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NEET 2020-H1

2020 · 117 questions · First 10 Solutions Free
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Q13 mcq
The following metal ion activates many enzymes, participates in the oxidation of glucose to produce ATP and, with Na, is responsible for the transmission of nerve signals.
a.
Potassium Correct Answer
b.
Iron
c.
Copper
d.
Calcium
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Potassium is the major intracellular cation, activates many enzymes, helps in cellular metabolism, and along with sodium is important in nerve impulse transmission.
Q26 mcq
An element has a body centred cubic (bcc) structure with a cell edge of 288 pm. The atomic radius is:
a.
sqrt(3) × 288 pm / 4 Correct Answer
b.
sqrt(3) × 288 pm / 2
c.
sqrt(2) × 288 pm / 4
d.
sqrt(4) × 288 pm / 3
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
In a bcc lattice, atoms touch along the body diagonal, so 4r = sqrt(3)a. Hence r = (sqrt(3)/4)a = (sqrt(3)/4) × 288 pm.
Q44 mcq
Which of the following is not correct about carbon monoxide?
a.
It is produced due to incomplete combustion.
b.
It forms carboxyhaemoglobin.
c.
It reduces oxygen carrying ability of blood.
d.
The carboxyhaemoglobin (haemoglobin bound to CO) is less stable than oxyhaemoglobin. Correct Answer
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Carboxyhaemoglobin is more stable than oxyhaemoglobin, which is why CO is highly toxic.
Q44 mcq
Which of the following is not correct about carbon monoxide?
a.
It is produced due to incomplete combustion.
b.
It forms carboxyhaemoglobin.
c.
It reduces oxygen carrying ability of blood.
d.
The carboxyhaemoglobin (haemoglobin bound to CO) is less stable than oxyhaemoglobin. Correct Answer
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Carboxyhaemoglobin is much more stable than oxyhaemoglobin, which is why CO poisoning is dangerous.
Q45 mcq
The number of protons, neutrons and electrons in 17571Lu, respectively, are:
a.
175, 104 and 71
b.
71, 104 and 71 Correct Answer
c.
104, 71 and 71
d.
71, 71 and 104
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
For neutral 175Lu, atomic number = 71, so protons = 71 and electrons = 71. Neutrons = 175 − 71 = 104.
Q46 mcq
In water hyacinth and water lily, pollination takes place by:
a.
insects and water Correct Answer
b.
insects or wind
c.
water currents only
d.
wind and water
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Water hyacinth and water lily are hydrophilous in habitat but are pollinated by insects, not by water currents.
Q46 mcq
In water hyacinth and water lily, pollination takes place by:
a.
insects and water Correct Answer
b.
insects or wind
c.
water currents only
d.
wind and water
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Water hyacinth and water lily are insect-pollinated; pollination is not by water in these cases.
Q47 mcq
By which method was a new breed 'Hisardale' of sheep formed by using Bikaneri ewes and Marino rams?
a.
Inbreeding
b.
Out crossing
c.
Mutational breeding
d.
Cross breeding Correct Answer
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Hisardale was developed by crossing Bikaneri ewes with Merino rams, which is cross-breeding.
Q47 mcq
By which method was a new breed 'Hisardale' of sheep formed by using Bikaneri ewes and Marino rams?
a.
Inbreeding
b.
Out crossing
c.
Mutational breeding
d.
Cross breeding Correct Answer
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Hisardale was developed by crossing Bikaneri ewes with Marino rams, which is cross breeding.
Q48 mcq
Snow-blindness in Antarctic region is due to:
a.
Damage to retina caused by infra-red rays
b.
Freezing of fluids in the eye by low temperature
c.
Inflammation of cornea due to high dose of UV-B radiation Correct Answer
d.
High reflection of light from snow
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Snow blindness is caused by excessive UV-B exposure leading to inflammation of the cornea.
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Q49 mcq
Match the following columns and select the correct option. Column I Column II (a) Eosinophils (i) Immune response (b) Basophils (ii) Phagocytosis (c) Neutrophils (iii) Release histaminase, destructive enzymes (d) Lymphocytes (iv) Release granules containing histamine
a.
(a)(b)(c)(d) = (ii)(i)(iii)(iv)
b.
(a)(b)(c)(d) = (iii)(iv)(ii)(i)
c.
(a)(b)(c)(d) = (iv)(i)(ii)(iii)
d.
(a)(b)(c)(d) = (i)(ii)(iv)(iii)
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Q50 mcq
Strobili or cones are found in:
a.
Equisetum
b.
Salvinia
c.
Pteris
d.
Marchantia
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Q51 mcq
Meiotic division of the secondary oocyte is completed:
a.
At the time of fusion of a sperm with an ovum
b.
Prior to ovulation
c.
At the time of copulation
d.
After zygote formation
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Q52 mcq
The QRS complex in a standard ECG represents:
a.
Repolarisation of ventricles
b.
Repolarisation of auricles
c.
Depolarisation of auricles
d.
Depolarisation of ventricles
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Q53 mcq
If the distance between two consecutive base pairs is 0.34 nm and the total number of base pairs of a DNA double helix in a typical mammalian cell is 6.6 × 10^9 bp, then the length of the DNA is approximately:
a.
2.7 meters
b.
2.0 meters
c.
2.5 meters
d.
2.2 meters
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Q54 mcq
The plant parts which consist of two generations, one within the other, are: (a) Pollen grains inside the anther (b) Germinated pollen grain with two male gametes (c) Seed inside the fruit (d) Embryo sac inside the ovule
a.
(a) and (d)
b.
(a) only
c.
(a), (b) and (c)
d.
(c) and (d)
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Q55 mcq
How many true breeding pea plant varieties did Mendel select as pairs, which were similar except in one character with contrasting traits?
a.
8
b.
4
c.
2
d.
14
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Q57 mcq
Which of the following hormone levels will cause release of ovum (ovulation) from the Graafian follicle?
a.
Low concentration of FSH
b.
High concentration of Estrogen
c.
High concentration of Progesterone
d.
Low concentration of LH
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Q58 mcq
Which of the following refer to correct example(s) of organisms which have evolved due to changes in environment brought about by anthropogenic action? (a) Darwin’s finches of Galapagos islands (b) Herbicide resistant weeds (c) Drug resistant eukaryotes (d) Man-created breeds of domesticated animals like dogs
a.
only (d)
b.
only (a)
c.
(a) and (c)
d.
(b), (c) and (d)
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Q59 mcq
Which of the following statements are true for the phylum Chordata? (a) In Urochordata notochord extends from head to tail and it is present throughout their life. (b) In Vertebrata notochord is present during the embryonic period only. (c) Central nervous system is dorsal and hollow. (d) Chordata is divided into 3 subphyla: Hemichordata, Tunicata and Cephalochordata.
a.
(b) and (c)
b.
(d) and (c)
c.
(c) and (a)
d.
(a) and (b)
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Q59 mcq
Which of the following statements are true for the phylum Chordata? (a) In Urochordata, notochord extends from head to tail and it is present throughout their life. (b) In Vertebrata, notochord is present during the embryonic period only. (c) Central nervous system is dorsal and hollow. (d) Chordata is divided into 3 subphyla: Hemichordata, Tunicata and Cephalochordata.
a.
(b) and (c)
b.
(d) and (c)
c.
(c) and (a)
d.
(a) and (b)
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Q60 mcq
Match the following: (a) Inhibitor of catalytic activity (b) Possess peptide bonds (c) Cell wall material in fungi (d) Secondary metabolite Choose the correct option from the following.
a.
(ii)(iii)(i)(iv)
b.
(ii)(iv)(iii)(i)
c.
(iii)(i)(iv)(ii)
d.
(iii)(iv)(i)(ii)
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Q61 mcq
The body of the ovule is fused within the funicle at:
a.
Chalaza
b.
Hilum
c.
Micropyle
d.
Nucellus
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Q61 mcq
The body of the ovule is fused within the funicle at:
a.
Chalaza
b.
Hilum
c.
Micropyle
d.
Nucellus
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Q62 mcq
The process responsible for facilitating loss of water in liquid form from the tip of grass blades at night and in early morning is:
a.
Plasmolysis
b.
Transpiration
c.
Root pressure
d.
Imbibition
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Q62 mcq
The process responsible for facilitating loss of water in liquid form from the tip of grass blades at night and in early morning is:
a.
Plasmolysis
b.
Transpiration
c.
Root pressure
d.
Imbibition
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Q63 mcq
Which of the following statements about inclusion bodies is incorrect?
a.
These represent reserve material in cytoplasm.
b.
They are not bound by any membrane.
c.
These are involved in ingestion of food particles.
d.
They lie free in the cytoplasm.
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Q64 mcq
Match the following columns and select the correct option. Column I Column II (a) Placenta (i) Androgens (b) Zona pellucida (ii) Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG) (c) Bulbo-urethral glands (iii) Layer of the ovum (d) Leydig cells (iv) Lubrication of the penis
a.
(ii)(iii)(iv)(i)
b.
(iv)(iii)(i)(ii)
c.
(i)(iv)(ii)(iii)
d.
(iii)(ii)(iv)(i)
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Q65 mcq
The process of growth is maximum during:
a.
Dormancy
b.
Log phase
c.
Lag phase
d.
Senescence
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Q66 mcq
Match the organism with its use in biotechnology. (a) Bacillus thuringiensis (b) Thermus aquaticus (c) Agrobacterium tumefaciens (d) Salmonella typhimurium Select the correct option from the following.
a.
(iii)(iv)(i)(ii)
b.
(ii)(iv)(iii)(i)
c.
(iv)(iii)(i)(ii)
d.
(iii)(ii)(iv)(i)
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Q67 mcq
Floridean starch has structure similar to:
a.
Laminarin and cellulose
b.
Starch and cellulose
c.
Amylopectin and glycogen
d.
Mannitol and algin
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Q68 mcq
Match the following columns and select the correct option. Column I Column II (a) 6 - 15 pairs of gill slits (i) Trygon (b) Heterocercal caudal fin (ii) Cyclostomes (c) Air bladder (iii) Chondrichthyes (d) Poison sting (iv) Osteichthyes
a.
(i)(iv)(iii)(ii)
b.
(ii)(iii)(iv)(i)
c.
(iii)(iv)(i)(ii)
d.
(iv)(ii)(iii)(i)
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Q69 mcq
Presence of which of the following conditions in urine are indicative of Diabetes Mellitus?
a.
Renal calculi and Hyperglycaemia
b.
Uremia and Ketonuria
c.
Uremia and Renal calculi
d.
Ketonuria and Glycosuria
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Q70 mcq
Identify the incorrect statement.
a.
Due to deposition of tannins, resins, oils etc., heart wood is dark in colour.
b.
Heart wood does not conduct water but gives mechanical support.
c.
Sapwood is involved in conduction of water and minerals from root to leaf.
d.
Sapwood is the innermost secondary xylem and is lighter in colour.
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Q71 mcq
Which one of the following is the most abundant protein in animals?
a.
Insulin
b.
Haemoglobin
c.
Collagen
d.
Lectin
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Q72 mcq
Which of the following is not an inhibitory substance governing seed dormancy?
a.
Para-ascorbic acid
b.
Gibberellic acid
c.
Abscisic acid
d.
Phenolic acid
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Q73 mcq
The enzyme enterokinase helps in conversion of:
a.
pepsinogen into pepsin
b.
protein into polypeptides
c.
trypsinogen into trypsin
d.
caseinogen into casein
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Q74 mcq
Match the following columns and select the correct option. Column I Column II (a) Gregarious, polyphagous pest (i) Asterias (b) Adult with radial symmetry and larva with bilateral symmetry (ii) Scorpion (c) Book lungs (iii) Ctenoplana (d) Bioluminescence (iv) Locusta
a.
(ii)(i)(iii)(iv)
b.
(i)(iii)(ii)(iv)
c.
(iv)(i)(ii)(iii)
d.
(iii)(ii)(i)(iv)
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Q75 mcq
Cuboidal epithelium with brush border of microvilli is found in:
a.
eustachian tube
b.
lining of intestine
c.
ducts of salivary glands
d.
proximal convoluted tubule of nephron
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Q75 mcq
Cuboidal epithelium with brush border of microvilli is found in:
a.
Eustachian tube
b.
Lining of intestine
c.
Ducts of salivary glands
d.
Proximal convoluted tubule of nephron
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Q76 mcq
Embryological support for evolution was disapproved by:
a.
Oparin
b.
Karl Ernst von Baer
c.
Alfred Wallace
d.
Charles Darwin
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Q76 mcq
Embryological support for evolution was disapproved by:
a.
Oparin
b.
Karl Ernst von Baer
c.
Alfred Wallace
d.
Charles Darwin
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Q77 mcq
Experimental verification of the chromosomal theory of inheritance was done by:
a.
Morgan
b.
Mendel
c.
Sutton
d.
Boveri
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Q77 mcq
Experimental verification of the chromosomal theory of inheritance was done by:
a.
Morgan
b.
Mendel
c.
Sutton
d.
Boveri
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Q78 mcq
Identify the wrong statement with reference to the gene 'I' that controls ABO blood groups.
a.
Allele 'i' does not produce any sugar.
b.
The gene (I) has three alleles.
c.
A person will have only two of the three alleles.
d.
When I_A and I_B are present together, they express same type of sugar.
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Q78 mcq
Identify the wrong statement with reference to the gene ‘I’ that controls ABO blood groups.
a.
Allele ‘i’ does not produce any sugar.
b.
The gene (I) has three alleles.
c.
A person will have only two of the three alleles.
d.
When I A and I B are present together, they express same type of sugar.
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Q79 mcq
Identify the basic amino acid from the following.
a.
Valine
b.
Tyrosine
c.
Glutamic Acid
d.
Lysine
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Q79 mcq
Identify the basic amino acid from the following.
a.
Valine
b.
Tyrosine
c.
Glutamic acid
d.
Lysine
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Q80 mcq
Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex occurs during:
a.
Leptotene
b.
Pachytene
c.
Zygotene
d.
Diplotene
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Q80 mcq
Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex occurs during:
a.
Leptotene
b.
Pachytene
c.
Zygotene
d.
Diplotene
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Q81 mcq
Some dividing cells exit the cell cycle and enter the vegetative inactive stage. This is called quiescent stage (G0). This process occurs at the end of:
a.
G2 phase
b.
M phase
c.
G1 phase
d.
S phase
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Q82 mcq
Match the following columns and select the correct option. Column I Column II (a) Pituitary gland (i) Grave's disease (b) Thyroid gland (ii) Diabetes mellitus (c) Adrenal gland (iii) Diabetes insipidus (d) Pancreas (iv) Addison's disease
a.
(ii)(i)(iv)(iii)
b.
(iv)(iii)(i)(ii)
c.
(iii)(ii)(i)(iv)
d.
(iii)(i)(iv)(ii)
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Q83 mcq
Select the correct events that occur during inspiration. (a) Contraction of diaphragm (b) Contraction of external inter-costal muscles (c) Pulmonary volume decreases (d) Intra-pulmonary pressure increases
a.
Only (d)
b.
(a) and (b)
c.
(c) and (d)
d.
(a), (b) and (d)
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Q84 mcq
The ovary is half inferior in:
a.
Plum
b.
Brinjal
c.
Mustard
d.
Sunflower
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Q85 mcq
The oxygenation activity of RuBisCO enzyme in photorespiration leads to the formation of:
a.
1 molecule of 4-C compound and 1 molecule of 2-C compound
b.
2 molecules of 3-C compound
c.
1 molecule of 3-C compound
d.
1 molecule of 6-C compound
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Q86 mcq
Which of the following statements is not correct?
a.
Genetically engineered insulin is produced in E. coli.
b.
In man insulin is synthesised as a proinsulin.
c.
The proinsulin has an extra peptide called C-peptide.
d.
The functional insulin has A and B chains linked together by hydrogen bonds.
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Q87 mcq
Which of the following pairs is of unicellular algae?
a.
Chlorella and Spirulina
b.
Laminaria and Sargassum
c.
Gelidium and Gracilaria
d.
Anabaena and Volvox
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Q89 mcq
Identify the wrong statement with reference to immunity.
a.
Foetus receives some antibodies from mother; it is an example of passive immunity.
b.
When exposed to antigen (living or dead), antibodies are produced in the host's body. It is called active immunity.
c.
When ready-made antibodies are directly given, it is called passive immunity.
d.
Active immunity is quick and gives full response.
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Q90 mcq
Which of the following would help in prevention of diuresis?
a.
Decrease in secretion of renin by JG cells
b.
More water reabsorption due to undersecretion of ADH
c.
Reabsorption of Na+ and water from renal tubules due to aldosterone
d.
Atrial natriuretic factor causes vasoconstriction
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Q91 mcq
The transverse section of a plant shows the following anatomical features: (a) Large number of scattered vascular bundles surrounded by bundle sheath. (b) Large conspicuous parenchymatous ground tissue. (c) Vascular bundles conjoint and closed. (d) Phloem parenchyma absent. Identify the category of plant and its part:
a.
Dicotyledonous root
b.
Monocotyledonous stem
c.
Monocotyledonous root
d.
Dicotyledonous stem
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Q92 mcq
Ray florets have:
a.
Half inferior ovary
b.
Inferior ovary
c.
Superior ovary
d.
Hypogynous ovary
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Q92 mcq
Ray florets have:
a.
Half inferior ovary
b.
Inferior ovary
c.
Superior ovary
d.
Hypogynous ovary
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Q93 mcq
Select the correct statement.
a.
Insulin is associated with hyperglycemia.
b.
Glucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis.
c.
Glucagon is associated with hypoglycemia.
d.
Insulin acts on pancreatic cells and adipocytes.
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Q93 mcq
Select the correct statement.
a.
Insulin is associated with hyperglycemia.
b.
Glucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis.
c.
Glucagon is associated with hypoglycemia.
d.
Insulin acts on pancreatic cells and adipocytes.
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Q94 mcq
Which of the following statements is correct?
a.
Adenine does not pair with thymine.
b.
Adenine pairs with thymine through two H-bonds.
c.
Adenine pairs with thymine through one H-bond.
d.
Adenine pairs with thymine through three H-bonds.
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Q94 mcq
Which of the following statements is correct?
a.
Adenine does not pair with thymine.
b.
Adenine pairs with thymine through two H-bonds.
c.
Adenine pairs with thymine through one H-bond.
d.
Adenine pairs with thymine through three H-bonds.
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Q95 mcq
Which of the following is put into anaerobic sludge digester for further sewage treatment?
a.
Activated sludge
b.
Primary sludge
c.
Floating debris
d.
Effluents of primary treatment
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Q95 mcq
Which of the following is put into anaerobic sludge digester for further sewage treatment?
a.
Activated sludge
b.
Primary sludge
c.
Floating debris
d.
Effluents of primary treatment
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Q96 mcq
Name the plant growth regulator which, upon spraying on sugarcane crop, increases the length of stem, thus increasing the yield of sugarcane crop.
a.
Abscisic acid
b.
Cytokinin
c.
Gibberellin
d.
Ethylene
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Q97 mcq
The roots that originate from the base of the stem are:
a.
Lateral roots
b.
Fibrous roots
c.
Primary roots
d.
Prop roots
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Q99 mcq
Match the following columns and select the correct option. Column I Column II (a) Floating ribs (i) Located between second and seventh ribs (b) Acromion (ii) Head of the humerus (c) Scapula (iii) Clavicle (d) Glenoid cavity (iv) Do not connect with the sternum
a.
(iv)(iii)(i)(ii)
b.
(ii)(iv)(i)(iii)
c.
(i)(iii)(ii)(iv)
d.
(iii)(ii)(iv)(i)
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Q100 mcq
If the head of cockroach is removed, it may live for a few days because:
a.
the head holds a 1/3rd of a nervous system while the rest is situated along the dorsal part of its body.
b.
the supra-oesophageal ganglia of the cockroach are situated in ventral part of abdomen.
c.
the cockroach does not have nervous system.
d.
the head holds a small proportion of a nervous system while the rest is situated along the ventral part of its body.
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Q101 mcq
Match the following diseases with the causative organism and select the correct option. Column I Column II (a) Typhoid (i) Wuchereria (b) Pneumonia (ii) Plasmodium (c) Filariasis (iii) Salmonella (d) Malaria (iv) Haemophilus
a.
(iv)(i)(ii)(iii)
b.
(i)(iii)(ii)(iv)
c.
(iii)(iv)(i)(ii)
d.
(ii)(i)(iii)(iv)
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Q102 mcq
Which is the important site of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids in eukaryotic cells?
a.
Polysomes
b.
Endoplasmic reticulum
c.
Peroxisomes
d.
Golgi bodies
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Q103 mcq
Which of the following is not an attribute of a population?
a.
Species interaction
b.
Sex ratio
c.
Natality
d.
Mortality
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Q104 mcq
The number of substrate level phosphorylations in one turn of citric acid cycle is:
a.
Three
b.
Zero
c.
One
d.
Two
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Q105 mcq
Montreal Protocol was signed in 1987 for control of:
a.
Disposal of e-wastes
b.
Transport of genetically modified organisms from one country to another
c.
Emission of ozone depleting substances
d.
Release of greenhouse gases
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Q106 mcq
Bilaterally symmetrical and acoelomate animals are exemplified by:
a.
Annelida
b.
Ctenophora
c.
Platyhelminthes
d.
Aschelminthes
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Q107 mcq
Identify the wrong statement with reference to transport of oxygen.
a.
Low pCO2 in alveoli favours the formation of oxyhaemoglobin.
b.
Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is mainly related to partial pressure of O2.
c.
Partial pressure of CO2 can interfere with O2 binding with haemoglobin.
d.
Higher H+ concentration in alveoli favours the formation of oxyhaemoglobin.
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Q108 mcq
Identify the wrong statement with regard to restriction enzymes.
a.
Sticky ends can be joined by using DNA ligases.
b.
Each restriction enzyme functions by inspecting the length of a DNA sequence.
c.
They cut the strand of DNA at palindromic sites.
d.
They are useful in genetic engineering.
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Q108 mcq
Identify the wrong statement with regard to restriction enzymes.
a.
Sticky ends can be joined by using DNA ligases.
b.
Each restriction enzyme functions by inspecting the length of a DNA sequence.
c.
They cut the strand of DNA at palindromic sites.
d.
They are useful in genetic engineering.
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Q109 mcq
Which of the following is correct about viroids?
a.
They have free DNA without protein coat.
b.
They have RNA with protein coat.
c.
They have free RNA without protein coat.
d.
They have DNA with protein coat.
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Q109 mcq
Which of the following is correct about viroids?
a.
They have free DNA without protein coat.
b.
They have RNA with protein coat.
c.
They have free RNA without protein coat.
d.
They have DNA with protein coat.
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Q110 mcq
The sequence that controls the copy number of the linked DNA in the vector is termed:
a.
Recognition site
b.
Selectable marker
c.
Ori site
d.
Palindromic sequence
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Q110 mcq
The sequence that controls the copy number of the linked DNA in the vector is termed:
a.
Recognition site
b.
Selectable marker
c.
Ori site
d.
Palindromic sequence
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Q111 mcq
Match the following columns and select the correct option. Column I Column II (a) Organ of Corti (i) Connects middle ear and pharynx (b) Cochlea (ii) Coiled part of the labyrinth (c) Eustachian tube (iii) Attached to the oval window (d) Stapes (iv) Located on the basilar membrane
a.
(a) (b) (c) (d) = (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
b.
(a) (b) (c) (d) = (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
c.
(a) (b) (c) (d) = (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
d.
(a) (b) (c) (d) = (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
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Q111 mcq
Match the following columns and select the correct option. Column I Column II (a) Organ of Corti (i) Connects middle ear and pharynx (b) Cochlea (ii) Coiled part of the labyrinth (c) Eustachian tube (iii) Attached to the oval window (d) Stapes (iv) Located on the basilar membrane
a.
(i)(ii)(iv)(iii)
b.
(ii)(iii)(i)(iv)
c.
(iii)(i)(iv)(ii)
d.
(iv)(ii)(i)(iii)
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Q112 mcq
From his experiments, S. L. Miller produced amino acids by mixing the following in a closed flask:
a.
CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapour at 600°C
b.
CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapour at 800°C
c.
CH3, H2, NH4 and water vapour at 800°C
d.
CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapour at 600°C
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Q113 mcq
Which of the following regions of the globe exhibits highest species diversity?
a.
Amazon forests
b.
Western Ghats of India
c.
Madagascar
d.
Himalayas
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Q114 mcq
Identify the correct statement with reference to human digestive system.
a.
Vermiform appendix arises from duodenum.
b.
Ileum opens into small intestine.
c.
Serosa is the innermost layer of the alimentary canal.
d.
Ileum is a highly coiled part.
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Q115 mcq
Bt cotton variety that was developed by the introduction of toxin gene of Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) is resistant to:
a.
Insect predators
b.
Insect pests
c.
Fungal diseases
d.
Plant nematodes
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Q116 mcq
Select the correct match.
a.
Thalassemia - X linked
b.
Haemophilia - Y linked
c.
Phenylketonuria - Autosomal dominant trait
d.
Sickle cell anaemia - Autosomal recessive trait, chromosome-11
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Q117 mcq
The infectious stage of Plasmodium that enters the human body is:
a.
Male gametocytes
b.
Trophozoites
c.
Sporozoites
d.
Female gametocytes
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Q118 mcq
The product(s) of reaction catalyzed by nitrogenase in root nodules of leguminous plants is/are:
a.
Ammonia and hydrogen
b.
Ammonia alone
c.
Nitrate alone
d.
Ammonia and oxygen
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Q119 mcq
Match the following columns and select the correct option. Column I Column II (a) Bt cotton (i) Gene therapy (b) Adenosine deaminase deficiency (ii) Cellular defence (c) RNAi (iii) Detection of HIV infection (d) PCR (iv) Bacillus thuringiensis
a.
(a) (b) (c) (d) = (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
b.
(a) (b) (c) (d) = (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
c.
(a) (b) (c) (d) = (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
d.
(a) (b) (c) (d) = (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
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Q120 mcq
In light reaction, plastoquinone facilitates the transfer of electrons from:
a.
PS-I to ATP synthase
b.
PS-II to Cyt b6f complex
c.
Cyt b6f complex to PS-I
d.
PS-I to NADP+
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Q121 mcq
According to Robert May, the global species diversity is about:
a.
7 million
b.
1.5 million
c.
20 million
d.
50 million
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Q123 mcq
Name the enzyme that facilitates opening of DNA helix during transcription.
a.
RNA polymerase
b.
DNA ligase
c.
DNA helicase
d.
DNA polymerase
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Q124 mcq
Match the following concerning essential elements and their functions in plants: (a) Iron (i) Photolysis of water (b) Zinc (ii) Pollen germination (c) Boron (iii) Required for chlorophyll biosynthesis (d) Manganese (iv) IAA biosynthesis Select the correct option:
a.
(a) (b) (c) (d) = (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
b.
(a) (b) (c) (d) = (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
c.
(a) (b) (c) (d) = (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
d.
(a) (b) (c) (d) = (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
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Q125 mcq
Identify the correct statement with regard to G1 phase (Gap 1) of interphase.
a.
Nuclear division takes place.
b.
DNA synthesis or replication takes place.
c.
Reorganisation of all cell components takes place.
d.
Cell is metabolically active, grows but does not replicate its DNA.
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Q125 mcq
Identify the correct statement with regard to G1 phase (Gap 1) of interphase.
a.
Nuclear division takes place.
b.
DNA synthesis or replication takes place.
c.
Reorganisation of all cell components takes place.
d.
Cell is metabolically active, grows but does not replicate its DNA.
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Q126 mcq
Secondary metabolites such as nicotine, strychnine and caffeine are produced by plants for their:
a.
Effect on reproduction
b.
Nutritive value
c.
Growth response
d.
Defence action
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Q126 mcq
Secondary metabolites such as nicotine, strychnine and caffeine are produced by plants for their:
a.
Effect on reproduction
b.
Nutritive value
c.
Growth response
d.
Defence action
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Q127 mcq
Flippers of penguins and dolphins are examples of:
a.
Natural selection
b.
Adaptive radiation
c.
Convergent evolution
d.
Industrial melanism
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Q127 mcq
Flippers of penguins and dolphins are examples of:
a.
Natural selection
b.
Adaptive radiation
c.
Convergent evolution
d.
Industrial melanism
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Q128 mcq
The first phase of translation is:
a.
Recognition of an anti-codon
b.
Binding of mRNA to ribosome
c.
Recognition of DNA molecule
d.
Aminoacylation of tRNA
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Q128 mcq
The first phase of translation is:
a.
Recognition of an anti-codon
b.
Binding of mRNA to ribosome
c.
Recognition of DNA molecule
d.
Aminoacylation of tRNA
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Q129 mcq
Goblet cells of alimentary canal are modified from:
a.
Compound epithelial cells
b.
Squamous epithelial cells
c.
Columnar epithelial cells
d.
Chondrocytes
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Q129 mcq
Goblet cells of alimentary canal are modified from:
a.
Compound epithelial cells
b.
Squamous epithelial cells
c.
Columnar epithelial cells
d.
Chondrocytes
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Q130 mcq
Select the option including all sexually transmitted diseases.
a.
Cancer, AIDS, Syphilis
b.
Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Genital herpes
c.
Gonorrhoea, Malaria, Genital herpes
d.
AIDS, Malaria, Filaria
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Q131 mcq
In which of the following techniques are the embryos transferred to assist those females who cannot conceive?
a.
GIFT and ICSI
b.
ZIFT and IUT
c.
GIFT and ZIFT
d.
ICSI and ZIFT
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Q132 mcq
In relation to gross primary productivity and net primary productivity of an ecosystem, which one of the following statements is correct?
a.
There is no relationship between gross primary productivity and net primary productivity.
b.
Gross primary productivity is always less than net primary productivity.
c.
Gross primary productivity is always more than net primary productivity.
d.
Gross primary productivity and net primary productivity are one and the same.
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Q134 mcq
Match the trophic levels with their correct species examples in grassland ecosystem. (a) Fourth trophic level (b) Second trophic level (c) First trophic level (d) Third trophic level Select the correct option: (a) (b) (c) (d)
a.
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
b.
(ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
c.
(iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
d.
(iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
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Q135 mcq
Match the following with respect to meiosis: (a) Zygotene (b) Pachytene (c) Diplotene (d) Diakinesis Select the correct option from the following: (a) (b) (c) (d)
a.
(ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
b.
(iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
c.
(iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
d.
(i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
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Q144 mcq
For which one of the following, Bohr model is not valid?
a.
Singly ionised neon atom (Ne⁺)
b.
Hydrogen atom
c.
Singly ionised helium atom (He⁺)
d.
Deuteron atom
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Q145 mcq
When a uranium isotope ²³⁵₉₂U is bombarded with a neutron, it generates ⁸⁹₃⁶Kr, three neutrons and:
a.
¹⁰³₃₆Kr
b.
¹⁴⁴₅₆Ba
c.
⁹¹₄₀Zr
d.
¹¹⁰₃₆Kr
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Q179 mcq
The energy required to break one bond in DNA is 10^-20 J. This value in eV is nearly:
a.
0.006
b.
6
c.
0.6
d.
0.06
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