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NEET 2024 CODE T3

2024 · 109 questions · First 10 Solutions Free
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Q101 mcq
Identify the set of correct statements: A. The flowers of Vallisneria are colourful and produce nectar B. The flowers of waterlily are not pollinated by water. C. In most of water-pollinated species, the pollen grains are protected from wetting. D. Pollen grains of some hydrophytes are long and ribbon like. E. In some hydrophytes, the pollen grains are carried passively inside water. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a.
A, C, D and E only
b.
B, C, D and E only
c.
C, D and E only Correct Answer
d.
A, B, C and D only
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Vallisneria flowers are not colourful and do not produce nectar, so A is false. Waterlily is pollinated by insects, so B is true. In water pollination, pollen is protected from wetting, some hydrophytes have ribbon-like pollen, and in some species pollen is carried passively in water. Thus C, D and E are correct.
Q103 mcq
Inhibition of Succinic dehydrogenase enzyme by malonate is a classical example of:
a.
Competitive inhibition Correct Answer
b.
Enzyme activation
c.
Cofactor inhibition
d.
Feedback inhibition
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Malonate is a structural analogue of succinate and competes with it for the active site of succinate dehydrogenase, so it shows competitive inhibition.
Q105 mcq
Bulliform cells are responsible for
a.
Increased photosynthesis in monocots.
b.
Providing large spaces for storage of sugars.
c.
Inward curling of leaves in monocots. Correct Answer
d.
Protecting the plant from salt stress.
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Bulliform cells are large, thin-walled cells on the upper epidermis of monocot leaves. They help in leaf rolling/curling inward during water stress, reducing transpiration.
Q106 mcq
Which of the following are required for the dark reaction of photosynthesis? A. Light B. Chlorophyll C. CO2 D. ATP E. NADPH Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a.
C, D and E only Correct Answer
b.
D and E only
c.
A, B and C only
d.
B, C and D only
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
The dark reaction (Calvin cycle) requires CO2, ATP, and NADPH. Light and chlorophyll are required for the light reaction, not directly for the dark reaction.
Q107 mcq
Formation of interfascicular cambium from fully developed parenchyma cells is an example for
a.
Dedifferentiation Correct Answer
b.
Maturation
c.
Differentiation
d.
Redifferentiation
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Dedifferentiation is the process by which mature, differentiated cells regain the capacity to divide and form meristematic tissue, as in interfascicular cambium formation.
Q107 mcq
Formation of interfascicular cambium from fully developed parenchyma cells is an example of:
a.
Dedifferentiation Correct Answer
b.
Maturation
c.
Differentiation
d.
Redifferentiation
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Fully developed parenchyma cells regain the capacity to divide and become meristematic again, which is dedifferentiation.
Q109 mcq
Tropical regions show greatest level of species richness because A. Tropical latitudes have remained relatively undisturbed for millions of years, hence more time was available for species diversification. B. Tropical environments are more seasonal. C. More solar energy is available in tropics. D. Constant environments promote niche specialization. E. Tropical environments are constant and predictable. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a.
A, B and E only
b.
A, B and D only
c.
A, C, D and E only Correct Answer
d.
A and B only
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Tropical biodiversity is high because tropical regions are old and relatively undisturbed, receive more solar energy, and have stable, predictable climates that promote niche specialization. Statement B is false because tropical environments are not more seasonal.
Q109 mcq
Tropical regions show the greatest level of species richness because:
a.
Tropical latitudes have remained relatively undisturbed for millions of years, hence more time was available for species diversification.
b.
Tropical environments are more seasonal.
c.
More solar energy is available in tropics. Correct Answer
d.
Constant environments promote niche specialization.
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
NCERT states that tropical regions have high species richness due to long evolutionary time, more solar energy, and stable climates that promote specialization. Hence A, C, D and E are correct in the source set.
Q110 mcq
Which one of the following is not a criterion for classification of fungi?
a.
Mode of spore formation
b.
Fruiting body
c.
Morphology of mycelium
d.
Mode of nutrition Correct Answer
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Fungal classification is based on morphology of mycelium, mode of spore formation, and fruiting bodies, not mode of nutrition.
Q111 mcq
How many molecules of ATP and NADPH are required for every molecule of CO2 fixed in the Calvin cycle?
a.
3 molecules of ATP and 3 molecules of NADPH
b.
3 molecules of ATP and 2 molecules of NADPH Correct Answer
c.
2 molecules of ATP and 3 molecules of NADPH
d.
2 molecules of ATP and 2 molecules of NADPH
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
For fixation of one CO2 in the Calvin cycle, 3 ATP and 2 NADPH are required.
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Q112 mcq
These are regarded as major causes of biodiversity loss: A. Overexploitation B. Co-extinction C. Mutation D. Habitat loss and fragmentation E. Migration. Choose the correct option:
a.
A, B and E only
b.
A, B and D only
c.
A, C and D only
d.
A, B, C and D only
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Q113 mcq
The capacity to generate a whole plant from any cell of the plant is called:
a.
Differentiation
b.
Somatic hybridization
c.
Totipotency
d.
Micropropagation
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Q114 mcq
The equation of Verhulst-Pearl logistic growth is dN/dt = rN[(K - N)/K]. From this equation, K indicates:
a.
Carrying capacity
b.
Population density
c.
Intrinsic rate of natural increase
d.
Biotic potential
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Q115 mcq
Spindle fibers attach to kinetochores of chromosomes during:
a.
Anaphase
b.
Telophase
c.
Prophase
d.
Metaphase
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Q116 mcq
Identify the type of flowers based on the position of calyx, corolla and androecium with respect to the ovary from the given figures (a) and (b).
a.
(a) Perigynous; (b) Epigynous
b.
(a) Perigynous; (b) Perigynous
c.
(a) Epigynous; (b) Hypogynous
d.
(a) Hypogynous; (b) Epigynous
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Q117 mcq
Match List I with List II. List I: A. Rhizopus, B. Ustilago, C. Puccinia, D. Agaricus List II: I. Mushroom, II. Smut fungus, III. Bread mould, IV. Rust fungus Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a.
A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
b.
A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
c.
A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
d.
A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
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Q118 mcq
In a plant, black seed colour (BB/Bb) is dominant over white seed colour (bb). In order to find out the genotype of the black seed plant, with which of the following genotype will you cross it?
a.
Bb
b.
BB/Bb
c.
BB
d.
bb
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Q119 mcq
A pink flowered Snapdragon plant was crossed with a red flowered Snapdragon plant. What type of phenotype/s is/are expected in the progeny?
a.
Only pink flowered plants
b.
Red, pink as well as white flowered plants
c.
Only red flowered plants
d.
Red flowered as well as pink flowered plants
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Q120 mcq
Match List I with List II. List I: A. Two or more alternative forms of a gene, B. Cross of F1 progeny with homozygous recessive parent, C. Cross of F1 progeny with any of the parents, D. Number of chromosome sets in plant List II: I. Back cross, II. Ploidy, III. Allele, IV. Test cross Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a.
A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
b.
A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
c.
A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
d.
A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
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Q122 mcq
Match List I with List II. List I: A. Clostridium butylicum, B. Saccharomyces cerevisiae, C. Trichoderma polysporum, D. Streptococcus sp. List II: I. Ethanol, II. Streptokinase, III. Butyric acid, IV. Cyclosporin-A Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a.
A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
b.
A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
c.
A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
d.
A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
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Q122 mcq
Match List I with List II. List I: A. Clostridium butylicum B. Saccharomyces cerevisiae C. Trichoderma polysporum D. Streptococcus sp. List II: I. Ethanol II. Streptokinase III. Butyric acid IV. Cyclosporin-A Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a.
A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
b.
A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
c.
A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
d.
A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
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Q124 mcq
Which of the following is an example of actinomorphic flower?
a.
Pisum
b.
Sesbania
c.
Datura
d.
Cassia
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Q125 mcq
A transcription unit in DNA is defined primarily by the three regions in DNA and these are with respect to upstream and downstream end;
a.
Inducer, Repressor, Structural gene
b.
Promoter, Structural gene, Terminator
c.
Repressor, Operator gene, Structural gene
d.
Structural gene, Transposons, Operator gene
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Q126 mcq
What is the fate of a piece of DNA carrying only the gene of interest which is transferred into an alien organism? A. The piece of DNA would be able to multiply itself independently in the progeny cells of the organism. B. It may get integrated into the genome of the recipient. C. It may multiply and be inherited along with the host DNA. D. The alien piece of DNA is not an integrated part of chromosome. E. It shows ability to replicate. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a.
B and C only
b.
A and E only
c.
A and B only
d.
D and E only
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Q127 mcq
Auxin is used by gardeners to prepare weed-free lawns. But no damage is caused to grass as auxin:
a.
does not affect mature monocotyledonous plants.
b.
can help in cell division in grasses, to produce growth.
c.
promotes apical dominance.
d.
promotes abscission of mature leaves only.
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Q128 mcq
The cofactor of the enzyme carboxypeptidase is:
a.
Flavin
b.
Haem
c.
Zinc
d.
Niacin
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Q129 mcq
The lactose present in the growth medium of bacteria is transported to the cell by the action of
a.
Permease
b.
Polymerase
c.
Beta-galactosidase
d.
Acetylase
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Q130 mcq
Which one of the following can be explained on the basis of Mendel's Law of Dominance? A. Out of one pair of factors one is dominant and the other is recessive. B. Alleles do not show any expression and both the characters appear as such in F2 generation. C. Factors occur in pair in normal diploid plants. D. The discrete unit controlling a particular character is called factor. E. The expression of only one of the parental characters is found in a monohybrid cross. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a.
B, C and D only
b.
A, B, C, D and E
c.
A, B and C only
d.
A, C, D and E only
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Q131 mcq
Given below are two statements: Statement I: Bt toxins are insect group specific and coded by a gene cry IAc. Statement II: Bt toxin exists as inactive protoxin in B. thuringiensis. However, after ingestion by the insect the inactive protoxin gets converted into active form due to acidic pH of the insect gut. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a.
Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
b.
Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
c.
Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
d.
Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
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Q132 mcq
Given below are two statements: Statement I: Parenchyma is living but collenchyma is dead tissue. Statement II: Gymnosperms lack xylem vessels but presence of xylem vessels is the characteristic of angiosperms. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a.
Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
b.
Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
c.
Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
d.
Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
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Q132 mcq
Given below are two statements: Statement I: Parenchyma is living but collenchyma is dead tissue. Statement II: Gymnosperms lack xylem vessels but presence of xylem vessels is the characteristic of angiosperms. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a.
Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
b.
Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
c.
Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
d.
Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
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Q133 mcq
Given below are two statements: Statement I: Chromosomes become gradually visible under light microscope during leptotene stage. Statement II: The beginning of diplotene stage is recognized by dissolution of synaptonemal complex. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a.
Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
b.
Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
c.
Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
d.
Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
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Q134 mcq
Match List-I with List-II. List-I (A) Nucleolus (B) Centriole (C) Leucoplasts (D) Golgi apparatus List-II (I) Site of formation of glycolipid (II) Organization like the cartwheel (III) Site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis (IV) For storing nutrients Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
a.
A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
b.
A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
c.
A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
d.
A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
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Q135 mcq
List of endangered species was released by:
a.
FAO
b.
IUCN
c.
GEAC
d.
WWF
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Q136 mcq
The DNA present in chloroplast is:
a.
Linear, single stranded
b.
Circular, single stranded
c.
Linear, double stranded
d.
Circular, double stranded
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Q137 mcq
Which of the following are fused in somatic hybridization involving two varieties of plants?
a.
Protoplasts
b.
Pollens
c.
Callus
d.
Somatic embryos
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Q139 mcq
Spraying sugarcane crop with which of the following plant growth regulators increases the length of stem, thus increasing the yield?
a.
Cytokinin
b.
Abscisic acid
c.
Auxin
d.
Gibberellin
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Q140 mcq
Match List-I with List-II. List-I (A) Frederick Griffith (B) Francois Jacob & Jacque Monod (C) Har Gobind Khorana (D) Meselson & Stahl List-II (I) Genetic code (II) Semi-conservative mode of DNA replication (III) Transformation (IV) Lac operon Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
a.
A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
b.
A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
c.
A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
d.
A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
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Q141 mcq
Match List-I with List-II. List-I (A) GLUT-4 (B) Insulin (C) Trypsin (D) Collagen List-II (I) Hormone (II) Enzyme (III) Intercellular ground substances (IV) Enables glucose transport into cell. Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
a.
A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
b.
A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
c.
A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
d.
A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
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Q142 mcq
Given below are two statements: Statement I: In C3 plants, some O2 binds RuBisCO, hence CO2 fixation is decreased. Statement II: In C4 plants, mesophyll cells show very little photorespiration while bundle sheath cells do not show photorespiration. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a.
Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
b.
Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
c.
Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
d.
Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
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Q143 mcq
Identify the step in tricarboxylic acid cycle, which does not involve oxidation of substrate.
a.
Succinyl-CoA → Succinic acid
b.
Isocitrate → α-ketoglutaric acid
c.
Malic acid → Oxaloacetic acid
d.
Succinic acid → Malic acid
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Q143 mcq
Identify the step in tricarboxylic acid cycle which does not involve oxidation of substrate.
a.
Succinyl-CoA → Succinic acid
b.
Isocitrate → α-ketoglutaric acid
c.
Malic acid → Oxaloacetic acid
d.
Succinic acid → Malic acid
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Q144 mcq
Match List-I with List-II. List-I (A) Citric acid cycle (B) Glycolysis (C) Electron transport system (D) Proton gradient List-II (I) Cytoplasm (II) Mitochondrial matrix (III) Intermembrane space of mitochondria (IV) Inner mitochondrial membrane Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
a.
A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
b.
A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
c.
A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
d.
A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
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Q144 mcq
Match List-I with List-II. List-I: (A) Citric acid cycle, (B) Glycolysis, (C) Electron transport system, (D) Proton gradient List-II: (I) Cytoplasm, (II) Mitochondrial matrix, (III) Intermembrane space of mitochondria, (IV) Inner mitochondrial membrane Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
a.
A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
b.
A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
c.
A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
d.
A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
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Q145 mcq
Which of the following statement is correct regarding the process of replication in E. coli?
a.
The DNA dependent DNA polymerase catalyses polymerization in 5'→3' as well as 3'→5' direction.
b.
The DNA dependent DNA polymerase catalyses polymerization in 5'→3' direction.
c.
The DNA dependent DNA polymerase catalyses polymerization in one direction, that is 3'→5'.
d.
The DNA dependent RNA polymerase catalyses polymerization in one direction, that is 5'→3'.
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Q146 mcq
In an ecosystem if the Net Primary Productivity (NPP) of first trophic level is 100x kcal m^-2 yr^-1, what would be the GPP (Gross Primary Productivity) of the third trophic level of the same ecosystem?
a.
10x kcal m^-2 yr^-1
b.
100x/3 kcal m^-2 yr^-1
c.
x/10 kcal m^-2 yr^-1
d.
x kcal m^-2 yr^-1
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Q147 mcq
Match List-I with List-II. List-I: (A) Rose, (B) Pea, (C) Cotton, (D) Mango List-II: (I) Twisted aestivation, (II) Perigynous flower, (III) Drupe, (IV) Marginal placentation Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
a.
A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
b.
A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
c.
A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
d.
A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
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Q148 mcq
Match List-I with List-II. List-I: (A) Robert May, (B) Alexander von Humboldt, (C) Paul Ehrlich, (D) David Tilman List-II: (I) Species-area relationship, (II) Long term ecosystem experiment using outdoor plots, (III) Global species diversity at about 7 million, (IV) Rivet popper hypothesis Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
a.
A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
b.
A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
c.
A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
d.
A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
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Q149 mcq
Match List-I with List-II. List-I (Types of stamen): (A) Monoadelphous, (B) Diadelphous, (C) Polyadelphous, (D) Epiphyllous List-II (Example): (I) Citrus, (II) Pea, (III) Lily, (IV) China-rose Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
a.
A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
b.
A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
c.
A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
d.
A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
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Q150 mcq
Read the following statements and choose the set of correct statements. In the members of Phaeophyceae: A. Asexual reproduction occurs usually by biflagellate zoospores. B. Sexual reproduction is by oogamous method only. C. Stored food is in the form of carbohydrates which is either mannitol or laminarin. D. The major pigments found are chlorophyll a, c and carotenoids and xanthophyll. E. Vegetative cells have a cellulosic wall, usually covered on the outside by gelatinous coating of algin. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a.
A, C, D and E only
b.
A, B, C and E only
c.
A, B, C and D only
d.
B, C, D and E only
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Q151 mcq
Match List I with List II: List I: (A) Typhoid, (B) Leishmaniasis, (C) Ringworm, (D) Filariasis List II: (I) Fungus, (II) Nematode, (III) Protozoa, (IV) Bacteria Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a.
A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
b.
A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
c.
A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
d.
A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
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Q151 mcq
Match List I with List II: List I A. Typhoid B. Leishmaniasis C. Ringworm D. Filariasis List II I. Fungus II. Nematode III. Protozoa IV. Bacteria Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a.
A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
b.
A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
c.
A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
d.
A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
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Q152 mcq
Match List I with List II: List I: (A) Non-medicated IUD, (B) Copper releasing IUD, (C) Hormone releasing IUD, (D) Implants List II: (I) Multiload 375, (II) Progestasert, (III) Lippes loop, (IV) LNG-20 Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a.
A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
b.
A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
c.
A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
d.
A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
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Q152 mcq
Match List I with List II: List I A. Non-medicated IUD B. Copper releasing IUD C. Hormone releasing IUD D. Implants List II I. Multiload 375 II. Progestasert III. Lippes loop IV. LNG-20 Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a.
A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
b.
A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
c.
A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
d.
A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
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Q153 mcq
Given below are two statements: Statement I: The presence or absence of hymen is not a reliable indicator of virginity. Statement II: The hymen is torn during the first coitus only. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a.
Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
b.
Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
c.
Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
d.
Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
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Q154 mcq
In both sexes of cockroach, a pair of jointed filamentous structures called anal cerci are present on:
a.
8th and 9th segment
b.
11th segment
c.
5th segment
d.
10th segment
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Q155 mcq
Match List I with List II: List I A. Pons B. Hypothalamus C. Medulla D. Cerebellum List II I. Provides additional space for neurons, regulates posture and balance II. Controls respiration and gastric secretions III. Connects different regions of the brain IV. Neurosecretory cells Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a.
A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
b.
A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
c.
A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
d.
A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
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Q156 mcq
Which of the following is not a steroid hormone?
a.
Progesterone
b.
Glucagon
c.
Cortisol
d.
Testosterone
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Q158 mcq
Three types of muscles are given as a, b and c. Identify the correct matching pair along with their location in the human body.
a.
(a) Skeletal - Biceps (b) Involuntary - Intestine (c) Smooth - Heart
b.
(a) Involuntary - Nose tip (b) Skeletal - Bone (c) Cardiac - Heart
c.
(a) Smooth - Toes (b) Skeletal - Legs (c) Cardiac - Heart
d.
(a) Skeletal - Triceps (b) Smooth - Stomach (c) Cardiac - Heart
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Q159 mcq
Following are the stages of cell division: A. Gap 2 phase B. Cytokinesis C. Synthesis phase D. Karyokinesis E. Gap 1 phase Choose the correct sequence of stages from the options given below:
a.
B-D-E-A-C
b.
E-C-A-D-B
c.
C-E-D-A-B
d.
E-B-D-A-C
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Q160 mcq
Which of the following are autoimmune disorders? A. Myasthenia gravis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Gout D. Muscular dystrophy E. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE) Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
a.
B, C & E only
b.
C, D & E only
c.
A, B & D only
d.
A, B & E only
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Q161 mcq
Match List I with List II: List I A. Lipase B. Nuclease C. Protease D. Amylase List II I. Peptide bond II. Ester bond III. Glycosidic bond IV. Phosphodiester bond Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a.
A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
b.
A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
c.
A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
d.
A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
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Q162 mcq
The flippers of the penguins and dolphins are examples of the
a.
Convergent evolution
b.
Divergent evolution
c.
Adaptive radiation
d.
Natural selection
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Q162 mcq
The flippers of the penguins and dolphins are an example of:
a.
Convergent evolution
b.
Divergent evolution
c.
Adaptive radiation
d.
Natural selection
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Q163 mcq
Match List I with List II: List I A. Expiratory capacity B. Functional residual capacity C. Vital capacity D. Inspiratory capacity List II I. Expiratory reserve volume + tidal volume + inspiratory reserve volume II. Tidal volume + expiratory reserve volume III. Tidal volume + inspiratory reserve volume IV. Expiratory reserve volume + residual volume Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a.
A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
b.
A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
c.
A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
d.
A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
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Q163 mcq
Match List I with List II: List I A. Expiratory capacity B. Functional residual capacity C. Vital capacity D. Inspiratory capacity List II I. Expiratory reserve volume + Tidal volume + Inspiratory reserve volume II. Tidal volume + Expiratory reserve volume III. Tidal volume + Inspiratory reserve volume IV. Expiratory reserve volume + Residual volume Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a.
A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
b.
A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
c.
A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
d.
A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
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Q164 mcq
Which one of the following factors will not affect the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
a.
Gene migration
b.
Constant gene pool
c.
Genetic recombination
d.
Genetic drift
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Q164 mcq
Which one of the following factors will not affect the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
a.
Gene migration
b.
Constant gene pool
c.
Genetic recombination
d.
Genetic drift
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Q165 mcq
Given below are some stages of human evolution. Arrange them in the correct sequence (past to recent). A. Homo habilis B. Homo sapiens C. Homo neanderthalensis D. Homo erectus Choose the correct sequence of human evolution from the options given below:
a.
C-B-D-A
b.
A-D-C-B
c.
D-A-C-B
d.
B-A-D-C
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Q166 mcq
Following are the stages of pathway for conduction of an action potential through the heart: A. AV bundle B. Purkinje fibres C. AV node D. Bundle branches E. SA node Choose the correct sequence of pathway from the options given below:
a.
B-D-E-C-A
b.
E-A-D-B-C
c.
E-C-A-D-B
d.
A-E-C-B-D
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Q167 mcq
Which of the following factors are favourable for the formation of oxyhaemoglobin in alveoli?
a.
Low pCO2 and high H+ concentration
b.
Low pCO2 and high temperature
c.
High pO2 and high pCO2
d.
High pO2 and lesser H+ concentration
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Q169 mcq
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R: Assertion A: FSH acts upon ovarian follicles in female and Leydig cells in male. Reason R: Growing ovarian follicles secrete estrogen in female while interstitial cells secrete androgen in male human being. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a.
A is true but R is false
b.
A is false but R is true
c.
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
d.
Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
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Q171 mcq
Match List I with List II: List I A. Cocaine B. Heroin C. Morphine D. Marijuana List II I. Effective sedative in surgery II. Cannabis sativa III. Erythroxylum IV. Papaver somniferum Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a.
A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
b.
A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
c.
A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
d.
A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
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Q172 mcq
Consider the following statements: A. Annelids are true coelomates. B. Poriferans are pseudocoelomates. C. Aschelminthes are acoelomates. D. Platyhelminthes are pseudocoelomates. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a.
C only
b.
D only
c.
B only
d.
A only
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Q172 mcq
Consider the following statements: A. Annelids are true coelomates B. Poriferans are pseudocoelomates C. Aschelminthes are acoelomates D. Platyhelminthes are pseudocoelomates Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a.
C only
b.
D only
c.
B only
d.
A only
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Q173 mcq
Given below are two statements: Statement I: In the nephron, the descending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water and permeable to electrolytes. Statement II: The proximal convoluted tubule is lined by simple columnar brush border epithelium and increases the surface area for reabsorption. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a.
Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
b.
Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
c.
Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
d.
Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
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Q173 mcq
Given below are two statements: Statement I: In the nephron the descending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water and permeable to electrolytes. Statement II: The proximal convoluted tubule is lined by simple columnar brush border epithelium and increases the surface area for reabsorption. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a.
Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
b.
Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
c.
Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
d.
Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
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Q174 mcq
Match List I with List II: List I List II A. Fibrous joints I. Adjacent vertebrae, limited movement B. Cartilaginous joints II. Humerus and pectoral girdle, rotational movement C. Hinge III. Skull, don't allow any movement D. Ball and socket joints IV. Knee, help in locomotion Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a.
A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
b.
A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
c.
A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
d.
A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
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Q175 mcq
Which of the following is not a natural/traditional contraceptive method?
a.
Lactational amenorrhea
b.
Vaults
c.
Coitus interruptus
d.
Periodic abstinence
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Q176 mcq
Match List I with List II: List-I List-II A. Pleurobrachia I. Mollusca B. Radula II. Ctenophora C. Stomochord III. Osteichthyes D. Air bladder IV. Hemichordata Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a.
A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
b.
A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
c.
A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
d.
A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
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Q177 mcq
Match List I with List II: List-I List-II A. Axoneme I. Centriole B. Cartwheel pattern II. Cilia and flagella C. Crista III. Chromosome D. Satellite IV. Mitochondria Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a.
A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
b.
A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
c.
A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
d.
A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-II
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Q178 mcq
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
a.
Bio-reactors are used to produce small scale bacterial cultures.
b.
Bio-reactors have an agitator system, an oxygen delivery system and foam control system.
c.
A bio-reactor provides optimal growth conditions for achieving the desired product.
d.
Most commonly used bio-reactors are of stirring type.
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Q179 mcq
Match List I with List II: List I (Sub phases of prophase I) List II (Specific characters) A. Diakinesis I. Synaptonemal complex formation B. Pachytene II. Completion of terminalisation of chiasmata C. Zygotene III. Chromosomes look like thin threads D. Leptotene IV. Appearance of recombination nodules Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a.
A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
b.
A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
c.
A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
d.
A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
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Q180 mcq
Match List I with List II: List I List II A. Common cold I. Plasmodium B. Haemozoin II. Typhoid C. Widal test III. Rhinoviruses D. Allergy IV. Dust mites Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a.
A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
b.
A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
c.
A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
d.
A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
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Q181 mcq
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R: Assertion A: Breast-feeding during initial period of infant growth is recommended by doctors for bringing a healthy baby. Reason R: Colostrum contains several antibodies absolutely essential to develop resistance for the newborn baby. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
a.
A is correct but R is not correct.
b.
A is not correct but R is correct.
c.
Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
d.
Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
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Q182 mcq
Match List I with List II: List-I List-II A. Pterophyllum I. Hag fish B. Myxine II. Saw fish C. Pristis III. Angel fish D. Exocoetus IV. Flying fish Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a.
A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
b.
A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
c.
A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
d.
A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
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Q182 mcq
Match List I with List II: List I A. Pterophyllum B. Myxine C. Pristis D. Exocoetus List II I. Hag fish II. Saw fish III. Angel fish IV. Flying fish Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a.
A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
b.
A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
c.
A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
d.
A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
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Q183 mcq
The 'Ti plasmid' of Agrobacterium tumefaciens stands for
a.
Tumor inducing plasmid
b.
Temperature independent plasmid
c.
Tumour inhibiting plasmid
d.
Tumor independent plasmid
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Q183 mcq
The 'Ti plasmid' of Agrobacterium tumefaciens stands for
a.
Tumor inducing plasmid
b.
Temperature independent plasmid
c.
Tumour inhibiting plasmid
d.
Tumor independent plasmid
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Q184 mcq
Which of the following is not a component of Fallopian tube?
a.
Infundibulum
b.
Ampulla
c.
Uterine fundus
d.
Isthmus
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Q185 mcq
Match List I with List II: List I A. Down's syndrome B. α-Thalassemia C. β-Thalassemia D. Klinefelter's syndrome List II I. 11th chromosome II. 'X' chromosome III. 21st chromosome IV. 16th chromosome Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a.
A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
b.
A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
c.
A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
d.
A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
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Q186 mcq
The following are the statements about non-chordates: A. Pharynx is perforated by gill slits. B. Notochord is absent. C. Central nervous system is dorsal. D. Heart is dorsal if present. E. Post anal tail is absent. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
a.
B, D and E only
b.
B, C and D only
c.
A and C only
d.
A, B and D only
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Q187 mcq
Match List I with List II: List I A. Mesozoic Era B. Proterozoic Era C. Cenozoic Era D. Paleozoic Era List II I. Lower invertebrates II. Fish & Amphibia III. Birds & Reptiles IV. Mammals Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a.
A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
b.
A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
c.
A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
d.
A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
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Q188 mcq
Given below are two statements: Statement I: The cerebral hemispheres are connected by nerve tract known as corpus callosum. Statement II: The brain stem consists of the medulla oblongata, pons and cerebrum. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
a.
Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
b.
Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
c.
Both statement I and Statement II are correct.
d.
Both statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
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Q189 mcq
Identify the correct option (A), (B), (C), (D) with respect to spermatogenesis. GnRH ↓ LH (A) ↓ ↓ (B) (C) ↓ ↓ Androgens Factors ↓ ↓ Formation of spermatids (D)
a.
FSH, Sertoli cells, Leydig cells, spermatogenesis.
b.
ICSH, Leydig cells, Sertoli cells, spermatogenesis.
c.
FSH, Leydig cells, Sertoli cells, spermiogenesis
d.
ICSH, Interstitial cells, Leydig cells, spermiogenesis.
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Q190 mcq
Match List I with List II: List I A. RNA polymerase III B. Termination of transcription C. Splicing of exons D. TATA box List II I. snRNPs II. Promotor III. Rho factor IV. snRNAs, tRNA Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a.
A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
b.
A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
c.
A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
d.
A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
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Q191 mcq
Match List I with List II: List I A. Exophthalmic goiter B. Acromegaly C. Cushing's syndrome D. Cretinism List II I. Excess secretion of cortisol, moon face & hyperglycemia II. Hypo-secretion of thyroid hormone and stunted growth III. Hyper secretion of thyroid hormone & protruding eye balls IV. Excessive secretion of growth hormone Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a.
A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
b.
A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
c.
A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
d.
A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
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Q192 mcq
Match List I with List II: List I A. Unicellular glandular epithelium B. Compound epithelium C. Multicellular glandular epithelium D. Endocrine glandular epithelium List II I. Salivary glands II. Pancreas III. Goblet cells of alimentary canal IV. Moist surface of buccal cavity Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a.
A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
b.
A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
c.
A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
d.
A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
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Q192 mcq
Match List I with List II: List I A. Unicellular glandular epithelium B. Compound epithelium C. Multicellular glandular epithelium D. Endocrine glandular epithelium List II I. Salivary glands II. Pancreas III. Goblet cells of alimentary canal IV. Moist surface of buccal cavity Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a.
A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
b.
A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
c.
A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
d.
A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
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Q193 mcq
Given below are two statements: Statement I: Bone marrow is the main lymphoid organ where all blood cells including lymphocytes are produced. Statement II: Both bone marrow and thymus provide microenvironments for the development and maturation of T-lymphocytes. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
a.
Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
b.
Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
c.
Both statement I and statement II are correct.
d.
Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
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Q194 mcq
Match List I with List II: List I A. The structures used for storing of food. B. Ring of 6-8 blind tubules at junction of foregut and midgut. C. Ring of 100-150 yellow coloured thin filaments at junction of midgut and hindgut. D. The structures used for grinding the food. List II I. Gizzard II. Gastric caeca III. Malpighian tubules IV. Crop Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a.
A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
b.
A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
c.
A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
d.
A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
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Q195 mcq
Choose the correct statement given below regarding juxtamedullary nephron.
a.
Loop of Henle of juxtamedullary nephron runs deep into medulla.
b.
Juxtamedullary nephrons outnumber the cortical nephrons.
c.
Juxtamedullary nephrons are located in the columns of Bertini.
d.
Renal corpuscle of juxtamedullary nephron lies in the outer portion of the renal medulla.
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Q196 mcq
Match List I with List II: List I A. P wave B. QRS complex C. T wave D. T-P gap List II I. Heart muscles are electrically silent II. Depolarisation of ventricles III. Depolarisation of atria IV. Repolarisation of ventricles Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a.
A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
b.
A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
c.
A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
d.
A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
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Q197 mcq
As per ABO blood grouping system, the blood group of father is B+, mother is A+ and child is O+. Their respective genotypes can be: A. I^B i / I^A i / ii B. I^B I^B / I^A I^A / ii C. I^A I^B / i I^A / I^B i D. I^A i / I^B i / I^A i E. i I^B / i I^A / I^A I^B Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
a.
C & B only
b.
D & E only
c.
A only
d.
B only
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Q198 mcq
Given below are two statements: Statement I: Gause's competitive exclusive principle states that two closely related species competing for different resources cannot exist indefinitely. Statement II: According to Gause's principle, during competition, the inferior will be eliminated. This may be true if resources are limiting. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
a.
Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
b.
Statement I is false but statement II is true.
c.
Both statement I and statement II are true.
d.
Both statement I and statement II are false.
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Q199 mcq
Regarding catalytic cycle of an enzyme action, select the correct sequential steps: A. Substrate-enzyme complex formation B. Free enzyme ready to bind with another substrate C. Release of products D. Chemical bonds of the substrate broken E. Substrate binding to active site Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a.
B, A, C, D, E
b.
E, D, C, B, A
c.
E, A, D, C, B
d.
A, E, B, D, C
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Q199 mcq
Regarding catalytic cycle of an enzyme action, select the correct sequential steps:
a.
Substrate-enzyme complex formation.
b.
Free enzyme ready to bind with another substrate.
c.
Release of products.
d.
Chemical bonds of the substrate broken.
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Q200 mcq
Given below are two statements: Statement I: Mitochondria and chloroplasts are both double membrane bound organelles. Statement II: Inner membrane of mitochondria is relatively less permeable, as compared to chloroplast. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
a.
Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
b.
Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
c.
Both statement I and Statement II are correct.
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Q200 mcq
Given below are two statements: Statement I: Mitochondria and chloroplasts are both double membrane-bound organelles. Statement II: Inner membrane of mitochondria is relatively less permeable, as compared to chloroplast. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
a.
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
b.
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
c.
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
d.
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
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