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NEET 2021 CODE O6

2021 · 116 questions · First 10 Solutions Free
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Q56 mcq
Given below are two statements: Statement I: Aspirin and Paracetamol belong to the class of narcotic analgesics. Statement II: Morphine and Heroin are non-narcotic analgesics. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
a.
Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
b.
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.
c.
Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
d.
Both Statement I and Statement II are false. Correct Answer
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Aspirin and Paracetamol are non-narcotic analgesics. Morphine and Heroin are narcotic analgesics. Both statements are false.
Q56 mcq
Given below are two statements: Statement I: Aspirin and Paracetamol belong to the class of narcotic analgesics. Statement II: Morphine and Heroin are non-narcotic analgesics. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
a.
Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
b.
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.
c.
Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
d.
Both Statement I and Statement II are false. Correct Answer
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Aspirin and paracetamol are non-narcotic analgesics, whereas morphine and heroin are narcotic analgesics. Both statements are false.
Q101 mcq
DNA strands on a gel stained with ethidium bromide when viewed under UV radiation, appear as:
a.
Dark red bands
b.
Bright blue bands
c.
Yellow bands
d.
Bright orange bands Correct Answer
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Ethidium bromide intercalates into DNA and fluoresces bright orange under UV light.
Q102 mcq
Which of the following plants is monoecious?
a.
Marchantia polymorpha
b.
Cycas circinalis
c.
Carica papaya
d.
Chara Correct Answer
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Chara is a monoecious alga, possessing both male (antheridium) and female (oogonium) sex organs on the same plant body.
Q104 mcq
Which of the following is an incorrect statement?
a.
The perinuclear space forms a barrier between the materials present inside the nucleus and that of the cytoplasm.
b.
Nuclear pores act as passages for proteins and RNA molecules in both directions between nucleus and cytoplasm.
c.
Mature sieve tube elements possess a conspicuous nucleus and usual cytoplasmic organelles. Correct Answer
d.
Microbodies are present both in plant and animal cells.
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Mature sieve tube elements in angiosperms lack a nucleus, ribosome, and Golgi bodies at maturity to facilitate conduction.
Q104 mcq
Which of the following is an incorrect statement?
a.
The perinuclear space forms a barrier between the materials present inside the nucleus and that of the cytoplasm.
b.
Nuclear pores act as passages for proteins and RNA molecules in both directions between nucleus and cytoplasm.
c.
Mature sieve tube elements possess a conspicuous nucleus and usual cytoplasmic organelles. Correct Answer
d.
Microbodies are present both in plant and animal cells.
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Mature sieve tube elements in angiosperms lose their nucleus and many other organelles at maturity to facilitate efficient translocation of food.
Q105 mcq
The term used for transfer of pollen grains from anthers of one plant to stigma of a different plant which, during pollination, brings genetically different types of pollen grains to stigma, is:
a.
Chasmogamy
b.
Cleistogamy
c.
Xenogamy Correct Answer
d.
Geitonogamy
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Xenogamy refers to cross-pollination where pollen comes from a genetically different plant.
Q105 mcq
The term used for transfer of pollen grains from anthers of one plant to stigma of a different plant which, during pollination, brings genetically different types of pollen grains to stigma, is:
a.
Chasmogamy
b.
Cleistogamy
c.
Xenogamy Correct Answer
d.
Geitonogamy
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Xenogamy is the transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of a different plant of the same species, which brings genetically different pollen grains to the stigma.
Q106 mcq
The first stable product of CO2 fixation in sorghum is:
a.
Succinic acid
b.
Phosphoglyceric acid
c.
Pyruvic acid
d.
Oxaloacetic acid Correct Answer
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Sorghum is a C4 plant; its first stable product of carbon fixation is Oxaloacetic Acid (OAA).
Q106 mcq
The first stable product of CO2 fixation in sorghum is:
a.
Succinic acid
b.
Phosphoglyceric acid
c.
Pyruvic acid
d.
Oxaloacetic acid Correct Answer
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Sorghum is a C4 plant. In C4 plants, the first stable product of CO2 fixation is the four-carbon compound Oxaloacetic acid (OAA).
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Q107 mcq
Which of the following statements is not correct?
a.
Pyramid of energy is always upright.
b.
Pyramid of numbers in a grassland ecosystem is upright.
c.
Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally inverted.
d.
Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally upright.
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Q107 mcq
Which of the following statements is not correct?
a.
Pyramid of energy is always upright.
b.
Pyramid of numbers in a grassland ecosystem is upright.
c.
Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally inverted.
d.
Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally upright.
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Q108 mcq
Which of the following algae produce Carrageen?
a.
Red algae
b.
Blue-green algae
c.
Green algae
d.
Brown algae
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Q109 mcq
When gene targeting involving gene amplification is attempted in an individual’s tissue to treat disease, it is known as:
a.
Molecular diagnosis
b.
Safety testing
c.
Biopiracy
d.
Gene therapy
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Q110 mcq
Plants follow different pathways in response to environment or phases of life to form different kinds of structures. This ability is called:
a.
Plasticity
b.
Maturity
c.
Elasticity
d.
Flexibility
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Q111 mcq
Inspite of interspecific competition in nature, which mechanism the competing species might have evolved for their survival?
a.
Mutualism
b.
Predation
c.
Resource partitioning
d.
Competitive release
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Q113 mcq
The plant hormone used to destroy weeds in a field is:
a.
2, 4-D
b.
IBA
c.
IAA
d.
NAA
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Q114 mcq
The factor that leads to Founder effect in a population is:
a.
Mutation
b.
Genetic drift
c.
Natural selection
d.
Genetic recombination
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Q116 mcq
The amount of nutrients, such as carbon, nitrogen, phosphorus and calcium present in the soil at any given time, is referred as:
a.
Standing state
b.
Standing crop
c.
Climax
d.
Climax community
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Q117 mcq
Genera like Selaginella and Salvinia produce two kinds of spores. Such plants are known as:
a.
Homosporous
b.
Heterosporous
c.
Homosorus
d.
Heterosorus
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Q118 mcq
Which of the following stages of meiosis involves division of centromere?
a.
Anaphase II
b.
Telophase II
c.
Metaphase I
d.
Metaphase II
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Q119 mcq
Gemmae are present in:
a.
Some Gymnosperms
b.
Some Liverworts
c.
Mosses
d.
Pteridophytes
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Q120 mcq
Which of the following is a correct sequence of steps in a PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)?
a.
Extension, Denaturation, Annealing
b.
Annealing, Denaturation, Extension
c.
Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
d.
Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
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Q121 mcq
Complete the flow chart on central dogma.
a.
(a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription; (c)-Translation; (d)-Protein
b.
(a)-Transduction; (b)-Translation; (c)-Replication; (d)-Protein
c.
(a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription; (c)-Transduction; (d)-Protein
d.
(a)-Translation; (b)-Replication; (c)-Transcription; (d)-Transduction
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Q122 mcq
Diadelphous stamens are found in:
a.
Pea
b.
China rose and citrus
c.
China rose
d.
Citrus
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Q122 mcq
Diadelphous stamens are found in :
a.
Pea
b.
China rose and citrus
c.
China rose
d.
Citrus
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Q123 mcq
Amensalism can be represented as:
a.
Species A (-) ; Species B (-)
b.
Species A (-) ; Species B (0)
c.
Species A (+) ; Species B (0)
d.
Species A (-) ; Species B (+)
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Q123 mcq
Amensalism can be represented as :
a.
Species A (−) ; Species B (−)
b.
Species A (+) ; Species B (0)
c.
Species A (−) ; Species B (0)
d.
Species A (+) ; Species B (+)
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Q124 mcq
Match List - I with List - II. (a) Cohesion, (b) Adhesion, (c) Surface tension, (d) Guttation.
a.
(1)(iii)(i)(iv)(ii)
b.
(2)(ii)(i)(iv)(iii)
c.
(3)(ii)(iv)(i)(iii)
d.
(4)(iv)(iii)(ii)(i)
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Q125 mcq
In the equation GPP-R=NPP, R represents:
a.
Environment factor
b.
Respiration losses
c.
Radiant energy
d.
Retardation factor
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Q125 mcq
In the equation GPP−R=NPP, R represents :
a.
Environment factor
b.
Respiration losses
c.
Radiant energy
d.
Retardation factor
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Q126 mcq
The site of perception of light in plants during photoperiodism is :
a.
Axillary bud
b.
Leaf
c.
Shoot apex
d.
Stem
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Q127 mcq
Which of the following is not an application of PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) ?
a.
Purification of isolated protein
b.
Detection of gene mutation
c.
Molecular diagnosis
d.
Gene amplification
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Q128 mcq
During the purification process for recombinant DNA technology, addition of chilled ethanol precipitates out :
a.
Histones
b.
Polysaccharides
c.
RNA
d.
DNA
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Q129 mcq
Which of the following algae contains mannitol as reserve food material ?
a.
Volvox
b.
Ulothrix
c.
Ectocarpus
d.
Gracilaria
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Q130 mcq
Mutations in plant cells can be induced by :
a.
Gamma rays
b.
Zeatin
c.
Kinetin
d.
Infrared rays
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Q131 mcq
A typical angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is :
a.
7-nucleate and 7-celled
b.
8-nucleate and 8-celled
c.
8-nucleate and 7-celled
d.
7-nucleate and 8-celled
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Q133 mcq
The production of gametes by the parents, formation of zygotes, the F1 and F2 plants, can be understood from a diagram called :
a.
Punnett square
b.
Net square
c.
Bullet square
d.
Punch square
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Q134 mcq
When the centromere is situated in the middle of two equal arms of chromosomes, the chromosome is referred as :
a.
Sub-metacentric
b.
Acrocentric
c.
Metacentric
d.
Telocentric
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Q136 mcq
Plasmid pBR322 has PstI restriction enzyme site within gene ampR that confers ampicillin resistance. If this enzyme is used for inserting a gene for β-galactoside production and the recombinant plasmid is inserted in an E.coli strain
a.
it will lead to lysis of host cell.
b.
it will be able to produce a novel protein with dual ability.
c.
it will not be able to confer ampicillin resistance to the host cell.
d.
the transformed cells will have the ability to resist ampicillin as well as produce β-galactoside.
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Q137 mcq
What is the role of RNA polymerase III in the process of transcription in eukaryotes ?
a.
Transcribes precursor of mRNA
b.
Transcribes only snRNAs
c.
Transcribes rRNAs (28S, 18S and 5.8S)
d.
Transcribes tRNA, 5s rRNA and snRNA
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Q138 mcq
In the exponential growth equation Nt=Noert, e represents :
a.
The base of natural logarithms
b.
The base of geometric logarithms
c.
The base of number logarithms
d.
The base of exponential logarithms
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Q140 mcq
Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
a.
Grana lamellae have both PS I and PS II.
b.
Cyclic photophosphorylation involves both PS I and PS II.
c.
Both ATP and NADPH are synthesized during non-cyclic photophosphorylation.
d.
Stroma lamellae have PS I only and lack NADP reductase.
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Q140 mcq
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
a.
Grana lamellae have both PS I and PS II.
b.
Cyclic photophosphorylation involves both PS I and PS II.
c.
Both ATP and NADPH + H+ are synthesized during non-cyclic photophosphorylation.
d.
Stroma lamellae have PS I only and lack NADP reductase.
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Q141 mcq
Match Column - I with Column - II and choose the correct option: Column - I: (a) Nitrococcus, (b) Rhizobium, (c) Thiobacillus, (d) Nitrobacter Column - II: (i) Denitrification, (ii) Conversion of ammonia to nitrite, (iii) Conversion of nitrite to nitrate, (iv) Conversion of atmospheric nitrogen to ammonia
a.
(1)(iii)(i)(iv)(ii)
b.
(2)(iv)(iii)(ii)(i)
c.
(3)(ii)(iv)(i)(iii)
d.
(4)(i)(ii)(iii)(iv)
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Q142 mcq
Match List - I with List - II: List - I: (a) Protein, (b) Unsaturated fatty acid, (c) Nucleic acid, (d) Polysaccharide List - II: (i) C=C double bonds, (ii) Phosphodiester bonds, (iii) Glycosidic bonds, (iv) Peptide bonds
a.
(1)(ii)(i)(iv)(iii)
b.
(2)(iv)(iii)(i)(ii)
c.
(3)(iv)(i)(ii)(iii)
d.
(4)(i)(iv)(iii)(ii)
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Q143 mcq
Which of the following statements is correct?
a.
Organisms that depend on living plants are called saprophytes.
b.
Some of the organisms can fix atmospheric nitrogen in specialized cells called sheath cells.
c.
Fusion of two cells is called Karyogamy.
d.
Fusion of protoplasms between two motile or non-motile gametes is called plasmogamy.
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Q144 mcq
In some members of which of the following pairs of families, pollen grains retain their viability for months after release?
a.
Poaceae ; Solanaceae
b.
Rosaceae ; Leguminosae
c.
Poaceae ; Rosaceae
d.
Poaceae ; Leguminosae
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Q146 mcq
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
a.
ATP is synthesized through complex V.
b.
Oxidation-reduction reactions produce proton gradient in respiration.
c.
During aerobic respiration, role of oxygen is limited to the terminal stage.
d.
In ETC (Electron Transport Chain), one molecule of NADH+H+ gives rise to 2 ATP molecules, and one FADH2 gives rise to 3 ATP molecules.
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Q147 mcq
Match List - I with List - II: List - I: (a) S phase, (b) G2 phase, (c) Quiescent stage, (d) G1 phase List - II: (i) Proteins are synthesized, (ii) Inactive phase, (iii) Interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA replication, (iv) DNA replication
a.
(1)(iv)(i)(ii)(iii)
b.
(2)(ii)(iv)(iii)(i)
c.
(3)(iii)(ii)(i)(iv)
d.
(4)(iv)(ii)(iii)(i)
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Q148 mcq
Identify the correct statement.
a.
The coding strand in a transcription unit is copied to an mRNA.
b.
Split gene arrangement is characteristic of prokaryotes.
c.
In capping, methyl guanosine triphosphate is added to the 3' end of hnRNA.
d.
RNA polymerase binds with Rho factor to terminate the process of transcription in bacteria.
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Q150 mcq
DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences in some specific regions in DNA sequence, called as :
a.
Single nucleotides
b.
Polymorphic DNA
c.
Satellite DNA
d.
Repetitive DNA
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Q151 mcq
Erythropoietin hormone which stimulates R.B.C. formation is produced by:
a.
The cells of bone marrow
b.
Juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney
c.
Alpha cells of pancreas
d.
The cells of rostral adenohypophysis
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Q151 mcq
Erythropoietin hormone which stimulates R.B.C. formation is produced by :
a.
The cells of bone marrow
b.
Juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney
c.
Alpha cells of pancreas
d.
The cells of rostral adenohypophysis
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Q152 mcq
Which one of the following belongs to the family Muscidae ?
a.
Cockroach
b.
House fly
c.
Fire fly
d.
Grasshopper
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Q153 mcq
Match the following: (a) Physalia, (b) Limulus, (c) Ancylostoma, (d) Pinctada (i) Pearl oyster, (ii) Portuguese Man of War, (iii) Living fossil, (iv) Hookworm
a.
(1)(ii)(iii)(iv)(i)
b.
(2)(i)(iv)(iii)(ii)
c.
(3)(iii)(ii)(i)(iv)
d.
(4)(i)(ii)(iii)(iv)
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Q153 mcq
Match the following : (a) Physalia (i) Pearl oyster (b) Limulus (ii) Portuguese Man of War (c) Ancylostoma (iii) Living fossil (d) Pinctada (iv) Hookworm
a.
(1) (ii)(iii)(iv)(i)
b.
(2) (i)(iv)(iii)(ii)
c.
(3) (ii)(iii)(i)(iv)
d.
(4) (iv)(i)(iii)(ii)
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Q154 mcq
For effective treatment of the disease, early diagnosis and understanding its pathophysiology is very important. Which of the following molecular diagnostic techniques is very useful for early detection ?
a.
ELISA Technique
b.
Hybridization Technique
c.
Western Blotting Technique
d.
Southern Blotting Technique
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Q155 mcq
Which one of the following is an example of Hormone releasing IUD ?
a.
Cu 7
b.
Multiload 375
c.
CuT
d.
LNG 20
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Q156 mcq
Which stage of meiotic prophase shows terminalisation of chiasmata as its distinctive feature ?
a.
Diakinesis
b.
Pachytene
c.
Leptotene
d.
Zygotene
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Q157 mcq
With regard to insulin choose correct options. (a) C-peptide is not present in mature insulin. (b) The insulin produced by rDNA technology has C-peptide. (c) The pro-insulin has C-peptide. (d) A-peptide and B-peptide of insulin are interconnected by disulphide bridges.
a.
(a), (c) and (d) only
b.
(a) and (d) only
c.
(b) and (d) only
d.
(b) and (c) only
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Q158 mcq
Which one of the following organisms bears hollow and pneumatic long bones ?
a.
Macropus
b.
Ornithorhynchus
c.
Neophron
d.
Hemidactylus
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Q159 mcq
Persons with ‘AB’ blood group are called as “Universal recipients”. This is due to :
a.
Presence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, on RBCs
b.
Absence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, in plasma
c.
Absence of antigens A and B on the surface of RBCs
d.
Absence of antigens A and B in plasma
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Q160 mcq
Which enzyme is responsible for the conversion of inactive fibrinogens to fibrins ?
a.
Epinephrine
b.
Thrombokinase
c.
Thrombin
d.
Renin
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Q161 mcq
Which of the following statements wrongly represents the nature of smooth muscle ?
a.
Communication among the cells is performed by intercalated discs
b.
These muscles are present in the wall of blood vessels
c.
These muscle have no striations
d.
They are involuntary muscles
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Q162 mcq
Match List - I with List - II. (a) Metamerism (i) Coelenterata (b) Canal system (ii) Ctenophora (c) Comb plates (iii) Annelida (d) Cnidoblasts (iv) Porifera
a.
(1) (iii)(iv)(ii)(i)
b.
(2) (iv)(i)(ii)(iii)
c.
(3) (iv)(iii)(i)(ii)
d.
(4) (iii)(iv)(i)(ii)
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Q163 mcq
A specific recognition sequence identified by endonucleases to make cuts at specific positions within the DNA is :
a.
Palindromic Nucleotide sequences
b.
Poly(A) tail sequences
c.
Degenerate primer sequence
d.
Okazaki sequences
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Q164 mcq
Which is the “Only enzyme” that has “Capability” to catalyse Initiation, Elongation and Termination in the process of transcription in prokaryotes ?
a.
DNA Ligase
b.
DNase
c.
DNA dependent DNA polymerase
d.
DNA dependent RNA polymerase
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Q165 mcq
Identify the incorrect pair.
a.
Lectins - Concanavalin A
b.
Drugs - Ricin
c.
Alkaloids - Codeine
d.
Toxin - Abrin
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Q165 mcq
Identify the incorrect pair.
a.
Lectins - Concanavalin A
b.
Drugs - Ricin
c.
Alkaloids - Codeine
d.
Toxin - Abrin
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Q166 mcq
The partial pressures (in mm Hg) of oxygen (O2) and carbon dioxide (CO2) at alveoli (the site of diffusion) are :
a.
pO2 = 95 and pCO2 = 40
b.
pO2 = 159 and pCO2 = 0.3
c.
pO2 = 104 and pCO2 = 40
d.
pO2 = 40 and pCO2 = 45
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Q166 mcq
The partial pressures (in mm Hg) of oxygen (O2) and carbon dioxide (CO2) at alveoli (the site of diffusion) are :
a.
pO2 = 95 and pCO2 = 40
b.
pO2 = 159 and pCO2 = 0.3
c.
pO2 = 104 and pCO2 = 40
d.
pO2 = 40 and pCO2 = 45
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Q167 mcq
The organelles that are included in the endomembrane system are :
a.
Golgi complex, Mitochondria, Ribosomes and Lysosomes
b.
Golgi complex, Endoplasmic reticulum, Mitochondria and Lysosomes
c.
Endoplasmic reticulum, Mitochondria, Ribosomes and Lysosomes
d.
Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex, Lysosomes and Vacuoles
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Q167 mcq
The organelles that are included in the endomembrane system are :
a.
Golgi complex, Mitochondria, Ribosomes and Lysosomes
b.
Golgi complex, Endoplasmic reticulum, Mitochondria and Lysosomes
c.
Endoplasmic reticulum, Mitochondria, Ribosomes and Lysosomes
d.
Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex, Lysosomes and Vacuoles
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Q168 mcq
If Adenine makes 30% of the DNA molecule, what will be the percentage of Thymine, Guanine and Cytosine in it ?
a.
T : 30 ; G : 20 ; C : 20
b.
T : 20 ; G : 25 ; C : 25
c.
T : 20 ; G : 30 ; C : 20
d.
T : 20 ; G : 20 ; C : 30
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Q168 mcq
If Adenine makes 30% of the DNA molecule, what will be the percentage of Thymine, Guanine and Cytosine in it ?
a.
T : 30 ; G : 20 ; C : 20
b.
T : 20 ; G : 25 ; C : 25
c.
T : 20 ; G : 30 ; C : 20
d.
T : 20 ; G : 20 ; C : 30
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Q169 mcq
Dobson units are used to measure thickness of :
a.
Ozone
b.
Troposphere
c.
CFCs
d.
Stratosphere
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Q169 mcq
Dobson units are used to measure thickness of :
a.
Ozone
b.
Troposphere
c.
CFCs
d.
Stratosphere
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Q170 mcq
Read the following statements. (a) Metagenesis is observed in Helminths. (b) Echinoderms are triploblastic and coelomate animals. (c) Round worms have organ-system level of body organization. (d) Comb plates present in ctenophores help in digestion. (e) Water vascular system is characteristic of Echinoderms. Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
a.
(a), (d) and (e) are correct
b.
(b), (c) and (e) are correct
c.
(c), (d) and (e) are correct
d.
(a), (b) and (c) are correct
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Q171 mcq
Chronic auto immune disorder affecting neuro muscular junction leading to fatigue, weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscle is called as :
a.
Myasthenia gravis
b.
Gout
c.
Arthritis
d.
Muscular dystrophy
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Q172 mcq
Match List - I with List - II. (a) Vaults (i) Entry of sperm through Cervix is blocked (b) IUDs (ii) Removal of Vas deferens (c) Vasectomy (iii) Phagocytosis of sperms within the Uterus (d) Tubectomy (iv) Removal of fallopian tube
a.
(ii)(iv)(iii)(i)
b.
(iii)(i)(iv)(ii)
c.
(iv)(ii)(i)(iii)
d.
(i)(iii)(ii)(iv)
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Q173 mcq
The centriole undergoes duplication during :
a.
Metaphase
b.
G2 phase
c.
S-phase
d.
Prophase
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Q174 mcq
Receptors for sperm binding in mammals are present on :
a.
Perivitelline space
b.
Zona pellucida
c.
Corona radiata
d.
Vitelline membrane
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Q175 mcq
Which of the following characteristics is incorrect with respect to cockroach ?
a.
In females, 7th-9th sterna together form a genital pouch.
b.
10th abdominal segment in both sexes, bears a pair of anal cerci.
c.
A ring of gastric caeca is present at the junction of midgut and hind gut.
d.
Hypopharynx lies within the cavity enclosed by the mouth parts.
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Q176 mcq
Match List - I with List - II. (a) Aspergillus niger (i) Acetic Acid (b) Acetobacter aceti (ii) Lactic Acid (c) Clostridium butylicum (iii) Citric Acid (d) Lactobacillus (iv) Butyric Acid
a.
(ii)(iii)(i)(iv)
b.
(iv)(ii)(i)(iii)
c.
(iii)(i)(iv)(ii)
d.
(i)(ii)(iii)(iv)
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Q177 mcq
Veneral diseases can spread through : (a) Using sterile needles (b) Transfusion of blood from infected person (c) Infected mother to foetus (d) Kissing (e) Inheritance
a.
(b) and (c) only
b.
(a) and (c) only
c.
(a), (b) and (c) only
d.
(b), (c) and (d) only
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Q178 mcq
Which of the following RNAs is not required for the synthesis of protein ?
a.
rRNA
b.
siRNA
c.
mRNA
d.
tRNA
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Q179 mcq
Select the favourable conditions required for the formation of oxyhaemoglobin at the alveoli.
a.
High pO2, high pCO2, less H+, higher temperature
b.
Low pO2, low pCO2, more H+, higher temperature
c.
High pO2, low pCO2, less H+, lower temperature
d.
Low pO2, high pCO2, more H+, higher temperature
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Q180 mcq
Succus entericus is referred to as :
a.
Gastric juice
b.
Chyme
c.
Pancreatic juice
d.
Intestinal juice
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Q180 mcq
Succus entericus is referred to as :
a.
Gastric juice
b.
Chyme
c.
Pancreatic juice
d.
Intestinal juice
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Q181 mcq
In a cross between a male and female, both heterozygous for sickle cell anaemia gene, what percentage of the progeny will be diseased ?
a.
25%
b.
100%
c.
50%
d.
75%
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Q181 mcq
In a cross between a male and female, both heterozygous for sickle cell anaemia gene, what percentage of the progeny will be diseased ?
a.
25%
b.
100%
c.
50%
d.
75%
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Q182 mcq
During the process of gene amplification using PCR, if very high temperature is not maintained in the beginning, then which of the following steps of PCR will be affected first ?
a.
Denaturation
b.
Ligation
c.
Annealing
d.
Extension
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Q182 mcq
During the process of gene amplification using PCR, if very high temperature is not maintained in the beginning, then which of the following steps of PCR will be affected first ?
a.
Denaturation
b.
Ligation
c.
Annealing
d.
Extension
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Q183 mcq
Which of the following is not an objective of Biofortification in crops ?
a.
Improve vitamin content
b.
Improve micronutrient and mineral content
c.
Improve protein content
d.
Improve resistance to diseases
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Q183 mcq
Which of the following is not an objective of Biofortification in crops ?
a.
Improve vitamin content
b.
Improve micronutrient and mineral content
c.
Improve protein content
d.
Improve resistance to diseases
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Q184 mcq
Sphincter of oddi is present at :
a.
Gastro-oesophageal junction
b.
Junction of jejunum and duodenum
c.
Ileo-caecal junction
d.
Junction of hepato-pancreatic duct and duodenum
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Q184 mcq
Sphincter of oddi is present at :
a.
Gastro-oesophageal junction
b.
Junction of jejunum and duodenum
c.
Ileo-caecal junction
d.
Junction of hepato-pancreatic duct and duodenum
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Q185 mcq
The fruit fly has 8 chromosomes (2n) in each cell. During interphase of Mitosis if the number of chromosomes at G1 phase is 8, what would be the number of chromosomes after S phase ?
a.
4
b.
32
c.
8
d.
16
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Q186 mcq
Identify the types of cell junctions that help to stop the leakage of the substances across a tissue and facilitation of communication with neighbouring cells via rapid transfer of ions and molecules.
a.
Adhering junctions and Tight junctions, respectively.
b.
Adhering junctions and Gap junctions, respectively.
c.
Gap junctions and Adhering junctions, respectively.
d.
Tight junctions and Gap junctions, respectively.
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Q187 mcq
Statement I: The codon ‘AUG’ codes for methionine and phenylalanine. Statement II: ‘AAA’ and ‘AAG’ both codons code for the amino acid lysine.
a.
Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
b.
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true
c.
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
d.
Both Statement I and Statement II are false
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Q188 mcq
Which of the following is not a step in Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer Technology (MOET) ?
a.
Cow is fertilized by artificial insemination
b.
Fertilized eggs are transferred to surrogate mothers at 8-32 cell stage
c.
Cow is administered hormone having LH like activity for super ovulation
d.
Cow yields about 6-8 eggs at a time
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Q189 mcq
Following are the statements about prostomium of earthworm. (a) It serves as a covering for mouth. (b) It helps to open cracks in the soil into which it can crawl. (c) It is one of the sensory structures. (d) It is the first body segment.
a.
(a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct
b.
(b) and (c) are correct
c.
(a), (b) and (c) are correct
d.
(a), (b) and (d) are correct
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Q190 mcq
Match List - I with List - II: (a) Allen's Rule (i) Kangaroo rat (b) Physiological adaptation (ii) Desert lizard (c) Behavioural adaptation (iii) Marine fish at depth (d) Biochemical adaptation (iv) Polar seal
a.
(iv)(i)(ii)(iii)
b.
(iv)(iii)(ii)(i)
c.
(iv)(ii)(iii)(i)
d.
(iv)(i)(iii)(ii)
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Q191 mcq
Match List - I with List - II: (a) Filariasis (i) Haemophilus influenzae (b) Amoebiasis (ii) Trichophyton (c) Pneumonia (iii) Wuchereria bancrofti (d) Ringworm (iv) Entamoeba histolytica
a.
(i)(ii)(iv)(iii)
b.
(ii)(iii)(i)(iv)
c.
(iv)(i)(iii)(ii)
d.
(iii)(iv)(i)(ii)
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Q192 mcq
Match List - I with List - II: (a) Adaptive radiation (i) Selection of resistant varieties due to excessive use of herbicides and pesticides (b) Convergent evolution (ii) Bones of forelimbs in Man and Whale (c) Divergent evolution (iii) Wings of Butterfly and Bird (d) Evolution by anthropogenic action (iv) Darwin Finches
a.
(ii)(i)(iv)(iii)
b.
(i)(iv)(iii)(ii)
c.
(iv)(iii)(ii)(i)
d.
(iii)(ii)(i)(iv)
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Q193 mcq
Which of the following secretes the hormone, relaxin, during the later phase of pregnancy ?
a.
Foetus
b.
Uterus
c.
Graafian follicle
d.
Corpus luteum
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Q193 mcq
Which of the following secretes the hormone, relaxin, during the later phase of pregnancy?
a.
Foetus
b.
Uterus
c.
Graafian follicle
d.
Corpus luteum
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Q194 mcq
Which one of the following statements about Histones is wrong ?
a.
Histones are rich in amino acids - Lysine and Arginine.
b.
Histones carry positive charge in the side chain.
c.
Histones are organized to form a unit of 8 molecules.
d.
The pH of histones is slightly acidic.
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Q194 mcq
Which one of the following statements about Histones is wrong?
a.
Histones are rich in amino acids - Lysine and Arginine.
b.
Histones carry positive charge in the side chain.
c.
Histones are organized to form a unit of 8 molecules.
d.
The pH of histones is slightly acidic.
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Q195 mcq
Following are the statements with reference to ‘lipids’. (a) Lipids having only single bonds are called unsaturated fatty acids. (b) Lecithin is a phospholipid. (c) Trihydroxy propane is glycerol. (d) Palmitic acid has 20 carbon atoms including carboxyl carbon. (e) Arachidonic acid has 16 carbon atoms. Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
a.
(b) and (c) only
b.
(b) and (e) only
c.
(a) and (b) only
d.
(c) and (d) only
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Q196 mcq
Match List - I with List - II. (a) Scapula (i) Cartilaginous joints (b) Cranium (ii) Flat bone (c) Sternum (iii) Fibrous joints (d) Vertebral column (iv) Triangular flat bone Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
a.
(1) (iv)(ii)(iii)(i)
b.
(2) (iv)(iii)(ii)(i)
c.
(3) (i)(iii)(ii)(iv)
d.
(4) (ii)(iii)(iv)(i)
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Q197 mcq
The Adenosine deaminase deficiency results into :
a.
Digestive disorder
b.
Addison’s disease
c.
Dysfunction of Immune system
d.
Parkinson’s disease
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Q198 mcq
During muscular contraction which of the following events occur? (a) ‘H’ zone disappears (b) ‘A’ band widens (c) ‘I’ band reduces in width (d) Myosine hydrolyzes ATP, releasing the ADP and Pi (e) Z-lines attached to actins are pulled inwards Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
a.
(b), (c), (d), (e) only
b.
(b), (d), (e), (a) only
c.
(a), (c), (d), (e) only
d.
(a), (b), (c), (d) only
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Q199 mcq
Which of these is not an important component of initiation of parturition in humans?
a.
Release of Oxytocin
b.
Release of Prolactin
c.
Increase in estrogen and progesterone ratio
d.
Synthesis of prostaglandins
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Q200 mcq
Assertion (A) : A person goes to high altitude and experiences ‘altitude sickness’ with symptoms like breathing difficulty and heart palpitations. Reason (R) : Due to low atmospheric pressure at high altitude, the body does not get sufficient oxygen. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
a.
(A) is true but (R) is false
b.
(A) is false but (R) is true
c.
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
d.
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
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