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NEET 2021 CODE M1

2021 · 111 questions · First 10 Solutions Free
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Q99 mcq
Match List-I with List-II: (a) 2SO2 + O2 -> 2SO3, (b) HOCl -> OH + Cl, (c) CaCO3 + H2SO4 -> CaSO4 + H2O + CO2, (d) NO2 -> NO + O.
a.
(1) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
b.
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
c.
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) Correct Answer
d.
(4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
a-iv (Tropospheric pollution/SO3 formation), b-iii (Ozone depletion by Cl radicals), c-i (Acid rain marble damage), d-ii (Photochemical smog/NO2 cycle).
Q101 mcq
Which of the following plants is monoecious?
a.
Carica papaya
b.
Chara Correct Answer
c.
Marchantia polymorpha
d.
Cycas circinalis
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Chara is a monoecious alga where male (antheridium) and female (oogonium) sex organs are on the same plant body.
Q101 mcq
Which of the following plants is monoecious?
a.
Carica papaya
b.
Chara Correct Answer
c.
Marchantia polymorpha
d.
Cycas circinalis
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Monoecious plants have male and female sex organs on the same plant body. Chara is monoecious, whereas the others listed are dioecious.
Q102 mcq
A typical angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is:
a.
8-nucleate and 7-celled Correct Answer
b.
7-nucleate and 8-celled
c.
7-nucleate and 7-celled
d.
8-nucleate and 8-celled
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
A typical angiosperm embryo sac contains 7 cells (3 antipodals, 2 synergids, 1 egg cell, and 1 central cell) but 8 nuclei (because the central cell is binucleate).
Q103 mcq
Gemmae are present in
a.
Mosses
b.
Pteridophytes
c.
Some Gymnosperms
d.
Some Liverworts Correct Answer
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Gemmae are green, multicellular asexual buds produced by some liverworts, such as Marchantia.
Q104 mcq
When the centromere is situated in the middle of two equal arms of chromosomes, the chromosome is referred as:
a.
Metacentric Correct Answer
b.
Telocentric
c.
Sub-metacentric
d.
Acrocentric
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
A chromosome with a centromere in the middle, creating two equal arms, is termed metacentric.
Q105 mcq
Which of the following stages of meiosis involves division of centromere?
a.
Metaphase I
b.
Metaphase II
c.
Anaphase II Correct Answer
d.
Telophase II
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
The division of the centromere occurs specifically during Anaphase II of meiosis.
Q106 mcq
The first stable product of CO2 fixation in Sorghum is
a.
Pyruvic acid
b.
Oxaloacetic acid Correct Answer
c.
Succinic acid
d.
Phosphoglyceric acid
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Sorghum is a C4 plant, and the first stable product of CO2 fixation in C4 plants is oxaloacetic acid.
Q107 mcq
The factor that leads to Founder effect in a population is:
a.
Natural selection
b.
Genetic recombination
c.
Mutation
d.
Genetic drift Correct Answer
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
The founder effect is a phenomenon observed when a small group of individuals becomes isolated and establishes a new population, which is a form of genetic drift.
Q108 mcq
Which of the following is an incorrect statement?
a.
Mature sieve tube elements possess a conspicuous nucleus and usual cytoplasmic organelles Correct Answer
b.
Microbodies are present both in plant and animal cells
c.
The perinuclear space forms a barrier between the materials present inside the nucleus and that of the cytoplasm
d.
Nuclear pores act as passages for proteins and RNA molecules in both directions between nucleus and cytoplasm
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Mature sieve tube elements lack a nucleus, making statement (1) incorrect.
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Q108 mcq
Which of the following is an incorrect statement?
a.
Mature sieve tube elements possess a conspicuous nucleus and usual cytoplasmic organelles
b.
Microbodies are present both in plant and animal cells
c.
The perinuclear space forms a barrier between the materials present inside the nucleus and that of the cytoplasm
d.
Nuclear pores act as passages for proteins and RNA molecules in both directions between nucleus and cytoplasm
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Q109 mcq
Amensalism can be represented as:
a.
Species A (–); Species B (0)
b.
Species A (+); Species B (+)
c.
Species A (–); Species B (–)
d.
Species A (+); Species B (0)
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Q109 mcq
Amensalism can be represented as:
a.
Species A (-); Species B (0)
b.
Species A (+); Species B (+)
c.
Species A (-); Species B (-)
d.
Species A (+); Species B (0)
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Q110 mcq
The amount of nutrients, such as carbon, nitrogen, phosphorus and calcium present in the soil at any given time, is referred as :
a.
Climax
b.
Climax community
c.
Standing state
d.
Standing crop
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Q111 mcq
Which of the following algae contains mannitol as reserve food material?
a.
Ectocarpus
b.
Gracilaria
c.
Volvox
d.
Ulothrix
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Q112 mcq
Inspite of interspecific competition in nature, which mechanism the competing species might have evolved for their survival?
a.
Resource partitioning
b.
Competitive release
c.
Mutualism
d.
Predation
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Q113 mcq
Genera like Selaginella and Salvinia produce two kinds of spores. Such plants are known as:
a.
Homosorus
b.
Heterosorus
c.
Homosporous
d.
Heterosporous
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Q114 mcq
The site of perception of light in plants during photoperiodism is
a.
Shoot apex
b.
Stem
c.
Axillary bud
d.
Leaf
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Q115 mcq
Plants follow different pathways in response to environment or phases of life to form different kinds of structures. This ability is called
a.
Elasticity
b.
Flexibility
c.
Plasticity
d.
Maturity
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Q115 mcq
Plants follow different pathways in response to environment or phases of life to form different kinds of structures. This ability is called:
a.
Elasticity
b.
Flexibility
c.
Plasticity
d.
Maturity
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Q118 mcq
DNA strands on a gel stained with ethidium bromide when viewed under UV radiation, appear as:
a.
Yellow bands
b.
Bright orange bands
c.
Dark red bands
d.
Bright blue bands
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Q119 mcq
The term used for transfer of pollen grains from anthers of one plant to stigma of a different plant which, during pollination, brings genetically different types of pollen grains to stigma, is:
a.
Xenogamy
b.
Geitonogamy
c.
Chasmogamy
d.
Cleistogamy
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Q120 mcq
Which of the following algae produce Carrageen?
a.
Green algae
b.
Brown algae
c.
Red algae
d.
Blue-green algae
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Q121 mcq
Which of the following statements is not correct?
a.
Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally inverted.
b.
Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally upright.
c.
Pyramid of energy is always upright.
d.
Pyramid of numbers in a grassland ecosystem is upright.
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Q122 mcq
In the equation GPP – R = NPP, R represents:
a.
Radiant energy
b.
Retardation factor
c.
Environmental factor
d.
Respiration losses
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Q123 mcq
Diadelphous stamens are found in:
a.
China rose
b.
Citrus
c.
Pea
d.
China rose and citrus
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Q123 mcq
Diadelphous stamens are found in
a.
China rose
b.
Citrus
c.
Pea
d.
China rose and citrus
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Q124 mcq
When gene targeting involving gene amplification is attempted in an individual's tissue to treat disease, it is known as:
a.
Biopiracy
b.
Gene therapy
c.
Molecular diagnosis
d.
Safety testing
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Q124 mcq
When gene targetting involving gene amplification is attempted in an individual's tissue to treat disease, it is known as :
a.
Biopiracy
b.
Gene therapy
c.
Molecular diagnosis
d.
Safety testing
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Q125 mcq
Match List-I with List-II: List-I: (a) Lenticels (b) Cork cambium (c) Secondary cortex (d) Cork List-II: (i) Phellogen (ii) Suberin deposition (iii) Exchange of gases (iv) Phelloderm
a.
(1) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
b.
(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
c.
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
d.
(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
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Q126 mcq
The production of gametes by the parents, formation of zygotes, the F1 and F2 plants, can be understood from a diagram called :
a.
Bullet square
b.
Punch square
c.
Punnett square
d.
Net square
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Q127 mcq
Which of the following is a correct sequence of steps in a PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)?
a.
Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
b.
Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
c.
Extension, Denaturation, Annealing
d.
Annealing, Denaturation, Extension
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Q128 mcq
Mutations in plant cells can be induced by:
a.
Kinetin
b.
Infrared rays
c.
Gamma rays
d.
Zeatin
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Q129 mcq
Match List-I with List-II: List-I: (a) Protoplast fusion (b) Plant tissue culture (c) Meristem culture (d) Micropropagation List-II: (i) Pomato (ii) Totipotency (iii) Somaclones (iv) Virus free plants
a.
(1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
b.
(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
c.
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
d.
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
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Q130 mcq
During the purification process for recombinant DNA technology, addition of chilled ethanol precipitates out :
a.
RNA
b.
DNA
c.
Histones
d.
Polysaccharides
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Q130 mcq
During the purification process for recombinant DNA technology, addition of chilled ethanol precipitates out :
a.
RNA
b.
DNA
c.
Histones
d.
Polysaccharides
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Q131 mcq
Complete the flow chart on central dogma: DNA --(a)--> DNA --(b)--> mRNA --(c)--> (d)
a.
(a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription; (c)-Transduction; (d)-Protein
b.
(a)-Translation; (b)-Replication; (c)-Transcription;(d)-Transduction
c.
(a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription; (c)-Translation; (d)-Protein
d.
(a)-Transduction; (b)-Translation; (c)-Replication; (d)-Protein
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Q132 mcq
Which of the following is not an application of PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)?
a.
Molecular diagnosis
b.
Gene amplification
c.
Purification of isolated protein
d.
Detection of gene mutation
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Q133 mcq
The plant hormone used to destroy weeds in a field is:
a.
IAA
b.
NAA
c.
2, 4-D
d.
IBA
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Q135 mcq
Which of the following are not secondary metabolites in plants?
a.
Morphine, codeine
b.
Amino acids, glucose
c.
Vinblastin, curcumin
d.
Rubber, gums
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Q136 mcq
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
a.
During aerobic respiration, role of oxygen is limited to the terminal stage
b.
In ETC (Electron Transport Chain), one molecule of NADH + H+ gives rise to 2 ATP molecules, and one FADH2 gives rise to 3 ATP molecules
c.
ATP is synthesized through complex V
d.
Oxidation-reduction reactions produce proton gradient in respiration
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Q137 mcq
Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct answer from options given below: Column-I: (a) Nitrococcus (b) Thiobacillus (c) Nitrobacter (d) Rhizobium Column-II: (i) Conversion of ammonia to nitrite (ii) Denitrification (iii) Conversion of nitrite to nitrate (iv) Conversion of atmospheric nitrogen to ammonia
a.
(1) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
b.
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
c.
(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
d.
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
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Q138 mcq
Match Column-I with Column-II. Select the correct answer from the options given below: Column-I: (a) % K(5) C 1+2+(2) A(9)+1 G1 (b) K(5) C(5) A5 G(2) (c) P3+3 A3+3 G(3) (d) K2+2 C4 A2-4 G(2) Column-II: (i) Brassicaceae (ii) Liliaceae (iii) Fabaceae (iv) Solanaceae
a.
(1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
b.
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
c.
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
d.
(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
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Q139 mcq
Identify the correct statement.
a.
In capping, methyl guanosine triphosphate is added to the 3' end of hnRNA
b.
RNA polymerase binds with Rho factor to terminate the process of transcription in bacteria
c.
The coding strand in a transcription unit is copied to an mRNA
d.
Split gene arrangement is characteristic of prokaryotes
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Q140 mcq
Which of the following statements is correct?
a.
Fusion of two cells is called Karyogamy
b.
Fusion of protoplasms between two motile or non-motile gametes is called plasmogamy
c.
Organisms that depend on living plants are called saprophytes
d.
Some of the organisms can fix atmospheric nitrogen in specialized cells called sheath cells
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Q141 mcq
Select the correct pair.
a.
Large colorless empty cells in the epidermis of grass leaves - Subsidiary cells
b.
In dicot leaves, vascular bundles are surrounded by large thick-walled cells - Conjunctive tissue
c.
Cells of medullary rays that form part of cambial ring - Interfascicular cambium
d.
Loose parenchyma cells rupturing the epidermis and forming a lens shaped opening in bark - Spongy parenchyma
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Q142 mcq
DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences in some specific regions in DNA sequence, called as
a.
Satellite DNA
b.
Repetitive DNA
c.
Single nucleotides
d.
Polymorphic DNA
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Q142 mcq
DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences in some specific regions in DNA sequence, called as
a.
Satellite DNA
b.
Repetitive DNA
c.
Single nucleotides
d.
Polymorphic DNA
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Q143 mcq
In some members of which of the following pairs of families, pollen grains retain their viability for months after release?
a.
Poaceae ; Rosaceae
b.
Poaceae ; Leguminosae
c.
Poaceae ; Solanaceae
d.
Rosaceae ; Leguminosae
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Q144 mcq
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
a.
Both ATP and NADPH + H+ are synthesized during non-cyclic photophosphorylation
b.
Stroma lamellae have PS I only and lack NADP reductase
c.
Grana lamellae have both PS I and PS II
d.
Cyclic photophosphorylation involves both PS I and PS II
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Q145 mcq
What is the role of RNA polymerase III in the process of transcription in eukaryotes?
a.
Transcribes rRNAs (28S, 18S and 5.8S)
b.
Transcribes tRNA, 5s rRNA and snRNA
c.
Transcribes precursor of mRNA
d.
Transcribes only snRNAs
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Q146 mcq
In the exponential growth equation Nt = N0ert, e represents
a.
The base of number logarithms
b.
The base of exponential logarithms
c.
The base of natural logarithms
d.
The base of geometric logarithms
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Q147 mcq
Now a days it is possible to detect the mutated gene causing cancer by allowing radioactive probe to hybridise its complimentary DNA in a clone of cells, followed by its detection using autoradiography because :
a.
mutated gene partially appears on a photographic film
b.
mutated gene completely and clearly appears on a photographic film
c.
mutated gene does not appear on a photographic film as the probe has no complementarity with it
d.
mutated gene does not appear on photographic film as the probe has complementarity with it
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Q149 mcq
Match List-I with List-II. List-I: (a) S phase (b) G2 phase (c) Quiescent stage (d) G1 phase List-II: (i) Proteins are synthesized (ii) Inactive phase (iii) Interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA replication (iv) DNA replication Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
a.
(1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
b.
(2) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
c.
(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
d.
(4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
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Q150 mcq
Plasmid pBR322 has PstI restriction enzyme site within gene ampR that confers ampicillin resistance. If this enzyme is used for inserting a gene for β-galactoside production and the recombinant plasmid is inserted in an E. coli strain:
a.
(1) It will not be able to confer ampicillin resistance to the host cell
b.
(2) The transformed cells will have the ability to resist ampicillin as well as produce β-galactoside
c.
(3) It will lead to lysis of host cell
d.
(4) It will be able to produce a novel protein with dual ability
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Q151 mcq
Identify the incorrect pair:
a.
(1) Alkaloids – Codeine
b.
(2) Toxin – Abrin
c.
(3) Lectins – Concanavalin A
d.
(4) Drugs – Ricin
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Q152 mcq
The fruit fly has 8 chromosomes (2n) in each cell. During interphase of Mitosis if the number of chromosomes at G1 phase is 8, what would be the number of chromosomes after S phase?
a.
(1) 8
b.
(2) 16
c.
(3) 4
d.
(4) 32
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Q153 mcq
Match List-I with List-II: (a) Metamerism (b) Water canal system (c) Comb plates (d) Cnidoblasts List-II: (i) Ctenophora (ii) Cnidaria (iii) Annelida (iv) Porifera Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
a.
(1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
b.
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
c.
(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
d.
(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
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Q153 mcq
Match List - I with List - II List-I (a) Metamerism (b) Water canal system (c) Ctenophora (d) Cnidoblasts List-II (i) Ctenoplana (ii) Porifera (iii) Annelida (iv) Cnidaria Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
a.
(1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
b.
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
c.
(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
d.
(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
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Q154 mcq
Match List-I with List-II. List-I: (a) Vaults (b) IUDs (c) Vasectomy (d) Tubectomy List-II: (i) Entry of sperm through Cervix is blocked (ii) Removal of Vas deferens (iii) Phagocytosis of sperms within the Uterus (iv) Removal of fallopian tube Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
a.
(1) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
b.
(2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
c.
(3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
d.
(4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
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Q155 mcq
If Adenine makes 30% of the DNA molecule, what will be the percentage of Thymine, Guanine and Cytosine in it?
a.
(1) T : 20 ; G : 30 ; C : 20
b.
(2) T : 20 ; G : 20 ; C : 30
c.
(3) T : 30 ; G : 20 ; C : 20
d.
(4) T : 20 ; G : 25 ; C : 25
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Q156 mcq
Which of the following RNAs is not required for the synthesis of protein?
a.
(1) mRNA
b.
(2) tRNA
c.
(3) rRNA
d.
(4) siRNA
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Q157 mcq
Which one of the following is an example of Hormone releasing IUD?
a.
(1) CuT
b.
(2) LNG 20
c.
(3) Cu 7
d.
(4) Multiload 375
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Q158 mcq
Succus entericus is referred to as:
a.
(1) Pancreatic juice
b.
(2) Intestinal juice
c.
(3) Gastric juice
d.
(4) Chyme
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Q159 mcq
Chronic auto immune disorder affecting neuro muscular junction leading to fatigue, weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscle is called as:
a.
(1) Arthritis
b.
(2) Muscular dystrophy
c.
(3) Myasthenia gravis
d.
(4) Gout
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Q160 mcq
With regard to insulin choose correct options. (a) C-peptide is not present in mature insulin. (b) The insulin produced by rDNA technology has C-peptide. (c) The pro-insulin has C-peptide (d) A-peptide and B-peptide of insulin are interconnected by disulphide bridges. Choose the correct answer from the options given below
a.
(b) and (d) only
b.
(b) and (c) only
c.
(a), (c) and (d) only
d.
(a) and (d) only
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Q161 mcq
Which one of the following belongs to the family Muscidae?
a.
Fire fly
b.
Grasshopper
c.
Cockroach
d.
House fly
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Q162 mcq
Which is the "Only enzyme" that has "Capability" to catalyse Initiation, Elongation and Termination in the process of transcription in prokaryotes?
a.
DNA dependent DNA polymerase
b.
DNA dependent RNA polymerase
c.
DNA Ligase
d.
DNase
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Q163 mcq
Receptors for sperm binding in mammals are present on :
a.
Corona radiata
b.
Vitelline membrane
c.
Perivitelline space
d.
Zona pellucida
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Q164 mcq
The centriole undergoes duplication during:
a.
S-phase
b.
Prophase
c.
Metaphase
d.
G2 phase
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Q165 mcq
Which one of the following organisms bears hollow and pneumatic long bones?
a.
Neophron
b.
Hemidactylus
c.
Macropus
d.
Ornithorhynchus
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Q166 mcq
Erythropoietin hormone which stimulates R.B.C. formation is produced by:
a.
Alpha cells of pancreas
b.
The cells of rostral adenohypophysis
c.
The cells of bone marrow
d.
Juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney
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Q167 mcq
Match the following: List-I (a) Physalia (b) Limulus (c) Ancylostoma (d) Pinctada List-II (i) Pearl oyster (ii) Portuguese Man of War (iii) Living fossil (iv) Hookworm
a.
(ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
b.
(iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
c.
(ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
d.
(i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
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Q167 mcq
Match the following: List-I (a) Physalia, (b) Limulus, (c) Ancylostoma, (d) Pinctada List-II (i) Pearl oyster, (ii) Portuguese Man of War, (iii) Living fossil, (iv) Hookworm
a.
(a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
b.
(a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
c.
(a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
d.
(a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
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Q168 mcq
During the process of gene amplification using PCR, if very high temperature is not maintained in the beginning, then which of the following steps of PCR will be affected first?
a.
Annealing
b.
Extension
c.
Denaturation
d.
Ligation
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Q169 mcq
Which of the following statements wrongly represents the nature of smooth muscle?
a.
These muscles have no striations
b.
They are involuntary muscles
c.
Communication among the cells is performed by intercalated discs
d.
These muscles are present in the wall of blood vessels
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Q170 mcq
The organelles that are included in the endomembrane system are:
a.
Endoplasmic reticulum, Mitochondria, Ribosomes and Lysosomes
b.
Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex, Lysosomes and Vacuoles
c.
Golgi complex, Mitochondria, Ribosomes and Lysosomes
d.
Golgi complex, Endoplasmic reticulum, Mitochondria and Lysosomes
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Q171 mcq
Match List-I with List-II: List-I (a) Aspergillus niger, (b) Acetobacter aceti, (c) Clostridium butylicum, (d) Lactobacillus List-II (i) Acetic acid, (ii) Lactic acid, (iii) Citric acid, (iv) Butyric acid
a.
(a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
b.
(a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
c.
(a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
d.
(a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
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Q172 mcq
For effective treatment of the disease, early diagnosis and understanding its pathophysiology is very important. Which of the following molecular diagnostic techniques is very useful for early detection?
a.
Western Blotting Technique
b.
Southern Blotting Technique
c.
ELISA Technique
d.
Hybridization Technique
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Q173 mcq
Which of the following characteristics is incorrect with respect to cockroach?
a.
A ring of gastric caeca is present at the junction of midgut and hind gut
b.
Hypopharynx lies within the cavity enclosed by the mouth parts
c.
In females, 7th-9th sterna together form a genital pouch
d.
10th abdominal segment in both sexes, bears a pair of anal cerci
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Q174 mcq
Persons with 'AB' blood group are called as 'Universal recipients'. This is due to :
a.
Absence of antigens A and B on the surface of RBCs
b.
Absence of antigens A and B in plasma
c.
Presence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, on RBCs
d.
Absence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, in plasma
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Q175 mcq
Dobson units are used to measure thickness of:
a.
CFCs
b.
Stratosphere
c.
Ozone
d.
Troposphere
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Q176 mcq
Read the following statements: (a) Metagenesis is observed in Helminths. (b) Echinoderms are triploblastic and coelomate animals. (c) Round worms have organ-system level of body organization. (d) Comb plates present in ctenophores help in digestion. (e) Water vascular system is characteristic of Echinoderms. Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
a.
(c), (d) and (e) are correct
b.
(a), (b) and (c) are correct
c.
(a), (d) and (e) are correct
d.
(b), (c) and (e) are correct
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Q177 mcq
In a cross between a male and female, both heterozygous for sickle cell anaemia gene, what percentage of the progeny will be diseased?
a.
50%
b.
75%
c.
25%
d.
100%
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Q177 mcq
In a cross between a male and female, both heterozygous for sickle cell anaemia gene, what percentage of the progeny will be diseased?
a.
50%
b.
75%
c.
25%
d.
100%
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Q178 mcq
Which enzyme is responsible for the conversion of inactive fibrinogens to fibrins?
a.
Thrombin
b.
Renin
c.
Epinephrine
d.
Thrombokinase
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Q178 mcq
Which enzyme is responsible for the conversion of inactive fibrinogens to fibrins?
a.
Thrombin
b.
Renin
c.
Epinephrine
d.
Thrombokinase
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Q179 mcq
Select the favourable conditions required for the formation of oxyhaemoglobin at the alveoli.
a.
High pO2, low pCO2, less H+, lower temperature
b.
Low pO2, high pCO2, more H+, higher temperature
c.
High pO2, high pCO2, less H+, higher temperature
d.
Low pO2, low pCO2, more H+, higher temperature
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Q180 mcq
Sphincter of oddi is present at:
a.
Ileo-caecal junction
b.
Junction of hepato-pancreatic duct and duodenum
c.
Gastro-oesophageal junction
d.
Junction of jejunum and duodenum
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Q181 mcq
Which stage of meiotic prophase shows terminalisation of chiasmata as its distinctive feature?
a.
Leptotene
b.
Zygotene
c.
Diakinesis
d.
Pachytene
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Q182 mcq
Which of the following is not an objective of Biofortification in crops?
a.
Improve protein content
b.
Improve resistance to diseases
c.
Improve vitamin content
d.
Improve micronutrient and mineral content
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Q183 mcq
The partial pressures (in mm Hg) of oxygen (O2) and carbon dioxide (CO2) at alveoli (the site of diffusion) are:
a.
pO2 = 104 and pCO2 = 40
b.
pO2 = 40 and pCO2 = 45
c.
pO2 = 95 and pCO2 = 40
d.
pO2 = 159 and pCO2 = 0.3
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Q184 mcq
Veneral diseases can spread through : (a) Using sterile needles (b) Transfusion of blood from infected person (c) Infected mother to foetus (d) Kissing (e) Inheritance. Choose the correct answer from the options given below
a.
(a), (b) and (c) only
b.
(b), (c) and (d) only
c.
(b) and (c) only
d.
(a) and (c) only
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Q185 mcq
A specific recognition sequence identified by endonucleases to make cuts at specific positions within the DNA is:
a.
Degenerate primer sequence
b.
Okazaki sequences
c.
Palindromic Nucleotide sequences
d.
Poly(A) tail sequences
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Q185 mcq
A specific recognition sequence identified by endonucleases to make cuts at specific positions within the DNA is:
a.
Degenerate primer sequence
b.
Okazaki sequences
c.
Palindromic Nucleotide sequences
d.
Poly(A) tail sequences
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Q186 mcq
Which one of the following statements about Histones is wrong?
a.
Histones are organized to form a unit of 8 molecules
b.
The pH of histones is slightly acidic
c.
Histones are rich in amino acids - Lysine and Arginine
d.
Histones carry positive charge in the side chain
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Q187 mcq
During muscular contraction which of the following events occur? (a) 'H' zone disappears (b) 'A' band widens (c) 'I' band reduces in width (d) Myosin hydrolyzes ATP, releasing the ADP and Pi (e) Z-lines attached to actins are pulled inwards.
a.
(a), (c), (d), (e) only
b.
(a), (b), (c), (d) only
c.
(b), (c), (d), (e) only
d.
(b), (d), (e), (a) only
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Q188 mcq
Match List-I with List-II: List -I (Bone/Structure) | List -II (Type) (a) Scapula | (i) Flat bone (b) Cranium | (ii) Cartilaginous joints (c) Sternum | (iii) Fibrous joints (d) Vertebral column | (iv) Triangular flat bone
a.
(a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
b.
(a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
c.
(a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
d.
(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
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Q189 mcq
Which of these is not an important component of initiation of parturition in humans?
a.
Increase in estrogen and progesterone ratio
b.
Synthesis of prostaglandins
c.
Release of Oxytocin
d.
Release of Prolactin
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Q189 mcq
Which of these is not an important component of initiation of parturition in humans?
a.
Increase in estrogen and progesterone ratio
b.
Synthesis of prostaglandins
c.
Release of Oxytocin
d.
Release of Prolactin
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Q190 mcq
Assertion (A): A person goes to high altitude and experiences 'altitude sickness' with symptoms like breathing difficulty and heart palpitations. Reason (R): Due to low atmospheric pressure at high altitude, the body does not get sufficient oxygen. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a.
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b.
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
c.
(A) is true but (R) is false
d.
(A) is false but (R) is true
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Q192 mcq
The Adenosine deaminase deficiency results into
a.
Dysfunction of Immune system
b.
Parkinson's disease
c.
Digestive disorder
d.
Addison's disease
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Q193 mcq
Which of the following secretes the hormone, relaxin, during the later phase of pregnancy?
a.
Graafian follicle
b.
Corpus luteum
c.
Foetus
d.
Uterus
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Q194 mcq
Identify the types of cell junctions that help to stop the leakage of the substances across a tissue and facilitation of communication with neighbouring cells via rapid transfer of ions and molecules.
a.
Gap junctions and Adhering junctions, respectively
b.
Tight junctions and Gap junctions, respectively
c.
Adhering junctions and Tight junctions, respectively
d.
Adhering junctions and Gap junctions, respectively
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Q195 mcq
Which of the following is not a step in Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer Technology (MOET)?
a.
Cow is administered hormone having LH like activity for super ovulation
b.
Cow yields about 6-8 eggs at a time
c.
Cow is fertilized by artificial insemination
d.
Fertilized eggs are transferred to surrogate mothers at 8-32 cell stage
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Q196 mcq
Match List-I with List-II: List -I (Disease): (a) Filariasis (b) Amoebiasis (c) Pneumonia (d) Ringworm List -II (Pathogen): (i) Trichophyton (ii) Haemophilus influenzae (iii) Wuchereria bancrofti (iv) Entamoeba histolytica
a.
(iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
b.
(iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
c.
(i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
d.
(ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
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Q197 mcq
Match List-I with List - II: List - I: (a) Allen’s Rule (b) Physiological adaptation (c) Behavioural adaptation (d) Biochemical adaptation List - II: (i) Kangaroo rat (ii) Desert lizard (iii) Marine fish at depth (iv) Polar seal
a.
(iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
b.
(iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
c.
(iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
d.
(iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
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Q198 mcq
Match List - I with List - II: List - I: (a) Adaptive radiation (b) Convergent evolution (c) Divergent evolution (d) Evolution by anthropogenic action List - II: (i) Selection of resistant varieties due to excessive use of herbicides and pesticides (ii) Bones of forelimbs in Man and Whale (iii) Wings of Butterfly and Bird (iv) Darwin Finches
a.
(iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
b.
(iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
c.
(ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
d.
(i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
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Q199 mcq
Statement I: The codon 'AUG' codes for methionine and phenylalanine. Statement II: 'AAA' and 'AAG' both codons code for the amino acid lysine.
a.
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
b.
Both Statement I and Statement II are false
c.
Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
d.
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true
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Q199 mcq
Statement I: The codon 'AUG' codes for methionine and phenylalanine. Statement II: 'AAA' and 'AAG' both codons code for the amino acid lysine. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
a.
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
b.
Both Statement I and Statement II are false
c.
Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
d.
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true
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Q200 mcq
Following are the statements about prostomium of earthworm. (a) It serves as a covering for mouth. (b) It helps to open cracks in the soil into which it can crawl. (c) It is one of the sensory structures. (d) It is the first body segment. Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
a.
(a), (b) and (c) are correct
b.
(a), (b) and (d) are correct
c.
(a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct
d.
(b) and (c) are correct
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