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NEET 2020-G2

2020 · 115 questions · First 10 Solutions Free
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Q1 mcq
Which of the following refer to correct example(s) of organisms which have evolved due to changes in environment brought about by anthropogenic action?
a.
Darwin’s finches of Galapagos Islands.
b.
Herbicide resistant weeds. Correct Answer
c.
Drug resistant eukaryotes.
d.
Man-created breeds of domesticated animals like dogs.
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Anthropogenic environmental changes select for herbicide-resistant weeds and drug-resistant organisms. Darwin’s finches evolved by natural selection, not human-induced change, and domesticated breeds are products of artificial selection rather than evolution due to environmental change.
Q2 mcq
Meiotic division of the secondary oocyte is completed:
a.
At the time of copulation
b.
After zygote formation
c.
At the time of fusion of a sperm with an ovum Correct Answer
d.
Prior to ovulation
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
The secondary oocyte is arrested at metaphase II and completes meiosis II only after sperm entry, i.e. at fertilisation.
Q3 mcq
Which of the following is correct about viroids?
a.
They have free RNA without protein coat. Correct Answer
b.
They have DNA with protein coat.
c.
They have free DNA without protein coat.
d.
They have RNA with protein coat.
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Viroids are naked, infectious RNA molecules; they do not have a protein coat.
Q4 mcq
The plant parts which consist of two generations—one within the other:
a.
Pollen grains inside the anther
b.
Germinated pollen grain with two male gametes
c.
Seed inside the fruit Correct Answer
d.
Embryo sac inside the ovule
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
A seed contains the embryo of the next generation within the fruit of the parent plant, so it represents one generation enclosed within another.
Q5 mcq
Experimental verification of the chromosomal theory of inheritance was done by:
a.
Sutton
b.
Boveri
c.
Morgan Correct Answer
d.
Mendel
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
T.H. Morgan experimentally verified the chromosomal theory of inheritance through his work on Drosophila.
Q5 mcq
Experimental verification of the chromosomal theory of inheritance was done by:
a.
Sutton
b.
Boveri
c.
Morgan Correct Answer
d.
Mendel
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
T. H. Morgan experimentally verified the chromosomal theory of inheritance through his work on Drosophila.
Q6 mcq
Which of the following pairs is of unicellular algae?
a.
Gelidium and Gracilaria
b.
Anabaena and Volvox
c.
Chlorella and Spirulina Correct Answer
d.
Laminaria and Sargassum
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Chlorella is a unicellular green alga and Spirulina is a cyanobacterium commonly treated in this context as a unicellular photosynthetic organism. The other pairs are multicellular or colonial forms.
Q6 mcq
Which of the following pairs is of unicellular algae?
a.
Gelidium and Gracilaria
b.
Anabaena and Volvox
c.
Chlorella and Spirulina Correct Answer
d.
Laminaria and Sargassum
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Chlorella is a unicellular green alga and Spirulina is a cyanobacterium commonly grouped with unicellular algal forms in such questions.
Q7 mcq
Secondary metabolites such as nicotine, strychnine and caffeine are produced by plants for their:
a.
Growth response
b.
Defence action Correct Answer
c.
Effect on reproduction
d.
Nutritive value
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
These secondary metabolites mainly act as protective compounds against herbivores and pathogens.
Q7 mcq
Secondary metabolites such as nicotine, strychnine and caffeine are produced by plants for their:
a.
Growth response
b.
Defence action Correct Answer
c.
Effect on reproduction
d.
Nutritive value
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
These alkaloids act mainly as defensive compounds against herbivores and pathogens.
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Q8 mcq
By which method was a new breed ‘Hisardale’ of sheep formed by using Bikaneri ewes and Marino rams?
a.
Mutational breeding
b.
Cross breeding
c.
Inbreeding
d.
Out crossing
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Q8 mcq
By which method was a new breed ‘Hisardale’ of sheep formed by using Bikaneri ewes and Marino rams?
a.
Mutational breeding
b.
Cross breeding
c.
Inbreeding
d.
Out crossing
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Q9 mcq
The infectious stage of Plasmodium that enters the human body is:
a.
Sporozoites
b.
Female gametocytes
c.
Male gametocytes
d.
Trophozoites
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Q9 mcq
The infectious stage of Plasmodium that enters the human body is:
a.
Sporozoites
b.
Female gametocytes
c.
Male gametocytes
d.
Trophozoites
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Q10 mcq
The process responsible for facilitating loss of water in liquid form from the tip of grass blades at night and in early morning is:
a.
Root pressure
b.
Imbibition
c.
Plasmolysis
d.
Transpiration
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Q10 mcq
The process responsible for facilitating loss of water in liquid form from the tip of grass blades at night and in early morning is:
a.
Root pressure
b.
Imbibition
c.
Plasmolysis
d.
Transpiration
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Q11 mcq
From his experiments, S.L. Miller produced amino acids by mixing the following in a closed flask:
a.
CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapour at 800°C
b.
CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapour at 600°C
c.
CH3, H2, NH3 and water vapour at 600°C
d.
CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapour at 800°C
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Q12 mcq
In relation to Gross primary productivity and Net primary productivity of an ecosystem, which one of the following statements is correct?
a.
Gross primary productivity is always more than net primary productivity.
b.
Gross primary productivity and Net primary productivity are one and same.
c.
There is no relationship between Gross primary productivity and Net primary productivity.
d.
Gross primary productivity is always less than net primary productivity.
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Q13 mcq
The sequence that controls the copy number of the linked DNA in the vector is termed:
a.
Ori site
b.
Palindromic sequence
c.
Recognition site
d.
Selectable marker
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Q14 mcq
Cuboidal epithelium with brush border of microvilli is found in:
a.
ducts of salivary glands
b.
proximal convoluted tubule of nephron
c.
eustachian tube
d.
lining of intestine
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Q15 mcq
The body of the ovule is fused within the funicle at:
a.
Micropyle
b.
Nucellus
c.
Chalaza
d.
Hilum
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Q16 mcq
In light reaction, plastoquinone facilitates the transfer of electrons from:
a.
Cytochrome b6f complex to PS-I
b.
PS-I to NADP+
c.
PS-I to ATP synthase
d.
PS-II to cytochrome b6f complex
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Q17 mcq
Match the following diseases with the causative organism and select the correct option. Column I: (a) Typhoid, (b) Pneumonia, (c) Filariasis, (d) Malaria Column II: (i) Wuchereria, (ii) Plasmodium, (iii) Salmonella, (iv) Haemophilus
a.
(iii)(iv)(i)(ii)
b.
(ii)(i)(iii)(iv)
c.
(iv)(i)(ii)(iii)
d.
(i)(iii)(ii)(iv)
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Q18 mcq
Match the following columns and select the correct option. Column I: (a) Clostridium butylicum, (b) Trichoderma polysporum, (c) Monascus purpureus, (d) Aspergillus niger Column II: (i) Cyclosporin-A, (ii) Butyric acid, (iii) Citric acid, (iv) Blood cholesterol lowering agent
a.
(ii)(i)(iv)(iii)
b.
(i)(ii)(iv)(iii)
c.
(iv)(iii)(ii)(i)
d.
(iii)(iv)(ii)(i)
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Q19 mcq
Which of the following statements are true for the phylum Chordata? (a) In Urochordata notochord extends from head to tail and is present throughout life. (b) In Vertebrata notochord is present during the embryonic period only. (c) Central nervous system is dorsal and hollow. (d) Chordata is divided into 3 subphyla: Hemichordata, Tunicata and Cephalochordata.
a.
(c) and (a)
b.
(a) and (b)
c.
(b) and (c)
d.
(d) and (c)
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Q20 mcq
Goblet cells of alimentary canal are modified from:
a.
Columnar epithelial cells
b.
Chondrocytes
c.
Compound epithelial cells
d.
Squamous epithelial cells
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Q21 mcq
Which of the following is not an inhibitory substance governing seed dormancy?
a.
Abscisic acid
b.
Phenolic acid
c.
Para-ascorbic acid
d.
Gibberellic acid
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Q22 mcq
Name the enzyme that facilitates opening of DNA helix during transcription.
a.
DNA helicase
b.
DNA polymerase
c.
RNA polymerase
d.
DNA ligase
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Q22 mcq
Name the enzyme that facilitates opening of DNA helix during transcription.
a.
DNA helicase
b.
DNA polymerase
c.
RNA polymerase
d.
DNA ligase
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Q23 mcq
Match the following: (a) Inhibitor of catalytic activity (b) Possess peptide bonds (c) Cell wall material in fungi (d) Secondary metabolite Choose the correct option from the following: (a)(b)(c)(d)
a.
(iii)(i)(iv)(ii)
b.
(iii)(iv)(i)(ii)
c.
(ii)(iii)(i)(iv)
d.
(ii)(iv)(iii)(i)
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Q23 mcq
Match the following: (a) Inhibitor of catalytic activity (b) Possess peptide bonds (c) Cell wall material in fungi (d) Secondary metabolite Choose the correct option from the following.
a.
(iii)(i)(iv)(ii)
b.
(iii)(iv)(i)(ii)
c.
(ii)(iii)(i)(iv)
d.
(ii)(iv)(iii)(i)
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Q24 mcq
Bilaterally symmetrical and acoelomate animals are exemplified by:
a.
Platyhelminthes
b.
Aschelminthes
c.
Annelida
d.
Ctenophora
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Q24 mcq
Bilaterally symmetrical and acoelomate animals are exemplified by:
a.
Platyhelminthes
b.
Aschelminthes
c.
Annelida
d.
Ctenophora
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Q25 mcq
Presence of which of the following conditions in urine are indicative of Diabetes Mellitus?
a.
Uremia and Renal calculi
b.
Ketonuria and Glycosuria
c.
Renal calculi and Hyperglycaemia
d.
Uremia and Ketonuria
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Q25 mcq
Presence of which of the following conditions in urine are indicative of Diabetes Mellitus?
a.
Uremia and Renal calculi
b.
Ketonuria and Glycosuria
c.
Renal calculi and Hyperglycaemia
d.
Uremia and Ketonuria
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Q26 mcq
Ray florets have:
a.
Superior ovary
b.
Hypogynous ovary
c.
Half inferior ovary
d.
Inferior ovary
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Q26 mcq
Ray florets have:
a.
Superior ovary
b.
Hypogynous ovary
c.
Half inferior ovary
d.
Inferior ovary
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Q27 mcq
Identify the substances having glycosidic bond and peptide bond, respectively, in their structure:
a.
Glycerol, trypsin
b.
Cellulose, lecithin
c.
Inulin, insulin
d.
Chitin, cholesterol
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Q29 mcq
Some dividing cells exit the cell cycle and enter the vegetative inactive stage. This is called quiescent stage (G0). This process occurs at the end of:
a.
G1 phase
b.
S phase
c.
G2 phase
d.
M phase
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Q30 mcq
Identify the correct statement with regard to G1 phase (Gap 1) of interphase.
a.
Reorganisation of all cell components takes place.
b.
Cell is metabolically active, grows but does not replicate its DNA.
c.
Nuclear division takes place.
d.
DNA synthesis or replication takes place.
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Q31 mcq
The QRS complex in a standard ECG represents:
a.
Depolarisation of auricles
b.
Depolarisation of ventricles
c.
Repolarisation of ventricles
d.
Repolarisation of auricles
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Q32 mcq
If the distance between two consecutive base pairs is 0.34 nm and the total number of base pairs of a DNA double helix in a typical mammalian cell is 6.6 × 10^9 bp, then the length of the DNA is approximately:
a.
2.5 meters
b.
2.2 meters
c.
2.7 meters
d.
2.0 meters
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Q33 mcq
Which of the following regions of the globe exhibits highest species diversity?
a.
Madagascar
b.
Himalayas
c.
Amazon forests
d.
Western Ghats of India
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Q34 mcq
Which of the following is put into anaerobic sludge digester for further sewage treatment?
a.
Floating debris
b.
Effluents of primary treatment
c.
Activated sludge
d.
Primary sludge
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Q35 mcq
Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex occurs during:
a.
Zygotene
b.
Diplotene
c.
Leptotene
d.
Pachytene
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Q36 mcq
Select the option including all sexually transmitted diseases.
a.
Gonorrhoea, Malaria, Genital herpes
b.
AIDS, Malaria, Filaria
c.
Cancer, AIDS, Syphilis
d.
Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Genital herpes
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Q37 mcq
Select the correct statement.
a.
Glucagon is associated with hypoglycemia.
b.
Insulin acts on pancreatic cells and adipocytes.
c.
Insulin is associated with hyperglycemia.
d.
Glucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis.
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Q38 mcq
The product(s) of reaction catalyzed by nitrogenase in root nodules of leguminous plants is/are:
a.
Nitrate alone
b.
Ammonia and oxygen
c.
Ammonia and hydrogen
d.
Ammonia alone
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Q39 mcq
In gel electrophoresis, separated DNA fragments can be visualized with the help of:
a.
Ethidium bromide in UV radiation
b.
Acetocarmine in UV radiation
c.
Ethidium bromide in infrared radiation
d.
Acetocarmine in bright blue light
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Q40 mcq
In which of the following techniques are embryos transferred to assist those females who cannot conceive?
a.
GIFT and ZIFT
b.
ICSI and ZIFT
c.
GIFT and ICSI
d.
ZIFT and IUT
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Q41 mcq
Select the correct match.
a.
Phenylketonuria - Autosomal dominant trait
b.
Sickle cell anaemia - Autosomal recessive trait, chromosome-11
c.
Thalassemia - X linked
d.
Haemophilia - Y linked
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Q41 mcq
Select the correct match.
a.
Phenylketonuria - Autosomal dominant trait
b.
Sickle cell anaemia - Autosomal recessive trait, chromosome-11
c.
Thalassemia - X linked
d.
Haemophilia - Y linked
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Q42 mcq
Which of the following is not an attribute of a population?
a.
Natality
b.
Mortality
c.
Species interaction
d.
Sex ratio
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Q42 mcq
Which of the following is not an attribute of a population?
a.
Natality
b.
Mortality
c.
Species interaction
d.
Sex ratio
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Q43 mcq
The oxygenation activity of RuBisCo enzyme in photorespiration leads to the formation of:
a.
1 molecule of 3-C compound
b.
1 molecule of 6-C compound
c.
1 molecule of 4-C compound and 1 molecule of 2-C compound
d.
2 molecules of 3-C compound
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Q43 mcq
The oxygenation activity of RuBisCO enzyme in photorespiration leads to the formation of:
a.
1 molecule of 3-C compound
b.
1 molecule of 6-C compound
c.
1 molecule of 4-C compound and 1 molecule of 2-C compound
d.
2 molecules of 3-C compound
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Q44 mcq
Match the following concerning essential elements and their functions in plants: (a) Iron (b) Zinc (c) Boron (d) Manganese (i) Photolysis of water (ii) Pollen germination (iii) Required for chlorophyll biosynthesis (iv) IAA biosynthesis Select the correct option:
a.
(iv)(iii)(ii)(i)
b.
(iii)(iv)(ii)(i)
c.
(iv)(i)(ii)(iii)
d.
(ii)(i)(iv)(iii)
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Q44 mcq
Match the following concerning essential elements and their functions in plants: (a) Iron (b) Zinc (c) Boron (d) Manganese (i) Photolysis of water (ii) Pollen germination (iii) Required for chlorophyll biosynthesis (iv) IAA biosynthesis Select the correct option:
a.
(iv)(iii)(ii)(i)
b.
(iii)(iv)(ii)(i)
c.
(iv)(i)(ii)(iii)
d.
(ii)(i)(iv)(iii)
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Q45 mcq
Which is the important site of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids in eukaryotic cells?
a.
Peroxisomes
b.
Golgi bodies
c.
Polysomes
d.
Endoplasmic reticulum
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Q45 mcq
Which is the important site of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids in eukaryotic cells?
a.
Peroxisomes
b.
Golgi bodies
c.
Polysomes
d.
Endoplasmic reticulum
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Q46 mcq
Select the correct events that occur during inspiration. (a) Contraction of diaphragm (b) Contraction of external inter-costal muscles (c) Pulmonary volume decreases (d) Intra pulmonary pressure increases
a.
(c) and (d)
b.
(a), (b) and (d)
c.
only (d)
d.
(a) and (b)
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Q47 mcq
The roots that originate from the base of the stem are:
a.
Primary roots
b.
Prop roots
c.
Lateral roots
d.
Fibrous roots
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Q48 mcq
The ovary is half inferior in:
a.
Mustard
b.
Sunflower
c.
Plum
d.
Brinjal
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Q49 mcq
Match the following columns and select the correct option. Column I Column II (a) Floating ribs (i) Located between second and seventh ribs (b) Acromion (ii) Head of the humerus (c) Scapula (iii) Clavicle (d) Glenoid cavity (iv) Do not connect with the sternum
a.
(i)(iii)(ii)(iv)
b.
(iii)(ii)(iv)(i)
c.
(iv)(iii)(i)(ii)
d.
(ii)(iv)(i)(iii)
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Q50 mcq
If the head of cockroach is removed, it may live for few days because:
a.
the cockroach does not have nervous system.
b.
the head holds a small proportion of a nervous system while the rest is situated along the ventral part of its body.
c.
the head holds a 1/3rd of a nervous system while the rest is situated along the dorsal part of its body.
d.
the supra-oesophageal ganglia of the cockroach are situated in ventral part of abdomen.
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Q51 mcq
Identify the incorrect statement.
a.
Sapwood is involved in conduction of water and minerals from root to leaf.
b.
Sapwood is the innermost secondary xylem and is lighter in colour.
c.
Due to deposition of tannins, resins, oils etc., heart wood is dark in colour.
d.
Heart wood does not conduct water but gives mechanical support.
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Q52 mcq
Bt cotton variety that was developed by the introduction of toxin gene of Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) is resistant to:
a.
Fungal diseases
b.
Plant nematodes
c.
Insect predators
d.
Insect pests
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Q54 mcq
Identify the wrong statement with regard to Restriction Enzymes.
a.
They cut the strand of DNA at palindromic sites.
b.
They are useful in genetic engineering.
c.
Sticky ends can be joined by using DNA ligases.
d.
Each restriction enzyme functions by inspecting the length of a DNA sequence.
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Q55 mcq
Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins are examples of:
a.
Convergent evolution
b.
Industrial melanism
c.
Natural selection
d.
Adaptive radiation
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Q56 mcq
Identify the wrong statement with reference to transport of oxygen.
a.
Partial pressure of CO2 can interfere with O2 binding with haemoglobin.
b.
Higher H+ concentration in alveoli favours the formation of oxyhaemoglobin.
c.
Low pCO2 in alveoli favours the formation of oxyhaemoglobin.
d.
Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is mainly related to partial pressure of O2.
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Q57 mcq
Identify the wrong statement with reference to the gene 'I' that controls ABO blood groups.
a.
A person will have only two of the three alleles.
b.
When I_A and I_B are present together, they express same type of sugar.
c.
Allele 'i' does not produce any sugar.
d.
The gene (I) has three alleles.
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Q57 mcq
Identify the wrong statement with reference to the gene ‘I’ that controls ABO blood groups.
a.
A person will have only two of the three alleles.
b.
When I_A and I_B are present together, they express same type of sugar.
c.
Allele ‘i’ does not produce any sugar.
d.
The gene (I) has three alleles.
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Q58 mcq
Identify the basic amino acid from the following.
a.
Glutamic acid
b.
Lysine
c.
Valine
d.
Tyrosine
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Q59 mcq
Name the plant growth regulator which upon spraying on sugarcane crop, increases the length of stem, thus increasing the yield of sugarcane crop.
a.
Gibberellin
b.
Ethylene
c.
Abscisic acid
d.
Cytokinin
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Q59 mcq
Name the plant growth regulator which upon spraying on sugarcane crop increases the length of stem, thus increasing the yield of sugarcane crop.
a.
Gibberellin
b.
Ethylene
c.
Abscisic acid
d.
Cytokinin
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Q60 mcq
Match the organism with its use in biotechnology. (a) Bacillus thuringiensis (b) Thermus aquaticus (c) Agrobacterium tumefaciens (d) Salmonella typhimurium Select the correct option from the following: (i) Cloning vector (ii) Construction of first rDNA molecule (iii) DNA polymerase (iv) Cry proteins
a.
(iv)(iii)(i)(ii)
b.
(iii)(ii)(iv)(i)
c.
(iii)(iv)(i)(ii)
d.
(ii)(iv)(iii)(i)
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Q60 mcq
Match the organism with its use in biotechnology. Select the correct option from the following: (a) Bacillus thuringiensis (b) Thermus aquaticus (c) Agrobacterium tumefaciens (d) Salmonella typhimurium
a.
(iv)(iii)(i)(ii)
b.
(iii)(ii)(iv)(i)
c.
(iii)(iv)(i)(ii)
d.
(ii)(iv)(iii)(i)
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Q61 mcq
Which of the following statements is correct?
a.
Adenine pairs with thymine through one H-bond.
b.
Adenine pairs with thymine through three H-bonds.
c.
Adenine does not pair with thymine.
d.
Adenine pairs with thymine through two H-bonds.
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Q62 mcq
Match the following columns and select the correct option. Column I (a) Gregarious, polyphagous pest (b) Adult with radial symmetry and larva with bilateral symmetry (c) Book lungs (d) Bioluminescence Column II (i) Asterias (ii) Scorpion (iii) Ctenoplana (iv) Locusta
a.
(iv)(i)(ii)(iii)
b.
(iii)(ii)(i)(iv)
c.
(ii)(i)(iii)(iv)
d.
(i)(iii)(ii)(iv)
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Q63 mcq
Which of the following would help in prevention of diuresis?
a.
Reabsorption of Na+ and water from renal tubules due to aldosterone
b.
Atrial natriuretic factor causes vasoconstriction
c.
Decrease in secretion of renin by JG cells
d.
More water reabsorption due to undersecretion of ADH
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Q64 mcq
Choose the correct pair from the following:
a.
Polymerases - Break the DNA into fragments
b.
Nucleases - Separate the two strands of DNA
c.
Exonucleases - Make cuts at specific positions within DNA
d.
Ligases - Join the two DNA molecules
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Q65 mcq
Identify the correct statement with reference to human digestive system.
a.
Serosa is the innermost layer of the alimentary canal.
b.
Ileum is a highly coiled part.
c.
Vermiform appendix arises from duodenum.
d.
Ileum opens into small intestine.
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Q66 mcq
Embryological support for evolution was disapproved by:
a.
Alfred Wallace
b.
Charles Darwin
c.
Oparin
d.
Karl Ernst von Baer
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Q67 mcq
Which of the following hormone levels will cause release of ovum (ovulation) from the Graafian follicle?
a.
High concentration of progesterone
b.
Low concentration of LH
c.
Low concentration of FSH
d.
High concentration of estrogen
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Q68 mcq
The specific palindromic sequence which is recognized by EcoRI is:
a.
5' - GGAACC - 3' 3' - CCTTGG - 5'
b.
5' - CTTAAG - 3' 3' - GAATTC - 5'
c.
5' - GGATCC - 3' 3' - CCTAGG - 5'
d.
5' - GAATTC - 3' 3' - CTTAAG - 5'
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Q70 mcq
Floridean starch has structure similar to:
a.
Amylopectin and glycogen
b.
Mannitol and algin
c.
Laminarin and cellulose
d.
Starch and cellulose
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Q71 mcq
Strobili or cones are found in:
a.
Pteris
b.
Marchantia
c.
Equisetum
d.
Salvinia
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Q72 mcq
How many true breeding pea plant varieties did Mendel select as pairs, which were similar except in one character with contrasting traits?
a.
2
b.
14
c.
8
d.
4
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Q73 mcq
Snow-blindness in Antarctic region is due to:
a.
Inflammation of cornea due to high dose of UV-B radiation
b.
High reflection of light from snow
c.
Damage to retina caused by infra-red rays
d.
Freezing of fluids in the eye by low temperature
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Q74 mcq
The enzyme enterokinase helps in conversion of:
a.
trypsinogen into trypsin
b.
caseinogen into casein
c.
pepsinogen into pepsin
d.
protein into polypeptides
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Q74 mcq
The enzyme enterokinase helps in conversion of:
a.
trypsinogen into trypsin
b.
caseinogen into casein
c.
pepsinogen into pepsin
d.
protein into polypeptides
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Q75 mcq
Match the following with respect to meiosis and select the correct option. (a) Zygotene (b) Pachytene (c) Diplotene (d) Diakinesis Column II: (i) Terminalization (ii) Chiasmata (iii) Crossing over (iv) Synapsis
a.
(iv)(iii)(ii)(i)
b.
(i)(ii)(iv)(iii)
c.
(ii)(iv)(iii)(i)
d.
(iii)(iv)(i)(ii)
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Q75 mcq
Match the following with respect to meiosis: (a) Zygotene (b) Pachytene (c) Diplotene (d) Diakinesis Select the correct option from the following: (a)(b)(c)(d)
a.
(iv)(iii)(ii)(i)
b.
(i)(ii)(iv)(iii)
c.
(ii)(iv)(iii)(i)
d.
(iii)(iv)(i)(ii)
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Q76 mcq
Which of the following statements about inclusion bodies is incorrect?
a.
These are involved in ingestion of food particles.
b.
They lie free in the cytoplasm.
c.
These represent reserve material in cytoplasm.
d.
They are not bound by any membrane.
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Q76 mcq
Which of the following statements about inclusion bodies is incorrect?
a.
These are involved in ingestion of food particles.
b.
They lie free in the cytoplasm.
c.
These represent reserve material in cytoplasm.
d.
They are not bound by any membrane.
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Q77 mcq
Match the following columns and select the correct option. Column I (a) Eosinophils (b) Basophils (c) Neutrophils (d) Lymphocytes Column II (i) Immune response (ii) Phagocytosis (iii) Release histaminase, destructive enzymes (iv) Release granules containing histamine
a.
(iv)(i)(ii)(iii)
b.
(i)(ii)(iv)(iii)
c.
(ii)(i)(iii)(iv)
d.
(iii)(iv)(ii)(i)
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Q77 mcq
Match the following columns and select the correct option. Column I / Column II (a) Eosinophils (b) Basophils (c) Neutrophils (d) Lymphocytes
a.
(iv)(i)(ii)(iii)
b.
(i)(ii)(iv)(iii)
c.
(ii)(i)(iii)(iv)
d.
(iii)(iv)(ii)(i)
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Q78 mcq
The transverse section of a plant shows the following anatomical features: (a) Large number of scattered vascular bundles surrounded by bundle sheath. (b) Large conspicuous parenchymatous ground tissue. (c) Vascular bundles conjoint and closed. (d) Phloem parenchyma absent. Identify the category of plant and its part:
a.
Monocotyledonous root
b.
Dicotyledonous stem
c.
Dicotyledonous root
d.
Monocotyledonous stem
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Q79 mcq
Match the following columns and select the correct option. Column I / Column II (a) Pituitary gland (b) Thyroid gland (c) Adrenal gland (d) Pancreas
a.
(iii)(ii)(i)(iv)
b.
(iii)(i)(iv)(ii)
c.
(ii)(i)(iv)(iii)
d.
(iv)(iii)(i)(ii)
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Q80 mcq
Match the following columns and select the correct option. Column I / Column II (a) Placenta (b) Zona pellucida (c) Bulbo-urethral glands (d) Leydig cells
a.
(i)(iv)(ii)(iii)
b.
(iii)(ii)(iv)(i)
c.
(ii)(iii)(iv)(i)
d.
(iv)(iii)(i)(ii)
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Q81 mcq
In water hyacinth and water lily, pollination takes place by:
a.
water currents only
b.
wind and water
c.
insects and water
d.
insects or wind
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Q82 mcq
According to Robert May, the global species diversity is about:
a.
20 million
b.
50 million
c.
7 million
d.
1.5 million
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Q83 mcq
Match the following columns and select the correct option. Column I / Column II (a) 6–15 pairs of gill slits (b) Heterocercal caudal fin (c) Air bladder (d) Poison sting
a.
(iii)(iv)(i)(ii)
b.
(iv)(ii)(iii)(i)
c.
(i)(iv)(iii)(ii)
d.
(ii)(iii)(iv)(i)
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Q84 mcq
The process of growth is maximum during:
a.
Lag phase
b.
Senescence
c.
Dormancy
d.
Log phase
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Q85 mcq
Match the following columns and select the correct option. Column I / Column II (a) Bt cotton (b) Adenosine deaminase deficiency (c) RNAi (d) PCR
a.
(iii)(ii)(i)(iv)
b.
(ii)(iii)(iv)(i)
c.
(i)(ii)(iii)(iv)
d.
(iv)(i)(ii)(iii)
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Q86 mcq
Match the following columns and select the correct option. Column I / Column II (a) Organ of Corti (b) Cochlea (c) Eustachian tube (d) Stapes
a.
(iii)(i)(iv)(ii)
b.
(iv)(ii)(i)(iii)
c.
(i)(ii)(iv)(iii)
d.
(ii)(iii)(i)(iv)
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Q87 mcq
Which one of the following is the most abundant protein in animals?
a.
Collagen
b.
Lectin
c.
Insulin
d.
Haemoglobin
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Q88 mcq
Identify the wrong statement with reference to immunity.
a.
When ready-made antibodies are directly given, it is called passive immunity.
b.
Active immunity is quick and gives full response.
c.
Foetus receives some antibodies from mother; it is an example of passive immunity.
d.
When exposed to antigen (living or dead), antibodies are produced in the host's body. It is called active immunity.
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Q88 mcq
Identify the wrong statement with reference to immunity.
a.
When ready-made antibodies are directly given, it is called passive immunity.
b.
Active immunity is quick and gives full response.
c.
Foetus receives some antibodies from mother; it is an example of passive immunity.
d.
When exposed to antigen (living or dead), antibodies are produced in the host's body. It is called active immunity.
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Q89 mcq
Montreal protocol was signed in 1987 for control of:
a.
Emission of ozone depleting substances
b.
Release of Green House gases
c.
Disposal of e-wastes
d.
Transport of genetically modified organisms from one country to another
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Q89 mcq
Montreal Protocol was signed in 1987 for control of:
a.
Emission of ozone-depleting substances
b.
Release of greenhouse gases
c.
Disposal of e-wastes
d.
Transport of genetically modified organisms from one country to another
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Q90 mcq
Match the trophic levels with their correct species examples in grassland ecosystem. (a) Fourth trophic level (b) Second trophic level (c) First trophic level (d) Third trophic level Select the correct option:
a.
(iii)(ii)(i)(iv)
b.
(iv)(iii)(ii)(i)
c.
(i)(ii)(iii)(iv)
d.
(ii)(iii)(iv)(i)
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Q90 mcq
Match the trophic levels with their correct species examples in grassland ecosystem. (a) Fourth trophic level (b) Second trophic level (c) First trophic level (d) Third trophic level (i) Crow (ii) Vulture (iii) Rabbit (iv) Grass Select the correct option:
a.
(iii)(ii)(i)(iv)
b.
(iv)(iii)(ii)(i)
c.
(i)(ii)(iii)(iv)
d.
(ii)(iii)(iv)(i)
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Q107 mcq
The solids which have the negative temperature coefficient of resistance are:
a.
insulators only
b.
semiconductors only
c.
insulators and semiconductors
d.
metals
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Q137 mcq
Which of the following is not correct about carbon monoxide?
a.
It reduces oxygen carrying ability of blood.
b.
The carboxyhaemoglobin (haemoglobin bound to CO) is less stable than oxyhaemoglobin.
c.
It is produced due to incomplete combustion.
d.
It forms carboxyhaemoglobin.
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