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NEET 2021 CODE N6

2021 · 120 questions · First 10 Solutions Free
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Q71 mcq
Given below are two statements: Statement I: Aspirin and Paracetamol belong to the class of narcotic analgesics. Statement II: Morphine and Heroin are non-narcotic analgesics.
a.
Both Statement I and Statement II are false. Correct Answer
b.
Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
c.
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.
d.
Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Aspirin/Paracetamol are non-narcotic analgesics, while Morphine/Heroin are narcotic analgesics. Both statements are false.
Q94 mcq
Match List - I with List - II: (a) 2SO2(g) + O2(g) → 2SO3(g), (b) HOCl(g) → OH + Cl, (c) CaCO3 + H2SO4 → CaSO4 + H2O + CO2, (d) NO2(g) → NO(g) + O(g). List - II: (i) Acid rain, (ii) Smog, (iii) Ozone depletion, (iv) Tropospheric pollution.
a.
(a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
b.
(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) Correct Answer
c.
(a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
d.
(a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
SO2 oxidation leads to tropospheric pollution (iv), HOCl causes ozone depletion (iii), CaCO3 reacting with H2SO4 is acid rain (i), and NO2 photolysis causes smog (ii).
Q101 mcq
Plants follow different pathways in response to environment or phases of life to form different kinds of structures. This ability is called:
a.
Flexibility
b.
Plasticity Correct Answer
c.
Maturity
d.
Elasticity
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Plasticity refers to the ability of plants to follow different pathways to form different structures in response to the environment.
Q102 mcq
Inspite of interspecific competition in nature, which mechanism the competing species might have evolved for their survival?
a.
Competitive release
b.
Mutualism
c.
Predation
d.
Resource partitioning Correct Answer
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Resource partitioning is an evolutionary response where species choose different foraging times or foraging patterns to avoid competition.
Q103 mcq
Which of the following stages of meiosis involves division of centromere?
a.
Metaphase II
b.
Anaphase II Correct Answer
c.
Telophase II
d.
Metaphase I
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
The centromere divides and sister chromatids separate during Anaphase II of meiosis.
Q104 mcq
Genera like Selaginella and Salvinia produce two kinds of spores. Such plants are known as:
a.
Heterosorus
b.
Homosporous
c.
Heterosporous Correct Answer
d.
Homosorus
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Plants producing two kinds of spores, macrospores and microspores, are known as heterosporous.
Q105 mcq
DNA strands on a gel stained with ethidium bromide when viewed under UV radiation, appear as:
a.
Bright orange bands Correct Answer
b.
Dark red bands
c.
Bright blue bands
d.
Yellow bands
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Ethidium bromide stained DNA fragments glow orange when viewed under UV light.
Q105 mcq
DNA strands on a gel stained with ethidium bromide when viewed under UV radiation, appear as :
a.
Bright orange bands Correct Answer
b.
Dark red bands
c.
Bright blue bands
d.
Yellow bands
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Ethidium bromide intercalates between the base pairs of DNA, and when exposed to UV light, it fluoresces as bright orange bands.
Q106 mcq
Mutations in plant cells can be induced by:
a.
Infrared rays
b.
Gamma rays Correct Answer
c.
Zeatin
d.
Kinetin
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Gamma rays are ionizing radiations used as physical mutagens to induce mutations in plants.
Q106 mcq
Mutations in plant cells can be induced by :
a.
Infrared rays
b.
Gamma rays Correct Answer
c.
Zeatin
d.
Kinetin
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Gamma rays are high-energy ionizing radiations used as physical mutagens to induce mutations in plant breeding.
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Q107 mcq
When gene targetting involving gene amplification is attempted in an individual’s tissue to treat disease, it is known as:
a.
Gene therapy
b.
Molecular diagnosis
c.
Safety testing
d.
Biopiracy
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Q107 mcq
When gene targetting involving gene amplification is attempted in an individual’s tissue to treat disease, it is known as :
a.
Gene therapy
b.
Molecular diagnosis
c.
Safety testing
d.
Biopiracy
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Q108 mcq
When the centromere is situated in the middle of two equal arms of chromosomes, the chromosome is referred as:
a.
Telocentric
b.
Sub-metacentric
c.
Acrocentric
d.
Metacentric
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Q108 mcq
When the centromere is situated in the middle of two equal arms of chromosomes, the chromosome is referred as :
a.
Telocentric
b.
Sub-metacentric
c.
Acrocentric
d.
Metacentric
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Q109 mcq
Match List - I with List - II regarding plant anatomy.
a.
Lenticels (iii), Cork cambium (i), Secondary cortex (iv), Cork (ii)
b.
Lenticels (ii), Cork cambium (iii), Secondary cortex (iv), Cork (i)
c.
Lenticels (iv), Cork cambium (ii), Secondary cortex (i), Cork (iii)
d.
Lenticels (iv), Cork cambium (i), Secondary cortex (iii), Cork (ii)
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Q110 mcq
Which of the following is an incorrect statement ?
a.
Microbodies are present both in plant and animal cells.
b.
The perinuclear space forms a barrier between the materials present inside the nucleus and that of the cytoplasm.
c.
Nuclear pores act as passages for proteins and RNA molecules in both directions between nucleus and cytoplasm.
d.
Mature sieve tube elements possess a conspicuous nucleus and usual cytoplasmic organelles.
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Q111 mcq
Gemmae are present in :
a.
Pteridophytes
b.
Some Gymnosperms
c.
Some Liverworts
d.
Mosses
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Q112 mcq
Which of the following plants is monoecious ?
a.
Chara
b.
Marchantia polymorpha
c.
Cycas circinalis
d.
Carica papaya
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Q113 mcq
Which of the following is not an application of PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) ?
a.
Gene amplification
b.
Purification of isolated protein
c.
Detection of gene mutation
d.
Molecular diagnosis
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Q114 mcq
The production of gametes by the parents, formation of zygotes, the F1 and F2 plants, can be understood from a diagram called :
a.
Punch square
b.
Punnett square
c.
Net square
d.
Bullet square
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Q115 mcq
A typical angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is :
a.
7-nucleate and 8-celled
b.
7-nucleate and 7-celled
c.
8-nucleate and 8-celled
d.
8-nucleate and 7-celled
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Q116 mcq
The term used for transfer of pollen grains from anthers of one plant to stigma of a different plant which, during pollination, brings genetically different types of pollen grains to stigma, is :
a.
Geitonogamy
b.
Chasmogamy
c.
Cleistogamy
d.
Xenogamy
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Q117 mcq
The factor that leads to Founder effect in a population is :
a.
Genetic recombination
b.
Mutation
c.
Genetic drift
d.
Natural selection
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Q118 mcq
Which of the following are not secondary metabolites in plants ?
a.
Amino acids, glucose
b.
Vinblastin, curcumin
c.
Rubber, gums
d.
Morphine, codeine
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Q119 mcq
The plant hormone used to destroy weeds in a field is :
a.
NAA
b.
2, 4-D
c.
IBA
d.
IAA
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Q120 mcq
Amensalism can be represented as :
a.
Species A (+) ; Species B (+)
b.
Species A (-) ; Species B (-)
c.
Species A (+) ; Species B (0)
d.
Species A (-) ; Species B (0)
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Q121 mcq
Which of the following algae contains mannitol as reserve food material ?
a.
Gracilaria
b.
Volvox
c.
Ulothrix
d.
Ectocarpus
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Q122 mcq
The amount of nutrients, such as carbon, nitrogen, phosphorus and calcium present in the soil at any given time, is referred as :
a.
Climax community
b.
Standing state
c.
Standing crop
d.
Climax
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Q123 mcq
Which of the following algae produce Carrageen ?
a.
Brown algae
b.
Red algae
c.
Blue-green algae
d.
Green algae
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Q124 mcq
In the equation GPP−R=NPP, R represents :
a.
Retardation factor
b.
Environment factor
c.
Respiration losses
d.
Radiant energy
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Q125 mcq
The site of perception of light in plants during photoperiodism is :
a.
Stem
b.
Axillary bud
c.
Leaf
d.
Shoot apex
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Q126 mcq
Diadelphous stamens are found in :
a.
Citrus
b.
Pea
c.
China rose and citrus
d.
China rose
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Q126 mcq
Diadelphous stamens are found in :
a.
Citrus
b.
Pea
c.
China rose and citrus
d.
China rose
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Q127 mcq
Match List - I with List - II regarding tissue classification.
a.
Cells with active cell division capacity (ii), Tissue having all cells similar in structure and function (iv), Tissue having different types of cells (i), Dead cells with highly thickened walls and narrow lumen (iii)
b.
Cells with active cell division capacity (i), Tissue having all cells similar in structure and function (ii), Tissue having different types of cells (iii), Dead cells with highly thickened walls and narrow lumen (iv)
c.
Cells with active cell division capacity (iii), Tissue having all cells similar in structure and function (ii), Tissue having different types of cells (iv), Dead cells with highly thickened walls and narrow lumen (i)
d.
Cells with active cell division capacity (ii), Tissue having all cells similar in structure and function (iv), Tissue having different types of cells (iii), Dead cells with highly thickened walls and narrow lumen (i)
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Q127 mcq
Match List - I with List - II. (a) Cells with active cell division capacity (i) Vascular tissues (b) Tissue having all cells similar in structure and function (ii) Meristematic tissue (c) Tissue having different types of cells (iii) Sclereids (d) Dead cells with highly thickened walls and narrow lumen (iv) Simple tissue
a.
(1)(iv)(iii)(ii)(i)
b.
(2)(i)(ii)(iii)(iv)
c.
(3)(iii)(ii)(iv)(i)
d.
(4)(ii)(iv)(i)(iii)
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Q128 mcq
Match List - I with List - II regarding cellular organelles.
a.
Cristae (i), Thylakoids (iv), Centromere (iii), Cisternae (ii)
b.
Cristae (iii), Thylakoids (iv), Centromere (i), Cisternae (ii)
c.
Cristae (ii), Thylakoids (iii), Centromere (iv), Cisternae (i)
d.
Cristae (iv), Thylakoids (iii), Centromere (ii), Cisternae (i)
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Q128 mcq
Match List - I with List - II. (a) Cristae (i) Primary constriction in chromosome (b) Thylakoids (ii) Disc-shaped sacs in Golgi apparatus (c) Centromere (iii) Infoldings in mitochondria (d) Cisternae (iv) Flattened membranous sacs in stroma of plastids
a.
(1)(i)(iv)(iii)(ii)
b.
(2)(iii)(iv)(i)(ii)
c.
(3)(ii)(iii)(iv)(i)
d.
(4)(iv)(iii)(ii)(i)
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Q129 mcq
Which of the following statements is not correct?
a.
Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally upright.
b.
Pyramid of energy is always upright.
c.
Pyramid of numbers in a grassland ecosystem is upright.
d.
Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally inverted.
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Q131 mcq
The first stable product of CO2 fixation in sorghum is :
a.
Oxaloacetic acid
b.
Succinic acid
c.
Phosphoglyceric acid
d.
Pyruvic acid
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Q132 mcq
Match List - I with List - II. (a) Protoplast fusion (i) Totipotency (b) Plant tissue culture (ii) Pomato (c) Meristem culture (iii) Somaclones (d) Micropropagation (iv) Virus free plants
a.
(1)(ii)(i)(iv)(iii)
b.
(2)(iii)(iv)(i)(ii)
c.
(3)(iv)(iii)(ii)(i)
d.
(4)(iii)(iv)(ii)(i)
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Q133 mcq
During the purification process for recombinant DNA technology, addition of chilled ethanol precipitates out :
a.
DNA
b.
Histones
c.
Polysaccharides
d.
RNA
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Q134 mcq
Which of the following is a correct sequence of steps in a PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) ?
a.
Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
b.
Extension, Denaturation, Annealing
c.
Annealing, Denaturation, Extension
d.
Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
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Q135 mcq
Match List - I with List - II. (a) Cohesion (i) More attraction in liquid phase (b) Adhesion (ii) Mutual attraction among water molecules (c) Surface tension (iii) Water loss in liquid phase (d) Guttation (iv) Attraction towards polar surfaces
a.
(1)(iv)(iii)(ii)(i)
b.
(2)(iii)(i)(iv)(ii)
c.
(3)(ii)(i)(iv)(iii)
d.
(4)(ii)(iv)(i)(iii)
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Q136 mcq
DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences in some specific regions in DNA sequence, called as :
a.
Repetitive DNA
b.
Single nucleotides
c.
Polymorphic DNA
d.
Satellite DNA
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Q137 mcq
Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
a.
In ETC (Electron Transport Chain), one molecule of NADH gives rise to 2 ATP molecules, and one FADH2 gives rise to 3 ATP molecules.
b.
ATP is synthesized through complex V.
c.
Oxidation-reduction reactions produce proton gradient in respiration.
d.
During aerobic respiration, role of oxygen is limited to the terminal stage.
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Q138 mcq
Plasmid pBR322 has PstI restriction enzyme site within gene ampR that confers ampicillin resistance. If this enzyme is used for inserting a gene for β-galactoside production and the recombinant plasmid is inserted in an E.coli strain :
a.
the transformed cells will have the ability to resist ampicillin as well as produce β-galactoside.
b.
it will lead to lysis of host cell.
c.
it will be able to produce a novel protein with dual ability.
d.
it will not be able to confer ampicillin resistance to the host cell.
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Q139 mcq
In some members of which of the following pairs of families, pollen grains retain their viability for months after release ?
a.
Poaceae ; Leguminosae
b.
Poaceae ; Solanaceae
c.
Rosaceae ; Leguminosae
d.
Poaceae ; Rosaceae
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Q139 mcq
In some members of which of the following pairs of families, pollen grains retain their viability for months after release?
a.
Poaceae ; Leguminosae
b.
Poaceae ; Solanaceae
c.
Rosaceae ; Leguminosae
d.
Poaceae ; Rosaceae
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Q140 mcq
Which of the following statements is correct ?
a.
Fusion of protoplasms between two motile or non-motile gametes is called plasmogamy.
b.
Organisms that depend on living plants are called saprophytes.
c.
Some of the organisms can fix atmospheric nitrogen in specialized cells called sheath cells.
d.
Fusion of two cells is called Karyogamy.
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Q140 mcq
Which of the following statements is correct?
a.
Fusion of protoplasms between two motile or non-motile gametes is called plasmogamy.
b.
Organisms that depend on living plants are called saprophytes.
c.
Some of the organisms can fix atmospheric nitrogen in specialized cells called sheath cells.
d.
Fusion of two cells is called Karyogamy.
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Q141 mcq
Identify the correct statement.
a.
RNA polymerase binds with Rho factor to terminate the process of transcription in bacteria.
b.
The coding strand in a transcription unit is copied to an mRNA.
c.
Split gene arrangement is characteristic of prokaryotes.
d.
In capping, methyl guanosine triphosphate is added to the 3' end of hnRNA.
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Q141 mcq
Identify the correct statement.
a.
RNA polymerase binds with Rho factor to terminate the process of transcription in bacteria.
b.
The coding strand in a transcription unit is copied to an mRNA.
c.
Split gene arrangement is characteristic of prokaryotes.
d.
In capping, methyl guanosine triphosphate is added to the 3' end of hnRNA.
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Q142 mcq
Match List - I with List - II regarding cell cycle phases.
a.
(a) S phase (i) Proteins are synthesized, (b) G2 phase (ii) Inactive phase, (c) Quiescent stage (iii) Interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA replication, (d) G1 phase (iv) DNA replication
b.
(1) (iv)(ii)(iii)(i), (2) (iv)(i)(ii)(iii), (3) (ii)(iv)(iii)(i), (4) (iii)(ii)(i)(iv)
c.
Not applicable - structure is a matrix match.
d.
Not applicable - structure is a matrix match.
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Q144 mcq
Now a days it is possible to detect the mutated gene causing cancer by allowing radioactive probe to hybridise its complimentary DNA in a clone of cells, followed by its detection using autoradiography because :
a.
mutated gene completely and clearly appears on a photographic film.
b.
mutated gene does not appear on a photographic film as the probe has no complimentarity with it.
c.
mutated gene does not appear on photographic film as the probe has complimentarity with it.
d.
mutated gene partially appears on a photographic film.
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Q145 mcq
In the exponential growth equation Nt = Noert, e represents :
a.
The base of exponential logarithms
b.
The base of natural logarithms
c.
The base of geometric logarithms
d.
The base of number logarithms
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Q146 mcq
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
a.
Stroma lamellae have PS I only and lack NADP reductase.
b.
Grana lamellae have both PS I and PS II.
c.
Cyclic photophosphorylation involves both PS I and PS II.
d.
Both ATP and NADPH + H+ are synthesized during non-cyclic photophosphorylation.
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Q147 mcq
Match Column - I with Column - II regarding nitrogen cycle.
a.
(a) Nitrococcus (i) Denitrification, (b) Rhizobium (ii) Conversion of ammonia to nitrite, (c) Thiobacillus (iii) Conversion of nitrite to nitrate, (d) Nitrobacter (iv) Conversion of atmospheric nitrogen to ammonia
b.
(1) (i)(ii)(iii)(iv), (2) (iii)(i)(iv)(ii), (3) (iv)(iii)(ii)(i), (4) (ii)(iv)(i)(iii)
c.
Not applicable.
d.
Not applicable.
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Q148 mcq
Select the correct pair.
a.
In dicot leaves, vascular bundles are surrounded by large thick-walled cells - Conjunctive tissue
b.
Cells of medullary rays that form part of cambial ring - Interfascicular cambium
c.
Loose parenchyma cells rupturing the epidermis and forming a lens-shaped opening in bark - Spongy parenchyma
d.
Large colorless empty cells in the epidermis of grass leaves - Subsidiary cells
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Q150 mcq
What is the role of RNA polymerase III in the process of transcription in eukaryotes?
a.
Transcribes tRNA, 5s rRNA and snRNA
b.
Transcribes precursor of mRNA
c.
Transcribes only snRNAs
d.
Transcribes rRNAs (28S, 18S and 5.8S)
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Q150 mcq
What is the role of RNA polymerase III in the process of transcription in eukaryotes ?
a.
Transcribes tRNA, 5s rRNA and snRNA
b.
Transcribes precursor of mRNA
c.
Transcribes only snRNAs
d.
Transcribes rRNAs (28S, 18S and 5.8S)
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Q151 mcq
Sphincter of oddi is present at :
a.
Junction of hepato-pancreatic duct and duodenum
b.
Gastro-oesophageal junction
c.
Junction of jejunum and duodenum
d.
Ileo-caecal junction
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Q151 mcq
Sphincter of oddi is present at :
a.
Junction of hepato-pancreatic duct and duodenum
b.
Gastro-oesophageal junction
c.
Junction of jejunum and duodenum
d.
Ileo-caecal junction
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Q152 mcq
Receptors for sperm binding in mammals are present on :
a.
Vitelline membrane
b.
Perivitelline space
c.
Zona pellucida
d.
Corona radiata
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Q152 mcq
Receptors for sperm binding in mammals are present on :
a.
Vitelline membrane
b.
Perivitelline space
c.
Zona pellucida
d.
Corona radiata
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Q153 mcq
Match List - I with List - II. (a) Metamerism (i) Coelenterata (b) Canal system (ii) Ctenophora (c) Comb plates (iii) Annelida (d) Cnidoblasts (iv) Porifera
a.
(1)(iii)(iv)(i)(ii)
b.
(2)(iii)(iv)(ii)(i)
c.
(3)(iv)(i)(ii)(iii)
d.
(4)(iv)(iii)(i)(ii)
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Q154 mcq
Match List - I with List - II. (a) Aspergillus niger (i) Acetic Acid (b) Acetobacter aceti (ii) Lactic Acid (c) Clostridium butylicum (iii) Citric Acid (d) Lactobacillus (iv) Butyric Acid
a.
(1)(i)(ii)(iii)(iv)
b.
(2)(ii)(iii)(i)(iv)
c.
(3)(iv)(ii)(i)(iii)
d.
(4)(iii)(i)(iv)(ii)
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Q155 mcq
The fruit fly has 8 chromosomes (2n) in each cell. During interphase of Mitosis if the number of chromosomes at G1 phase is 8, what would be the number of chromosomes after S phase?
a.
16
b.
4
c.
32
d.
8
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Q156 mcq
Succus entericus is referred to as :
a.
Intestinal juice
b.
Gastric juice
c.
Chyme
d.
Pancreatic juice
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Q157 mcq
The centriole undergoes duplication during :
a.
Prophase
b.
Metaphase
c.
G2 phase
d.
S-phase
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Q158 mcq
Which stage of meiotic prophase shows terminalisation of chiasmata as its distinctive feature?
a.
Zygotene
b.
Diakinesis
c.
Pachytene
d.
Leptotene
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Q160 mcq
The partial pressures (in mm Hg) of oxygen (O2) and carbon dioxide (CO2) at alveoli (the site of diffusion) are :
a.
pO2=40 and pCO2=45
b.
pO2=95 and pCO2=40
c.
pO2=159 and pCO2=0.3
d.
pO2=104 and pCO2=40
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Q161 mcq
Which one of the following organisms bears hollow and pneumatic long bones?
a.
Hemidactylus
b.
Macropus
c.
Ornithorhynchus
d.
Neophron
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Q162 mcq
Dobson units are used to measure thickness of :
a.
Stratosphere
b.
Ozone
c.
Troposphere
d.
CFCs
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Q164 mcq
Which enzyme is responsible for the conversion of inactive fibrinogens to fibrins ?
a.
Renin
b.
Epinephrine
c.
Thrombokinase
d.
Thrombin
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Q165 mcq
The organelles that are included in the endomembrane system are :
a.
Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex, Lysosomes and Vacuoles
b.
Golgi complex, Mitochondria, Ribosomes and Lysosomes
c.
Golgi complex, Endoplasmic reticulum, Mitochondria and Lysosomes
d.
Endoplasmic reticulum, Mitochondria, Ribosomes and Lysosomes
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Q166 mcq
During the process of gene amplification using PCR, if very high temperature is not maintained in the beginning, then which of the following steps of PCR will be affected first ?
a.
Extension
b.
Denaturation
c.
Ligation
d.
Annealing
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Q166 mcq
During the process of gene amplification using PCR, if very high temperature is not maintained in the beginning, then which of the following steps of PCR will be affected first?
a.
Extension
b.
Denaturation
c.
Ligation
d.
Annealing
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Q167 mcq
Which is the “Only enzyme” that has “Capability” to catalyse Initiation, Elongation and Termination in the process of transcription in prokaryotes ?
a.
DNA dependent RNA polymerase
b.
DNA Ligase
c.
DNase
d.
DNA dependent DNA polymerase
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Q167 mcq
Which is the “Only enzyme” that has “Capability” to catalyse Initiation, Elongation and Termination in the process of transcription in prokaryotes?
a.
DNA dependent RNA polymerase
b.
DNA Ligase
c.
DNase
d.
DNA dependent DNA polymerase
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Q168 mcq
Erythropoietin hormone which stimulates R.B.C. formation is produced by :
a.
The cells of rostral adenohypophysis
b.
The cells of bone marrow
c.
Juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney
d.
Alpha cells of pancreas
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Q168 mcq
Erythropoietin hormone which stimulates R.B.C. formation is produced by:
a.
The cells of rostral adenohypophysis
b.
The cells of bone marrow
c.
Juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney
d.
Alpha cells of pancreas
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Q169 mcq
Chronic auto immune disorder affecting neuro muscular junction leading to fatigue, weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscle is called as :
a.
Muscular dystrophy
b.
Myasthenia gravis
c.
Gout
d.
Arthritis
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Q169 mcq
Chronic auto immune disorder affecting neuro muscular junction leading to fatigue, weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscle is called as:
a.
Muscular dystrophy
b.
Myasthenia gravis
c.
Gout
d.
Arthritis
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Q170 mcq
Which of the following characteristics is incorrect with respect to cockroach?
a.
Hypopharynx lies within the cavity enclosed by the mouth parts.
b.
In females, 7th-9th sterna together form a genital pouch.
c.
10th abdominal segment in both sexes, bears a pair of anal cerci.
d.
A ring of gastric caeca is present at the junction of midgut and hind gut.
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Q171 mcq
If Adenine makes 30% of the DNA molecule, what will be the percentage of Thymine, Guanine and Cytosine in it?
a.
T : 20 ; G : 20 ; C : 30
b.
T : 30 ; G : 20 ; C : 20
c.
T : 20 ; G : 25 ; C : 25
d.
T : 20 ; G : 30 ; C : 20
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Q172 mcq
For effective treatment of the disease, early diagnosis and understanding its pathophysiology is very important. Which of the following molecular diagnostic techniques is very useful for early detection?
a.
Southern Blotting Technique
b.
ELISA Technique
c.
Hybridization Technique
d.
Western Blotting Technique
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Q173 mcq
Identify the incorrect pair.
a.
Toxin - Abrin
b.
Lectins - Concanavalin A
c.
Drugs - Ricin
d.
Alkaloids- Codeine
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Q174 mcq
Veneral diseases can spread through: (a) Using sterile needles (b) Transfusion of blood from infected person (c) Infected mother to foetus (d) Kissing (e) Inheritance. Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
a.
(b), (c) and (d) only
b.
(b) and (c) only
c.
(a) and (c) only
d.
(a), (b) and (c) only
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Q175 mcq
With regard to insulin choose correct options. (a) C-peptide is not present in mature insulin. (b) The insulin produced by rDNA technology has C-peptide. (c) The pro-insulin has C-peptide. (d) A-peptide and B-peptide of insulin are interconnected by disulphide bridges. Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
a.
(b) and (c) only
b.
(a), (c) and (d) only
c.
(a) and (d) only
d.
(b) and (d) only
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Q176 mcq
Which of the following statements wrongly represents the nature of smooth muscle?
a.
They are involuntary muscles
b.
Communication among the cells is performed by intercalated discs
c.
These muscles are present in the wall of blood vessels
d.
These muscle have no striations
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Q177 mcq
Select the favourable conditions required for the formation of oxyhaemoglobin at the alveoli.
a.
Low pO2, high pCO2, more H+, higher temperature
b.
High pO2, high pCO2, less H+, higher temperature
c.
Low pO2, low pCO2, more H+, higher temperature
d.
High pO2, low pCO2, less H+, lower temperature
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Q178 mcq
In a cross between a male and female, both heterozygous for sickle cell anaemia gene, what percentage of the progeny will be diseased?
a.
75%
b.
25%
c.
100%
d.
50%
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Q179 mcq
Persons with ‘AB’ blood group are called as “Universal recipients”. This is due to:
a.
Absence of antigens A and B in plasma
b.
Presence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, on RBCs
c.
Absence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, in plasma
d.
Absence of antigens A and B on the surface of RBCs
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Q180 mcq
Which of the following is not an objective of Biofortification in crops?
a.
Improve resistance to diseases
b.
Improve vitamin content
c.
Improve micronutrient and mineral content
d.
Improve protein content
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Q180 mcq
Which of the following is not an objective of Biofortification in crops ?
a.
Improve resistance to diseases
b.
Improve vitamin content
c.
Improve micronutrient and mineral content
d.
Improve protein content
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Q181 mcq
A specific recognition sequence identified by endonucleases to make cuts at specific positions within the DNA is:
a.
Okazaki sequences
b.
Palindromic Nucleotide sequences
c.
Poly(A) tail sequences
d.
Degenerate primer sequence
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Q181 mcq
A specific recognition sequence identified by endonucleases to make cuts at specific positions within the DNA is :
a.
Okazaki sequences
b.
Palindromic Nucleotide sequences
c.
Poly(A) tail sequences
d.
Degenerate primer sequence
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Q182 mcq
Match the following: (a) Physalia (i) Pearl oyster, (b) Limulus (ii) Portuguese Man of War, (c) Ancylostoma (iii) Living fossil, (d) Pinctada (iv) Hookworm.
a.
(iv)(i)(iii)(ii)
b.
(ii)(iii)(iv)(i)
c.
(i)(iv)(iii)(ii)
d.
(ii)(iii)(i)(iv)
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Q182 mcq
Match the following : (a) Physalia (i) Pearl oyster (b) Limulus (ii) Portuguese Man of War (c) Ancylostoma (iii) Living fossil (d) Pinctada (iv) Hookworm
a.
(iv)(i)(iii)(ii)
b.
(ii)(iii)(iv)(i)
c.
(i)(iv)(iii)(ii)
d.
(ii)(iii)(i)(iv)
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Q183 mcq
Which one of the following is an example of Hormone releasing IUD ?
a.
LNG 20
b.
Cu 7
c.
Multiload 375
d.
CuT
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Q183 mcq
Which one of the following is an example of Hormone releasing IUD?
a.
LNG 20
b.
Cu 7
c.
Multiload 375
d.
CuT
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Q184 mcq
Which one of the following belongs to the family Muscidae?
a.
Grasshopper
b.
Cockroach
c.
House fly
d.
Fire fly
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Q184 mcq
Which one of the following belongs to the family Muscidae ?
a.
Grasshopper
b.
Cockroach
c.
House fly
d.
Fire fly
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Q185 mcq
Which of the following RNAs is not required for the synthesis of protein ?
a.
tRNA
b.
rRNA
c.
siRNA
d.
mRNA
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Q186 mcq
Statement I: The codon ‘AUG’ codes for methionine and phenylalanine. Statement II: ‘AAA’ and ‘AAG’ both codons code for the amino acid lysine.
a.
Both Statement I and Statement II are false
b.
Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
c.
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true
d.
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
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Q187 mcq
During muscular contraction which of the following events occur? (a) ‘H’ zone disappears (b) ‘A’ band widens (c) ‘I’ band reduces in width (d) Myosine hydrolyzes ATP, releasing the ADP and Pi (e) Z-lines attached to actins are pulled inwards
a.
(a), (b), (c), (d) only
b.
(b), (c), (d), (e) only
c.
(b), (d), (e), (a) only
d.
(a), (c), (d), (e) only
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Q188 mcq
Match List - I with List - II. (a) Allen's Rule (b) Physiological adaptation (c) Behavioural adaptation (d) Biochemical adaptation
a.
(iv)(i)(iii)(ii)
b.
(iv)(i)(ii)(iii)
c.
(iv)(iii)(ii)(i)
d.
(iv)(ii)(iii)(i)
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Q189 mcq
Identify the types of cell junctions that help to stop the leakage of the substances across a tissue and facilitation of communication with neighbouring cells via rapid transfer of ions and molecules.
a.
Tight junctions and Gap junctions, respectively.
b.
Adhering junctions and Tight junctions, respectively.
c.
Adhering junctions and Gap junctions, respectively.
d.
Gap junctions and Adhering junctions, respectively.
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Q190 mcq
Match List - I with List - II. (a) Scapula (b) Cranium (c) Sternum (d) Vertebral column
a.
(ii)(iii)(iv)(i)
b.
(iv)(ii)(iii)(i)
c.
(iv)(iii)(ii)(i)
d.
(i)(iii)(ii)(iv)
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Q191 mcq
Match List - I with List - II. (a) Filariasis (b) Amoebiasis (c) Pneumonia (d) Ringworm
a.
(iii)(iv)(i)(ii)
b.
(i)(ii)(iv)(iii)
c.
(ii)(iii)(i)(iv)
d.
(iv)(i)(iii)(ii)
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Q192 mcq
Which of the following is not a step in Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer Technology (MOET) ?
a.
Cow yields about 6-8 eggs at a time
b.
Cow is fertilized by artificial insemination
c.
Fertilized eggs are transferred to surrogate mothers at 8-32 cell stage
d.
Cow is administered hormone having LH like activity for super ovulation
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Q193 mcq
Following are the statements with reference to ‘lipids’. (a) Lipids having only single bonds are called unsaturated fatty acids. (b) Lecithin is a phospholipid. (c) Trihydroxy propane is glycerol. (d) Palmitic acid has 20 carbon atoms including carboxyl carbon. (e) Arachidonic acid has 16 carbon atoms.
a.
(c) and (d) only
b.
(b) and (c) only
c.
(b) and (e) only
d.
(a) and (b) only
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Q194 mcq
Assertion (A): A person goes to high altitude and experiences ‘altitude sickness’ with symptoms like breathing difficulty and heart palpitations. Reason (R): Due to low atmospheric pressure at high altitude, the body does not get sufficient oxygen.
a.
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
b.
(A) is true but (R) is false
c.
(A) is false but (R) is true
d.
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
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Q194 mcq
Assertion (A) : A person goes to high altitude and experiences ‘altitude sickness’ with symptoms like breathing difficulty and heart palpitations. Reason (R) : Due to low atmospheric pressure at high altitude, the body does not get sufficient oxygen. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
a.
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
b.
(A) is true but (R) is false
c.
(A) is false but (R) is true
d.
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
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Q195 mcq
Which one of the following statements about Histones is wrong?
a.
The pH of histones is slightly acidic.
b.
Histones are rich in amino acids - Lysine and Arginine.
c.
Histones carry positive charge in the side chain.
d.
Histones are organized to form a unit of 8 molecules.
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Q196 mcq
Match List - I with List - II: (a) Adaptive radiation (i) Selection of resistant varieties due to excessive use of herbicides and pesticides (b) Convergent evolution (ii) Bones of forelimbs in Man and Whale (c) Divergent evolution (iii) Wings of Butterfly and Bird (d) Evolution by anthropogenic action (iv) Darwin Finches. Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
a.
(iii)(ii)(i)(iv)
b.
(ii)(i)(iv)(iii)
c.
(i)(iv)(iii)(ii)
d.
(iv)(iii)(ii)(i)
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Q197 mcq
Following are the statements about prostomium of earthworm. (a) It serves as a covering for mouth. (b) It helps to open cracks in the soil into which it can crawl. (c) It is one of the sensory structures. (d) It is the first body segment. Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
a.
(a), (b) and (d) are correct
b.
(a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct
c.
(b) and (c) are correct
d.
(a), (b) and (c) are correct
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Q198 mcq
Which of these is not an important component of initiation of parturition in humans?
a.
Synthesis of prostaglandins
b.
Release of Oxytocin
c.
Release of Prolactin
d.
Increase in estrogen and progesterone ratio
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Q199 mcq
The Adenosine deaminase deficiency results into:
a.
Parkinson’s disease
b.
Digestive disorder
c.
Addison’s disease
d.
Dysfunction of Immune system
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Q200 mcq
Which of the following secretes the hormone, relaxin, during the later phase of pregnancy?
a.
Corpus luteum
b.
Foetus
c.
Uterus
d.
Graafian follicle
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