.
a.
A. Head I. Enzymes; B. Middle piece II. Sperm motility; C. Acrosome III. Energy; D. Tail IV. Genetic material
b.
A. Head IV. Genetic material; B. Middle piece III. Energy; C. Acrosome I. Enzymes; D. Tail II. Sperm motility
c.
A. Head III. Energy; B. Middle piece IV. Genetic material; C. Acrosome II. Sperm motility; D. Tail I. Enzymes
d.
A. Head III. Energy; B. Middle piece II. Sperm motility; C. Acrosome I. Enzymes; D. Tail IV. Genetic material
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Q111 mcq
Given below are the stages in the life cycle of pteridophytes. Arrange the following stages in the correct sequence.
a.
B, A, D, E, C
b.
B, A, E, C, D
c.
D, E, C, A, B
d.
E, D, C, B, A
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Q112 mcq
Cardiac activities of the heart are regulated by: A. Nodal tissue B. A special neural centre in the medulla oblongata C. Adrenal medullary hormones D. Adrenal cortical hormones
a.
A, B and C Only.
b.
A, B, C and D
c.
A, C and D Only
d.
A, B and D Only
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Q113 mcq
Which of following organisms cannot fix nitrogen? A. Azotobacter B. Oscillatoria C. Anabaena D. Volvox E. Nostoc
a.
A only
b.
D only
c.
B only
d.
E only
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Q114 mcq
Given below are two statements: Statement I: Transfer RNAs and ribosomal RNA do not interact with mRNA. Statement II: RNA interference (RNAi) takes place in all eukaryotic organisms as a method of cellular defence.
a.
Both statement I and statement II are correct
b.
Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
c.
Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
d.
Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
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Q115 mcq
In the above represented plasmid an alien piece of DNA is inserted at EcoRI site. Which of the following strategies will be chosen to select the recombinant colonies?
a.
Using ampicillin & tetracyclin containing medium plate.
b.
Blue color colonies will be selected.
c.
White color colonies will be selected.
d.
Blue color colonies grown on ampicillin plates can be selected.
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Q116 mcq
Which of the following genetically engineered organisms was used by Eli Lilly to prepare human insulin?
a.
Bacterium
b.
Yeast
c.
Virus
d.
Phage
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Q116 mcq
Which of the following genetically engineered organisms was used by Eli Lilly to prepare human insulin?
a.
Bacterium
b.
Yeast
c.
Virus
d.
Phage
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Q117 mcq
Name the class of enzyme that usually catalyze the following reaction: S – G + S# → S + S# – G. Where, G → a group other than hydrogen, S → a substrate, S# → another substrate.
a.
Hydrolase
b.
Lyase
c.
Transferase
d.
Ligase
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Q118 mcq
Find the statement that is NOT correct with regard to the structure of monocot stem.
a.
Hypodermis is parenchymatous.
b.
Vascular bundles are scattered.
c.
Vascular bundles are conjoint and closed.
d.
Phloem parenchyma is absent.
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Q118 mcq
Find the statement that is NOT correct with regard to the structure of monocot stem.
a.
Hypodermis is parenchymatous.
b.
Vascular bundles are scattered.
c.
Vascular bundles are conjoint and closed.
d.
Phloem parenchyma is absent.
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Q119 mcq
The correct sequence of events in the life cycle of bryophytes is A. Fusion of antherozoid with egg. B. Attachment of gametophyte to substratum. C. Reduction division to produce haploid spores. D. Formation of sporophyte. E. Release of antherozoids into water.
a.
B, E, A, D, C
b.
A, B, C, D, E
c.
B, A, D, E, C
d.
C, D, A, B, E
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Q119 mcq
The correct sequence of events in the life cycle of bryophytes is: A. Fusion of antherozoid with egg. B. Attachment of gametophyte to substratum. C. Reduction division to produce haploid spores. D. Formation of sporophyte. E. Release of antherozoids into water.
a.
D, E, A, C, B
b.
B, E, A, C, D
c.
B, E, A, D, C
d.
D, E, A, B, C
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Q120 mcq
Which are correct: A. Computed tomography and magnetic resonance imaging detect cancers of internal organs. B. Chemotherapeutics drugs are used to kill non-cancerous cells. C. α-interferon activate the cancer patients’ immune system and helps in destroying the tumour. D. Chemotherapeutic drugs are biological response modifiers. E. In the case of leukaemia blood cells counts are decreased.
a.
B and D only
b.
D and E only
c.
C and D only
d.
A and C only
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Q121 mcq
Match List-I with List-II. List-I: A. Centromere, B. Cilium, C. Cristae, D. Cell membrane. List-II: I. Mitochondrion, II. Cell division, III. Cell movement, IV. Phospholipid Bilayer
a.
A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
b.
A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
c.
A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
d.
A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
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Q122 mcq
Match List-I with List-II. List-I: A. Chlorophyll a, B. Chlorophyll b, C. Xanthophylls, D. Carotenoids. List-II: I. Yellow-green, II. Yellow, III. Blue-green, IV. Yellow to Yellow-orange
a.
A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
b.
A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
c.
A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
d.
A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
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Q123 mcq
Find the correct statements: A. In human pregnancy, the major organ systems are formed at the end of 12 weeks. B. In human pregnancy the major organ systems are formed at the end of 8 weeks. C. In human pregnancy heart is formed after one month of gestation. D. In human pregnancy, limbs and digits develop by the end of second month. E. In human pregnancy the appearance of hair usually observed in the fifth month.
a.
A and E Only
b.
B and C Only
c.
B, C, D and E Only
d.
A, C, D and E Only
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Q124 mcq
In the seeds of cereals, the outer covering of endosperm separates the embryo by a protein-rich layer called:
a.
Coleoptile
b.
Coleorhiza
c.
Integument
d.
Aleurone layer
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Q127 mcq
Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): A typical unfertilized, angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is 8 nucleate and 7-celled. Reason (R): The egg apparatus has 2 polar nuclei. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a.
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b.
Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
c.
A is true but R is false.
d.
A is false but R is true.
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Q128 mcq
A specialized membranous structure in a prokaryotic cell which helps in cell wall formation, DNA replication and respiration is:
a.
Mesosome
b.
Chromatophores
c.
Cristae
d.
Endoplasmic Reticulum
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Q128 mcq
A specialized membranous structure in a prokaryotic cell which helps in cell wall formation, DNA replication and respiration is:
a.
Mesosome
b.
Chromatophores
c.
Cristae
d.
Endoplasmic Reticulum
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Q129 mcq
Which of the following are the post-transcriptional events in an eukaryotic cell? A. Transport of pre-mRNA to cytoplasm prior to splicing. B. Removal of introns and joining of exons. C. Addition of methyl group at 5’ end of hnRNA. D. Addition of adenine residues at 3’ end of hnRNA. E. Base pairing of two complementary RNAs.
a.
A, B, C only
b.
B, C, D only
c.
B, C, E only
d.
C, D, E only
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Q130 mcq
What is the pattern of inheritance for polygenic trait?
a.
Mendelian inheritance pattern
b.
Non-mendelian inheritance pattern
c.
Autosomal dominant pattern
d.
X-linked recessive inheritance pattern
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Q131 mcq
Which one of the following enzymes contains ‘Haem’ as the prosthetic group?
a.
RuBisCo
b.
Carbonic anhydrase
c.
Succinate dehydrogenase
d.
Catalase
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Q132 mcq
Each of the following characteristics represent a Kingdom proposed by Whittaker. Arrange the following in increasing order of complexity of body organization. A. Multicellular heterotrophs with cell wall made of chitin. B. Heterotrophs with tissue/organ/organ system level of body organization. C. Prokaryotes with cell wall made of polysaccharides and amino acids. D. Eukaryotic autotrophs with tissue/organ level of body organization. E. Eukaryotes with cellular body organization.
a.
A, C, E, B, D
b.
C, E, A, D, B
c.
A, C, E, D, B
d.
C, E, A, B, D
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Q133 mcq
Who is known as the father of Ecology in India?
a.
S. R. Kashyap
b.
Ramdeo Misra
c.
Ram Udar
d.
Birbal Sahni
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Q134 mcq
Match List-I with List-II. List-I List-II A. Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase I. Streptococcus Pneumoniae B. Euchromatin II. Densely packed and dark-stained C. Frederick Griffith III. Loosely packed and light-stained D. Heterochromatin IV. DNA as genetic material confirmation
a.
A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
b.
A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
c.
A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
d.
A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
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Q135 mcq
Neoplastic characteristics of cells refers to: A. A mass of proliferating cell B. Rapid growth of cells C. Invasion and damage to the surrounding tissue D. Those confined to original location
a.
A, B only
b.
A, B, C only
c.
A, B, D only
d.
B, C, D only
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Q136 mcq
Given below are two statements: Statement I: The DNA fragments extracted from gel electrophoresis can be used in construction of recombinant DNA. Statement II: Smaller size DNA fragments are observed near anode while larger fragments are found near the wells in an agarose gel.
a.
Both statement I and statement II are correct
b.
Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
c.
Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
d.
Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
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Q138 mcq
Consider the following: A. The reductive division for the human female gametogenesis starts earlier than that of the male gametogenesis. B. The gap between the first meiotic division and the second meiotic division is much shorter for males compared to females. C. The first polar body is associated with the formation of the primary oocyte. D. Luteinizing Hormone (LH) surge leads to disintegration of the endometrium and onset of menstrual bleeding.
a.
A and B are true
b.
A and C are true
c.
B and D are true
d.
B and C are true
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Q138 mcq
Consider the following: A. The reductive division for the human female gametogenesis starts earlier than that of the male gametogenesis. B. The gap between the first meiotic division and the second meiotic division is much shorter for males compared to females. C. The first polar body is associated with the formation of the primary oocyte. D. Luteinizing Hormone (LH) surge leads to disintegration of the endometrium and onset of menstrual bleeding. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a.
A and B are true
b.
A and C are true
c.
B and D are true
d.
B and C are true
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Q139 mcq
All living members of the class Cyclostomata are:
a.
Free living
b.
Endoparasite
c.
Symbiotic
d.
Ectoparasite
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Q139 mcq
All living members of the class Cyclostomata are:
a.
Free living
b.
Endoparasite
c.
Symbiotic
d.
Ectoparasite
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Q140 mcq
Given below are two statements: Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Assertion (A): The primary function of the Golgi apparatus is to package the materials made by the endoplasmic reticulum and deliver it to intracellular targets and outside the cell. Reason (R): Vesicles containing materials made by the endoplasmic reticulum fuse with the cis face of the Golgi apparatus, and they are modified and released from the trans face of the Golgi apparatus.
a.
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b.
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c.
A is true but R is false
d.
A is false but R is true
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Q141 mcq
Match List I with List II. List I | List II A. Scutellum | I. Persistent nucellus B. Non-albuminous seed | II. Cotyledon of Monocot seed C. Epiblast | III. Groundnut D. Perisperm | IV. Rudimentary cotyledon
a.
A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
b.
A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
c.
A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
d.
A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
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Q142 mcq
Given below are two statements: Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Assertion (A): All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrate. Reason (R): The members of subphylum vertebrata possess notochord, during the embryonic period, the notochord is replaced by a cartilaginous or bony vertebral column in adults.
a.
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b.
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c.
A is true but R is false
d.
A is false but R is true
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Q143 mcq
Identify the statement that is NOT correct.
a.
Each antibody has two light and two heavy chains.
b.
The heavy and light chains are held together by disulfide bonds.
c.
Antigen binding site is located at C-terminal region of antibody molecules.
d.
Constant region of heavy and light chains are located at C-terminus of antibody molecules.
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Q144 mcq
Silencing of specific mRNA is possible via RNAi because of -
a.
Complementary dsRNA
b.
Inhibitory ssRNA
c.
Complementary tRNA
d.
Non-complementary ssRNA
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Q145 mcq
Genes R and Y follow independent assortment. If RRYY produce round yellow seeds and rryy produce wrinkled green seeds, what will be the phenotypic ratio of the F2 generation?
a.
Phenotypic ratio - 1 : 2 : 1
b.
Phenotypic ratio - 3 : 1
c.
Phenotypic ratio - 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
d.
Phenotypic ratio - 9 : 7
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Q146 mcq
Histones are enriched with -
a.
Lysine & Arginine
b.
Leucine & Lysine
c.
Phenylalanine & Leucine
d.
Phenylalanine & Arginine
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Q146 mcq
Histones are enriched with -
a.
Lysine & Arginine
b.
Leucine & Lysine
c.
Phenylalanine & Leucine
d.
Phenylalanine & Arginine
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Q147 mcq
The first menstruation is called:
a.
Menopause
b.
Menarche
c.
Diapause
d.
Ovulation
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Q147 mcq
The first menstruation is called:
a.
Menopause
b.
Menarche
c.
Diapause
d.
Ovulation
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Q148 mcq
Match List - I with List - II. List - I | List - II A. Heart | I. Erythropoietin B. Kidney | II. Aldosterone C. Gastro-intestinal tracts | III. Atrial natriuretic factor D. Adrenal Cortex | IV. Secretin
a.
A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
b.
A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
c.
A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
d.
A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
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Q148 mcq
Match List - I with List - II. List - I List - II A. Heart I. Erythropoietin B. Kidney II. Aldosterone C. Gastro-intestinal III. Atrial natriuretic factor tracts IV. Secretin Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a.
A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
b.
A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
c.
A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
d.
A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
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Q149 mcq
The protein portion of an enzyme is called:
a.
Cofactor
b.
Coenzyme
c.
Apoenzyme
d.
Prosthetic group
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Q150 mcq
Which of the following is the unit of productivity of an Ecosystem?
a.
gm–2
b.
KCal m–2
c.
KCal m–3
d.
(KCal m–2)yr–1
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Q150 mcq
Which of the following is the unit of productivity of an Ecosystem?
a.
gm^-2
b.
KCal m^-2
c.
KCal m^-3
d.
(KCal m^-2)yr^-1
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Q151 mcq
Sweet potato and potato represent a certain type of evolution. Select the correct combination of terms to explain the evolution.
a.
Analogy, convergent
b.
Homology, divergent
c.
Homology, convergent
d.
Analogy, divergent
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Q153 mcq
Assertion (A): Cells of the tapetum possess dense cytoplasm and generally have more than one nucleus. Reason (R): Presence of more than one nucleus in the tapetum increases the efficiency of nourishing the developing microspore mother cells. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer:
a.
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b.
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c.
A is true but R is false
d.
A is false but R is true
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Q154 mcq
How many meiotic and mitotic divisions need to occur for the development of a mature female gametophyte from the megaspore mother cell in an angiosperm plant?
a.
2 Meiosis and 3 Mitosis
b.
1 Meiosis and 2 Mitosis
c.
1 Meiosis and 3 Mitosis
d.
No Meiosis and 2 Mitosis
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Q155 mcq
Which of the following is an example of a zygomorphic flower?
a.
Petunia
b.
Datura
c.
Pea
d.
Chilli
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Q156 mcq
After maturation, in primary lymphoid organs, the lymphocytes migrate for interaction with antigens to secondary lymphoid organ(s)/tissue(s) like: A. thymus B. bone marrow C. spleen D. lymph nodes E. Peyer's patches. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a.
B, C, D only
b.
A, B, C only
c.
E, A, B only
d.
C, D, E only
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Q157 mcq
Given below are two statements: Statement I: Fig fruit is a non-vegetarian fruit as it has enclosed fig wasps in it. Statement II: Fig wasp and fig tree exhibit mutual relationship as fig wasp completes its life cycle in fig fruit and fig fruit gets pollinated by fig wasp. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer:
a.
Both statement I and statement II are correct
b.
Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
c.
Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
d.
Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
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Q158 mcq
What is the main function of the spindle fibers during mitosis?
a.
To separate the chromosomes
b.
To synthesize new DNA
c.
To repair damaged DNA
d.
To regulate cell growth
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Q159 mcq
Which one of the following is the characteristic feature of gymnosperms?
a.
Seeds are enclosed in fruits.
b.
Seeds are naked.
c.
Seeds are absent.
d.
Gymnosperms have flowers for reproduction.
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Q159 mcq
Which one of the following is the characteristic feature of gymnosperms?
a.
Seeds are enclosed in fruits.
b.
Seeds are naked.
c.
Seeds are absent.
d.
Gymnosperms have flowers for reproduction.
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Q160 mcq
Consider the following statements regarding function of adrenal medullary hormones: A. It causes pupilary constriction B. It is a hyperglycemic hormone C. It causes piloerection D. It increases/strength of heart contraction. Choose the correct answer:
a.
C and D Only
b.
B, C and D Only
c.
A, C and D Only
d.
D Only
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Q160 mcq
Consider the following statements regarding function of adrenal medullary hormones: A. It causes pupilary constriction B. It is a hyperglycemic hormone C. It causes piloerection D. It increases strength of heart contraction. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a.
C and D Only
b.
B, C and D Only
c.
A, C and D Only
d.
D Only
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Q161 mcq
Why can’t insulin be given orally to diabetic patients?
a.
Human body will elicit strong immune response
b.
It will be digested in Gastro-Intestinal (GI) tract
c.
Because of structural variation
d.
Its bioavailability will be increased
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Q161 mcq
Why can’t insulin be given orally to diabetic patients?
a.
Human body will elicit strong immune response
b.
It will be digested in Gastro-Intestinal (GI) tract
c.
Because of structural variation
d.
Its bioavailability will be increased
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Q162 mcq
Match List-I with List-II. List-I: A. Pteridophyte, B. Bryophyte, C. Angiosperm, D. Gymnosperm. List-II: I. Salvia, II. Ginkgo, III. Polytrichum, IV. Salvinia. Choose the option with all correct matches.
a.
A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
b.
A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
c.
A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
d.
A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
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Q163 mcq
Who proposed that the genetic code for amino acids should be made up of three nucleotides?
a.
George Gamow
b.
Francis Crick
c.
Jacque Monod
d.
Franklin Stahl
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Q164 mcq
Match List-I with List-II. List-I: A. The Evil Quartet, B. Ex situ conservation, C. Lantana camara, D. Dodo. List-II: I. Cryopreservation, II. Alien species invasion, III. Causes of biodiversity losses, IV. Extinction. Choose the option with all correct matches.
a.
A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
b.
A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
c.
A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
d.
A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
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Q165 mcq
Which of the following hormones released from the pituitary is actually synthesized in the hypothalamus?
a.
Luteinizing hormone (LH)
b.
Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH)
c.
Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
d.
Adenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH)
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Q166 mcq
Role of the water vascular system in Echinoderms is: A. Respiration and Locomotion B. Excretion and Locomotion C. Capture and transport of food D. Digestion and Respiration E. Digestion and Excretion. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a.
A and B Only
b.
A and C Only
c.
B and C Only
d.
B, D and E Only
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Q167 mcq
Which of the following type of immunity is present at the time of birth and is a non-specific type of defence in the human body?
a.
Acquired Immunity
b.
Innate Immunity
c.
Cell-mediated Immunity
d.
Humoral Immunity
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Q168 mcq
In bryophytes, the gemmae help in which one of the following?
a.
Sexual reproduction
b.
Asexual reproduction
c.
Nutrient absorption
d.
Gaseous exchange
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Q169 mcq
In frog, the Renal portal system is a special venous connection that acts to link :
a.
Liver and intestine
b.
Liver and kidney
c.
Kidney and intestine
d.
Kidney and lower part of body
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Q170 mcq
Given below are two statements: Statement I: In ecosystem, there is unidirectional flow of energy of sun from producers to consumers. Statement II: Ecosystems are exempted from 2nd law of thermodynamics. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
a.
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
b.
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
c.
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
d.
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
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Q171 mcq
Which of the following statements about RuBisCO is true?
a.
It is active only in the dark.
b.
It has higher affinity for oxygen than carbon dioxide.
c.
It is an enzyme involved in the photolysis of water.
d.
It catalyzes the carboxylation of RuBP.
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Q172 mcq
Which of the following enzyme(s) are NOT essential for gene cloning? A. Restriction enzymes B. DNA ligase C. DNA mutase D. DNA recombinase E. DNA polymerase. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a.
C and D only
b.
A and B only
c.
D and E only
d.
B and C only
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Q172 mcq
Which of the following enzyme(s) are NOT essential for gene cloning? A. Restriction enzymes B. DNA ligase C. DNA mutase D. DNA recombinase E. DNA polymerase
a.
(1) C and D only
b.
(2) A and B only
c.
(3) D and E only
d.
(4) B and C only
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Q173 mcq
Read the following statements on plant growth and development. A. Parthenocarpy can be induced by auxins. B. Plant growth regulators can be involved in promotion as well as inhibition of growth. C. Dedifferentiation is a pre-requisite for re-differentiation. D. Abscisic acid is a plant growth promoter. E. Apical dominance promotes the growth of lateral buds. Choose the option with all correct statements.
a.
A, B, C only
b.
A, C, E only
c.
A, D, E only
d.
B, D, E only
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Q173 mcq
Read the following statements on plant growth and development: A. Parthenocarpy can be induced by auxins. B. Plant growth regulators can be involved in promotion as well as inhibition of growth. C. Dedifferentiation is a pre-requisite for re-differentiation. D. Abscisic acid is a plant growth promoter. E. Apical dominance promotes the growth of lateral buds.
a.
(1) A, B, C only
b.
(2) A, C, E only
c.
(3) A, D, E only
d.
(4) B, D, E only
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Q174 mcq
Which factor is important for termination of transcription?
a.
α (alpha)
b.
σ (sigma)
c.
ρ (rho)
d.
γ (gamma)
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Q174 mcq
Which factor is important for termination of transcription?
a.
(1) α (alpha)
b.
(2) σ (sigma)
c.
(3) ρ (rho)
d.
(4) γ (gamma)
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Q175 mcq
Frogs respire in water by skin and buccal cavity and on land by skin, buccal cavity and lungs. Choose the correct answer from the following:
a.
(1) The statement is true for water but false for land
b.
(2) The statement is true for both the environment
c.
(3) The statement is false for water but true for land
d.
(4) The statement is false for both the environment
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Q176 mcq
Twins are born to a family that lives next door to you. The twins are a boy and a girl. Which of the following must be true?
a.
(1) They are monozygotic twins.
b.
(2) They are fraternal twins.
c.
(3) They were conceived through in vitro fertilization.
d.
(4) They have 75% identical genetic content.
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Q177 mcq
Which of the following microbes is NOT involved in the preparation of household products? A. Aspergillus niger B. Lactobacillus C. Trichoderma polysporum D. Saccharomyces cerevisiae E. Propionibacterium sharmanii
a.
(1) A and B only
b.
(2) A and C only
c.
(3) C and D only
d.
(4) C and E only
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Q178 mcq
Match List-I with List-II. List-I (Hormone) | List-II (Source) A. Progesterone | I. Pars intermedia B. Relaxin | II. Ovary C. Melanocyte stimulating hormone | III. Adrenal Medulla D. Catecholamines | IV. Corpus luteum
a.
(1) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
b.
(2) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
c.
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
d.
(4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
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Q179 mcq
The blue and white selectable markers have been developed which differentiate recombinant colonies from non-recombinant colonies on the basis of their ability to produce colour in the presence of a chromogenic substrate. Given below are two statements about this method: Statement I: The blue coloured colonies have DNA insert in the plasmid and they are identified as recombinant colonies. Statement II: The colonies without blue colour have DNA insert in the plasmid and are identified as recombinant colonies.
a.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
b.
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
c.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
d.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
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Q180 mcq
Which one of the following equations represents the Verhulst-Pearl Logistic Growth of population?
a.
(1) dN/dt = rN((K-N)/K)
b.
(2) dN/dt = rN((K-N)/K)
c.
(3) dN/dt = rN((N-K)/N)
d.
(4) dN/dt = r(K-N)/K
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