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NEET 2020-F2

2020 · 110 questions · First 10 Solutions Free
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Q1 mcq
Name the enzyme that facilitates opening of DNA helix during transcription.
a.
DNA polymerase
b.
RNA polymerase Correct Answer
c.
DNA ligase
d.
DNA helicase
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
RNA polymerase itself facilitates the opening of the DNA helix during transcription. It unwinds the DNA double helix at the transcription bubble as it moves along the template strand, unlike DNA replication where a separate helicase enzyme is required.
Q2 mcq
Which of the following would help in prevention of diuresis?
a.
Atrial natriuretic factor causes vasoconstriction
b.
Decrease in secretion of renin by JG cells
c.
More water reabsorption due to undersecretion of ADH
d.
Reabsorption of Na+ and water from renal tubules due to aldosterone Correct Answer
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Aldosterone promotes reabsorption of Na+ from the renal tubules, and water follows osmotically, thereby increasing water retention and preventing diuresis (excess urine production). ADH undersecretion would actually increase diuresis, not prevent it. Decreased renin would reduce angiotensin II and aldosterone, promoting diuresis. ANF causes vasodilation (not vasoconstriction) and promotes diuresis.
Q3 mcq
Meiotic division of the secondary oocyte is completed
a.
After zygote formation
b.
At the time of fusion of a sperm with an ovum Correct Answer
c.
Prior to ovulation
d.
At the time of copulation
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
The secondary oocyte is arrested at metaphase II of meiosis. Meiosis II is completed only when a sperm penetrates the secondary oocyte (fertilization), resulting in the formation of a mature ovum and a second polar body. The completion of meiosis II is thus triggered by sperm entry.
Q4 mcq
Match the following concerning essential elements and their functions in plants: (a) Iron — (i) Photolysis of water (b) Zinc — (ii) Pollen germination (c) Boron — (iii) Required for chlorophyll biosynthesis (d) Manganese — (iv) IAA biosynthesis Select the correct option.
a.
(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) Correct Answer
b.
(a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
c.
(a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
d.
(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Iron is required for chlorophyll biosynthesis (iii); Zinc is required for IAA (auxin) biosynthesis (iv); Boron is essential for pollen germination and pollen tube growth (ii); Manganese is involved in photolysis of water during the light reactions of photosynthesis (i).
Q5 mcq
Which of the following pairs is of unicellular algae?
a.
Anabaena and Volvox
b.
Chlorella and Spirulina Correct Answer
c.
Laminaria and Sargassum
d.
Gelidium and Gracilaria
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Chlorella is a unicellular green alga, and Spirulina is a unicellular (filamentous but often treated as unicellular in NCERT context) cyanobacterium. Anabaena is filamentous, Volvox is colonial, Laminaria and Sargassum are multicellular brown algae, and Gelidium and Gracilaria are multicellular red algae.
Q6 mcq
The oxygenation activity of RuBisCo enzyme in photorespiration leads to the formation of
a.
1 molecule of 6-C compound
b.
1 molecule of 4-C compound and 1 molecule of 2-C compound
c.
2 molecules of 3-C compound
d.
1 molecule of 3-C compound Correct Answer
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
During photorespiration, RuBisCo acts as an oxygenase and combines RuBP (5-C) with O2. This reaction yields one molecule of 3-phosphoglycerate (3-C compound) and one molecule of phosphoglycolate (2-C compound). The question asks specifically about the product of the oxygenation — the 3-C compound (3-phosphoglycerate) is the direct product referenced. However, as per the printed answer (4), the answer is 1 molecule of 3-C compound (3-phosphoglycerate).
Q7 mcq
Match the following columns and select the correct option. Column-I: (a) Eosinophils, (b) Basophils, (c) Neutrophils, (d) Lymphocytes Column-II: (i) Immune response, (ii) Phagocytosis, (iii) Release histaminase, destructive enzymes, (iv) Release granules containing histamine
a.
(a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
b.
(a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
c.
(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) Correct Answer
d.
(a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Eosinophils release histaminase and destructive enzymes (iii); Basophils release granules containing histamine (iv); Neutrophils are phagocytic cells (ii); Lymphocytes are responsible for immune response (i). This matches option (3): (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i).
Q8 mcq
Match the following columns and select the correct option. Column-I: (a) Placenta, (b) Zona pellucida, (c) Bulbo-urethral glands, (d) Leydig cells Column-II: (i) Androgens, (ii) Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG), (iii) Layer of the ovum, (iv) Lubrication of the penis
a.
(a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
b.
(a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i) Correct Answer
c.
(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
d.
(a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Placenta secretes hCG (ii); Zona pellucida is the layer surrounding the ovum (iii); Bulbo-urethral glands provide lubrication of the penis (iv); Leydig cells (interstitial cells) in the testes secrete androgens (i). This matches option (2): (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i).
Q8 mcq
Match the following columns and select the correct option. Column-I | Column-II (a) Placenta | (i) Androgens (b) Zona pellucida | (ii) Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG) (c) Bulbo-urethral glands | (iii) Layer of the ovum (d) Leydig cells | (iv) Lubrication of the Penis
a.
(a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i) Correct Answer
b.
(a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
c.
(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
d.
(a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Placenta secretes hCG; Zona pellucida is the glycoprotein layer surrounding the ovum; Bulbo-urethral glands produce secretions for lubrication of the penis; Leydig cells (interstitial cells) in the testes secrete androgens.
Q9 mcq
The plant parts which consist of two generations - one within the other: (a) Pollen grains inside the anther (b) Germinated pollen grain with two male gametes (c) Seed inside the fruit (d) Embryo sac inside the ovule
a.
(c) and (d)
b.
(a) and (d) Correct Answer
c.
(a) only
d.
(a), (b) and (c)
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Pollen grains (gametophyte generation) inside the anther (sporophyte generation) represent two generations one within the other. Similarly, the embryo sac (female gametophyte) inside the ovule (part of sporophyte) also represents two generations. A seed inside a fruit and a germinated pollen grain with male gametes do not represent two distinct generations one within the other in the same sense.
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Q9 mcq
The plant parts which consist of two generations — one within the other are: (a) Pollen grains inside the anther (b) Germinated pollen grain with two male gametes (c) Seed inside the fruit (d) Embryo sac inside the ovule
a.
(c) and (d)
b.
(a) and (d)
c.
(a) only
d.
(a), (b) and (c)
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Q10 mcq
Which of the following statements about inclusion bodies is incorrect?
a.
They lie free in the cytoplasm
b.
These represent reserve material in cytoplasm
c.
They are not bound by any membrane
d.
These are involved in ingestion of food particles
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Q10 mcq
Which of the following statements about inclusion bodies is incorrect?
a.
They lie free in the cytoplasm
b.
These represent reserve material in cytoplasm
c.
They are not bound by any membrane
d.
These are involved in ingestion of food particles
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Q11 mcq
Strobili or cones are found in
a.
Marchantia
b.
Equisetum
c.
Salvinia
d.
Pteris
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Q11 mcq
Strobili or cones are found in
a.
Marchantia
b.
Equisetum
c.
Salvinia
d.
Pteris
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Q12 mcq
Montreal protocol was signed in 1987 for control of
a.
Release of Green House gases
b.
Disposal of e-wastes
c.
Transport of Genetically modified organisms from one country to another
d.
Emission of ozone depleting substances
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Q13 mcq
Which of the following statements is correct?
a.
Adenine pairs with thymine through three H-bonds
b.
Adenine does not pair with thymine
c.
Adenine pairs with thymine through two H-bonds
d.
Adenine pairs with thymine through one H-bond
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Q14 mcq
The body of the ovule is fused within the funicle at
a.
Nucellus
b.
Chalaza
c.
Hilum
d.
Micropyle
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Q15 mcq
The sequence that controls the copy number of the linked DNA in the vector, is termed
a.
Palindromic sequence
b.
Recognition site
c.
Selectable marker
d.
Ori site
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Q16 mcq
Identify the wrong statement with regard to Restriction Enzymes.
a.
They are useful in genetic engineering.
b.
Sticky ends can be joined by using DNA ligases.
c.
Each restriction enzyme functions by inspecting the length of a DNA sequence.
d.
They cut the strand of DNA at palindromic sites.
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Q17 mcq
The product(s) of reaction catalyzed by nitrogenase in root nodules of leguminous plants is/are
a.
Ammonia and oxygen
b.
Ammonia and hydrogen
c.
Ammonia alone
d.
Nitrate alone
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Q18 mcq
In light reaction, plastoquinone facilitates the transfer of electrons from
a.
PS-I to NADP⁺
b.
PS-I to ATP synthase
c.
PS-II to Cytb₆f complex
d.
Cytb₆f complex to PS-I
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Q19 mcq
Which of the following hormone levels will cause release of ovum (ovulation) from the graafian follicle?
a.
Low concentration of LH
b.
Low concentration of FSH
c.
High concentration of Estrogen
d.
High concentration of Progesterone
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Q20 mcq
The first phase of translation is
a.
Aminoacylation of tRNA
b.
Recognition of an anti-codon
c.
Binding of mRNA to ribosome
d.
Recognition of DNA molecule
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Q21 mcq
The roots that originate from the base of the stem are
a.
Prop roots
b.
Lateral roots
c.
Fibrous roots
d.
Primary roots
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Q22 mcq
Identify the wrong statement with reference to transport of oxygen.
a.
Higher H⁺ concentration in alveoli favours the formation of oxyhaemoglobin
b.
Low pCO₂ in alveoli favours the formation of oxyhaemoglobin
c.
Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is mainly related to partial pressure of O₂
d.
Partial pressure of CO₂ can interfere with O₂ binding with haemoglobin
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Q23 mcq
In gel electrophoresis, separated DNA fragments can be visualized with the help of
a.
Acetocarmine in UV radiation
b.
Ethidium bromide in infrared radiation
c.
Acetocarmine in bright blue light
d.
Ethidium bromide in UV radiation
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Q24 mcq
The enzyme enterokinase helps in conversion of
a.
caseinogen into casein
b.
pepsinogen into pepsin
c.
protein into polypeptides
d.
trypsinogen into trypsin
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Q25 mcq
Experimental verification of the chromosomal theory of inheritance was done by
a.
Boveri
b.
Morgan
c.
Mendel
d.
Sutton
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Q25 mcq
Experimental verification of the chromosomal theory of inheritance was done by
a.
Boveri
b.
Morgan
c.
Mendel
d.
Sutton
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Q26 mcq
According to Robert May, the global species diversity is about
a.
50 million
b.
7 million
c.
1.5 million
d.
20 million
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Q26 mcq
According to Robert May, the global species diversity is about
a.
50 million
b.
7 million
c.
1.5 million
d.
20 million
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Q27 mcq
Match the organism with its use in biotechnology. (a) Bacillus thuringiensis | (i) Cloning vector (b) Thermus aquaticus | (ii) Construction of first rDNA molecule (c) Agrobacterium tumefaciens | (iii) DNA polymerase (d) Salmonella typhimurium | (iv) Cry proteins Select the correct option from the following:
a.
(a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
b.
(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
c.
(a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
d.
(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
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Q27 mcq
Match the organism with its use in biotechnology. (a) Bacillus thuringiensis — (i) Cloning vector (b) Thermus aquaticus — (ii) Construction of first rDNA molecule (c) Agrobacterium tumefaciens — (iii) DNA polymerase (d) Salmonella typhimurium — (iv) Cry proteins Select the correct option from the following:
a.
(a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
b.
(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
c.
(a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
d.
(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
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Q28 mcq
Identify the correct statement with regard to G₁ phase (Gap 1) of interphase.
a.
Cell is metabolically active, grows but does not replicate its DNA.
b.
Nuclear Division takes place.
c.
DNA synthesis or replication takes place.
d.
Reorganisation of all cell components takes place.
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Q28 mcq
Identify the correct statement with regard to G₁ phase (Gap 1) of interphase.
a.
Cell is metabolically active, grows but does not replicate its DNA.
b.
Nuclear Division takes place.
c.
DNA synthesis or replication takes place.
d.
Reorganisation of all cell components takes place.
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Q29 mcq
Which of the following is correct about viroids?
a.
They have DNA with protein coat
b.
They have free DNA without protein coat
c.
They have RNA with protein coat
d.
They have free RNA without protein coat
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Q30 mcq
The transverse section of a plant shows the following anatomical features: (a) Large number of scattered vascular bundles surrounded by bundle sheath (b) Large conspicuous parenchymatous ground tissue (c) Vascular bundles conjoint and closed (d) Phloem parenchyma absent Identify the category of plant and its part:
a.
Dicotyledonous stem
b.
Dicotyledonous root
c.
Monocotyledonous stem
d.
Monocotyledonous root
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Q31 mcq
From his experiments, S.L. Miller produced amino acids by mixing the following in a closed flask
a.
CH₄, H₂, NH₃ and water vapor at 600°C
b.
CH₃, H₂, NH₃ and water vapor at 600°C
c.
CH₄, H₂, NH₃ and water vapor at 800°C
d.
CH₃, H₂, NH₄ and water vapor at 800°C
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Q33 mcq
Snow-blindness in Antarctic region is due to
a.
High reflection of light from snow
b.
Damage to retina caused by infra-red rays
c.
Freezing of fluids in the eye by low temperature
d.
Inflammation of cornea due to high dose of UV-B radiation
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Q34 mcq
Some dividing cells exit the cell cycle and enter vegetative inactive stage. This is called quiescent stage (G₀). This process occurs at the end of
a.
S phase
b.
G₂ phase
c.
M phase
d.
G₁ phase
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Q35 mcq
Which of the following regions of the globe exhibits highest species diversity?
a.
Himalayas
b.
Amazon forests
c.
Western Ghats of India
d.
Madagascar
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Q36 mcq
Identify the incorrect statement.
a.
Sapwood is the innermost secondary xylem and is lighter in colour
b.
Due to deposition of tannins, resins, oils etc., heart wood is dark in colour
c.
Heart wood does not conduct water but gives mechanical support
d.
Sapwood is involved in conduction of water and minerals from root to leaf
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Q37 mcq
Floridean starch has structure similar to
a.
Mannitol and algin
b.
Laminarin and cellulose
c.
Starch and cellulose
d.
Amylopectin and glycogen
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Q38 mcq
Which of the following is not an attribute of a population?
a.
Mortality
b.
Species interaction
c.
Sex ratio
d.
Natality
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Q39 mcq
The number of substrate level phosphorylations in one turn of citric acid cycle is
a.
Two
b.
Three
c.
Zero
d.
One
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Q40 mcq
Identify the correct statement with reference to human digestive system.
a.
Ileum is a highly coiled part
b.
Vermiform appendix arises from duodenum
c.
Ileum opens into small intestine
d.
Serosa is the innermost layer of the alimentary canal
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Q41 mcq
In which of the following techniques, the embryos are transferred to assist those females who cannot conceive?
a.
ICSI and ZIFT
b.
GIFT and ICSI
c.
ZIFT and IUT
d.
GIFT and ZIFT
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Q41 mcq
In which of the following techniques, the embryos are transferred to assist those females who cannot conceive?
a.
ICSI and ZIFT
b.
GIFT and ICSI
c.
ZIFT and IUT
d.
GIFT and ZIFT
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Q42 mcq
In relation to Gross primary productivity and Net primary productivity of an ecosystem, which one of the following statements is correct?
a.
Gross primary productivity and Net primary productivity are one and same
b.
There is no relationship between Gross primary productivity and Net primary productivity
c.
Gross primary productivity is always less than net primary productivity
d.
Gross primary productivity is always more than net primary productivity
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Q42 mcq
In relation to Gross primary productivity and Net primary productivity of an ecosystem, which one of the following statements is correct?
a.
Gross primary productivity and Net primary productivity are one and same
b.
There is no relationship between Gross primary productivity and Net primary productivity
c.
Gross primary productivity is always less than net primary productivity
d.
Gross primary productivity is always more than net primary productivity
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Q43 mcq
Name the plant growth regulator which upon spraying on sugarcane crop, increases the length of stem, thus increasing the yield of sugarcane crop.
a.
Ethylene
b.
Abscisic acid
c.
Cytokinin
d.
Gibberellin
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Q43 mcq
Name the plant growth regulator which upon spraying on sugarcane crop, increases the length of stem, thus increasing the yield of sugarcane crop.
a.
Ethylene
b.
Abscisic acid
c.
Cytokinin
d.
Gibberellin
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Q44 mcq
Secondary metabolites such as nicotine, strychnine and caffeine are produced by plants for their
a.
Defence action
b.
Effect on reproduction
c.
Nutritive value
d.
Growth response
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Q45 mcq
Select the correct match
a.
Sickle cell anaemia – Autosomal recessive trait, chromosome-11
b.
Thalassemia – X linked
c.
Haemophilia – Y linked
d.
Phenylketonuria – Autosomal dominant trait
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Q46 mcq
Select the correct statement.
a.
Insulin acts on pancreatic cells and adipocytes.
b.
Insulin is associated with hyperglycemia.
c.
Glucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis.
d.
Glucagon is associated with hypoglycemia.
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Q47 mcq
Which of the following refer to correct example(s) of organisms which have evolved due to changes in environment brought about by anthropogenic action? (a) Darwin's Finches of Galapagos islands. (b) Herbicide resistant weeds. (c) Drug resistant eukaryotes. (d) Man-created breeds of domesticated animals like dogs.
a.
(b), (c) and (d)
b.
only (d)
c.
only (a)
d.
(a) and (c)
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Q48 mcq
Choose the correct pair from the following
a.
Nucleases - Separate the two strands of DNA
b.
Exonucleases - Make cuts at specific positions within DNA
c.
Ligases - Join the two DNA molecules
d.
Polymerases - Break the DNA into fragments
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Q49 mcq
Embryological support for evolution was disapproved by
a.
Charles Darwin
b.
Oparin
c.
Karl Ernst von Baer
d.
Alfred Wallace
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Q50 mcq
Goblet cells of alimentary canal are modified from
a.
Chondrocytes
b.
Compound epithelial cells
c.
Squamous epithelial cells
d.
Columnar epithelial cells
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Q51 mcq
Bt cotton variety that was developed by the introduction of toxin gene of Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) is resistant to
a.
Plant nematodes
b.
Insect predators
c.
Insect pests
d.
Fungal diseases
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Q52 mcq
Which of the following statements are true for the phylum-Chordata? (a) In Urochordata notochord extends from head to tail and it is present throughout their life. (b) In Vertebrata notochord is present during the embryonic period only. (c) Central nervous system is dorsal and hollow. (d) Chordata is divided into 3 subphyla: Hemichordata, Tunicata and Cephalochordata.
a.
(a) and (b)
b.
(b) and (c)
c.
(d) and (c)
d.
(c) and (a)
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Q53 mcq
Which of the following is put into Anaerobic sludge digester for further sewage treatment?
a.
Effluents of primary treatment
b.
Activated sludge
c.
Primary sludge
d.
Floating debris
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Q54 mcq
Identify the substances having glycosidic bond and peptide bond, respectively in their structure
a.
Cellulose, lecithin
b.
Inulin, insulin
c.
Chitin, cholesterol
d.
Glycerol, trypsin
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Q55 mcq
Match the following diseases with the causative organism and select the correct option. Column-I: (a) Typhoid, (b) Pneumonia, (c) Filariasis, (d) Malaria Column-II: (i) Wuchereria, (ii) Plasmodium, (iii) Salmonella, (iv) Haemophilus
a.
(a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
b.
(a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
c.
(a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
d.
(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
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Q56 mcq
Match the following columns and select the correct option. Column-I: (a) Clostridium butylicum, (b) Trichoderma polysporum, (c) Monascus purpureus, (d) Aspergillus niger Column-II: (i) Cyclosporin-A, (ii) Butyric Acid, (iii) Citric Acid, (iv) Blood cholesterol lowering agent
a.
(a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
b.
(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
c.
(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
d.
(a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
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Q56 mcq
Match the following columns and select the correct option. Column-I Column-II (a) Clostridium butylicum (i) Cyclosporin-A (b) Trichoderma polysporum (ii) Butyric Acid (c) Monascus purpureus (iii) Citric Acid (d) Aspergillus niger (iv) Blood cholesterol lowering agent
a.
(a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
b.
(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
c.
(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
d.
(a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
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Q57 mcq
By which method was a new breed 'Hisardale' of sheep formed by using Bikaneri ewes and Marino rams?
a.
Cross breeding
b.
Inbreeding
c.
Out crossing
d.
Mutational breeding
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Q57 mcq
By which method was a new breed 'Hisardale' of sheep formed by using Bikaneri ewes and Marino rams?
a.
Cross breeding
b.
Inbreeding
c.
Out crossing
d.
Mutational breeding
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Q58 mcq
Select the correct events that occur during inspiration. (a) Contraction of diaphragm (b) Contraction of external inter-costal muscles (c) Pulmonary volume decreases (d) Intra pulmonary pressure increases
a.
(a), (b) and (d)
b.
only (d)
c.
(a) and (b)
d.
(c) and (d)
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Q58 mcq
Select the correct events that occur during inspiration. (a) Contraction of diaphragm (b) Contraction of external inter-costal muscles (c) Pulmonary volume decreases (d) Intra pulmonary pressure increases
a.
(a), (b) and (d)
b.
Only (d)
c.
(a) and (b)
d.
(c) and (d)
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Q59 mcq
Match the following columns and select the correct option. Column-I Column-II (a) Gregarious, polyphagous pest (i) Asterias (b) Adult with radial symmetry and larva with bilateral symmetry (ii) Scorpion (c) Book lungs (iii) Ctenoplana (d) Bioluminescence (iv) Locusta
a.
(a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
b.
(a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
c.
(a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
d.
(a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
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Q60 mcq
Which is the important site of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids in eukaryotic cells?
a.
Golgi bodies
b.
Polysomes
c.
Endoplasmic reticulum
d.
Peroxisomes
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Q61 mcq
The specific palindromic sequence which is recognized by EcoRI is
a.
5'-CTTAAG-3' / 3'-GAATTC-5'
b.
5'-GGATCC-3' / 3'-CCTAGG-5'
c.
5'-GAATTC-3' / 3'-CTTAAG-5'
d.
5'-GGAACC-3' / 3'-CCTTGG-5'
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Q62 mcq
Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex occurs during
a.
Diplotene
b.
Leptotene
c.
Pachytene
d.
Zygotene
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Q63 mcq
Match the trophic levels with their correct species examples in grassland ecosystem. (a) Fourth trophic level (i) Crow (b) Second trophic level (ii) Vulture (c) First trophic level (iii) Rabbit (d) Third trophic level (iv) Grass Select the correct option.
a.
(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
b.
(a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
c.
(a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
d.
(a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
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Q64 mcq
How many true breeding pea plant varieties did Mendel select as pairs, which were similar except in one character with contrasting traits?
a.
14
b.
8
c.
4
d.
2
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Q65 mcq
Match the following columns and select the correct option. Column-I Column-II (a) Bt cotton (i) Gene therapy (b) Adenosine deaminase deficiency (ii) Cellular defence (c) RNAi (iii) Detection of HIV infection (d) PCR (iv) Bacillus thuringiensis
a.
(a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
b.
(a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
c.
(a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
d.
(a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
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Q66 mcq
Match the following columns and select the correct option. Column-I Column-II (a) 6–15 pairs of gill slits (i) Trygon (b) Heterocercal caudal fin (ii) Cyclostomes (c) Air Bladder (iii) Chondrichthyes (d) Poison sting (iv) Osteichthyes
a.
(a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
b.
(a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
c.
(a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
d.
(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
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Q67 mcq
The process of growth is maximum during
a.
Senescence
b.
Dormancy
c.
Log phase
d.
Lag phase
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Q68 mcq
Identify the wrong statement with reference to immunity. (1) Active immunity is quick and gives full response. (2) Foetus receives some antibodies from mother, it is an example for passive immunity. (3) When exposed to antigen (living or dead) antibodies are produced in the host's body. It is called 'Active immunity'. (4) When ready-made antibodies are directly given, it is called 'Passive immunity'.
a.
Active immunity is quick and gives full response.
b.
Foetus receives some antibodies from mother, it is an example for passive immunity.
c.
When exposed to antigen (living or dead) antibodies are produced in the host's body. It is called 'Active immunity'.
d.
When ready-made antibodies are directly given, it is called 'Passive immunity'.
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Q69 mcq
Match the following columns and select the correct option. Column-I Column-II (a) Floating Ribs (i) Located between second and seventh ribs (b) Acromion (ii) Head of the Humerus (c) Scapula (iii) Clavicle (d) Glenoid cavity (iv) Do not connect with the sternum
a.
(a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
b.
(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
c.
(a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
d.
(a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
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Q69 mcq
Match the following columns and select the correct option. Column-I Column-II (a) Floating Ribs (i) Located between second and seventh ribs (b) Acromion (ii) Head of the Humerus (c) Scapula (iii) Clavicle (d) Glenoid cavity (iv) Do not connect with the sternum
a.
(a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
b.
(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
c.
(a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
d.
(a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
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Q70 mcq
If the distance between two consecutive base pairs is 0.34 nm and the total number of base pairs of a DNA double helix in a typical mammalian cell is 6.6 × 10⁹ bp, then the length of the DNA is approximately
a.
2.2 meters
b.
2.7 meters
c.
2.0 meters
d.
2.5 meters
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Q70 mcq
If the distance between two consecutive base pairs is 0.34 nm and the total number of base pairs of a DNA double helix in a typical mammalian cell is 6.6 × 10⁹ bp, then the length of the DNA is approximately
a.
2.2 meters
b.
2.7 meters
c.
2.0 meters
d.
2.5 meters
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Q71 mcq
Presence of which of the following conditions in urine are indicative of Diabetes Mellitus?
a.
Ketonuria and Glycosuria
b.
Renal calculi and Hyperglycaemia
c.
Uremia and Ketonuria
d.
Uremia and Renal Calculi
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Q71 mcq
Presence of which of the following conditions in urine are indicative of Diabetes Mellitus?
a.
Ketonuria and Glycosuria
b.
Renal calculi and Hyperglycaemia
c.
Uremia and Ketonuria
d.
Uremia and Renal Calculi
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Q72 mcq
Bilaterally symmetrical and acoelomate animals are exemplified by
a.
Aschelminthes
b.
Annelida
c.
Ctenophora
d.
Platyhelminthes
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Q73 mcq
Ray florets have
a.
Hypogynous ovary
b.
Half inferior ovary
c.
Inferior ovary
d.
Superior ovary
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Q74 mcq
The infectious stage of Plasmodium that enters the human body is
a.
Female gametocytes
b.
Male gametocytes
c.
Trophozoites
d.
Sporozoites
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Q75 mcq
Which of the following statements is not correct?
a.
The functional insulin has A and B chains linked together by hydrogen bonds.
b.
Genetically engineered insulin is produced in E. coli.
c.
In man insulin is synthesised as a proinsulin.
d.
The proinsulin has an extra peptide called C-peptide.
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Q76 mcq
In water hyacinth and water lily, pollination takes place by:
a.
Wind and water
b.
Insects and water
c.
Insects or wind
d.
Water currents only
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Q77 mcq
Cuboidal epithelium with brush border of microvilli is found in
a.
Proximal convoluted tubule of nephron
b.
Eustachian tube
c.
Lining of intestine
d.
Ducts of salivary gland
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Q78 mcq
Match the following columns and select the correct option. Column-I Column-II (a) Pituitary gland (i) Grave's disease (b) Thyroid gland (ii) Diabetes mellitus (c) Adrenal gland (iii) Diabetes insipidus (d) Pancreas (iv) Addison's disease
a.
(a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
b.
(a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
c.
(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
d.
(a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
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Q79 mcq
Which one of the following is the most abundant protein in the animals?
a.
Lectin
b.
Insulin
c.
Haemoglobin
d.
Collagen
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Q80 mcq
If the head of cockroach is removed, it may live for few days because
a.
The head holds a small proportion of the nervous system while the rest is situated along the ventral part of its body.
b.
The head holds a 1/3rd of the nervous system while the rest is situated along the dorsal part of its body.
c.
The supra-oesophageal ganglia of the cockroach are situated in ventral part of abdomen.
d.
The cockroach does not have a nervous system.
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Q81 mcq
Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins are examples of
a.
Industrial melanism
b.
Natural selection
c.
Adaptive radiation
d.
Convergent evolution
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Q82 mcq
The process responsible for facilitating loss of water in liquid form from the tip of grass blades at night and in early morning is
a.
Imbibition
b.
Plasmolysis
c.
Transpiration
d.
Root pressure
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Q83 mcq
Match the following with respect to meiosis: (a) Zygotene (i) Terminalisation (b) Pachytene (ii) Chiasmata (c) Diplotene (iii) Crossing over (d) Diakinesis (iv) Synapsis Select the correct option from the following:
a.
(a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
b.
(a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
c.
(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
d.
(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
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Q84 mcq
The QRS complex in a standard ECG represents
a.
Depolarisation of ventricles
b.
Repolarisation of ventricles
c.
Repolarisation of auricles
d.
Depolarisation of auricles
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Q84 mcq
The QRS complex in a standard ECG represents
a.
Depolarisation of ventricles
b.
Repolarisation of ventricles
c.
Repolarisation of auricles
d.
Depolarisation of auricles
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Q85 mcq
Select the option including all sexually transmitted diseases.
a.
AIDS, Malaria, Filaria
b.
Cancer, AIDS, Syphilis
c.
Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Genital herpes
d.
Gonorrhoea, Malaria, Genital herpes
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Q85 mcq
Select the option including all sexually transmitted diseases.
a.
AIDS, Malaria, Filaria
b.
Cancer, AIDS, Syphilis
c.
Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Genital herpes
d.
Gonorrhoea, Malaria, Genital herpes
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Q86 mcq
Identify the wrong statement with reference to the gene 'I' that controls ABO blood groups.
a.
When I^A and I^B are present together, they express same type of sugar.
b.
Allele 'i' does not produce any sugar.
c.
The gene (I) has three alleles.
d.
A person will have only two of the three alleles.
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Q86 mcq
Identify the wrong statement with reference to the gene 'I' that controls ABO blood groups.
a.
When Iᴬ and Iᴮ are present together, they express same type of sugar.
b.
Allele 'i' does not produce any sugar.
c.
The gene (I) has three alleles.
d.
A person will have only two of the three alleles.
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Q87 mcq
Which of the following is not an inhibitory substance governing seed dormancy?
a.
Phenolic acid
b.
Para-ascorbic acid
c.
Gibberellic acid
d.
Abscisic acid
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Q87 mcq
Which of the following is not an inhibitory substance governing seed dormancy?
a.
Phenolic acid
b.
Para-ascorbic acid
c.
Gibberellic acid
d.
Abscisic acid
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Q88 mcq
Match the following columns and select the correct option. Column-I (a) Organ of Corti (b) Cochlea (c) Eustachian tube (d) Stapes Column-II (i) Connects middle ear and pharynx (ii) Coiled part of the labyrinth (iii) Attached to the oval window (iv) Located on the basilar membrane
a.
(a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
b.
(a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
c.
(a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
d.
(a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
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Q89 mcq
The ovary is half inferior in:
a.
Sunflower
b.
Plum
c.
Brinjal
d.
Mustard
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Q90 mcq
Match the following: (a) Inhibitor of catalytic activity (b) Possess peptide bonds (c) Cell wall material in fungi (d) Secondary metabolite (i) Ricin (ii) Malonate (iii) Chitin (iv) Collagen Choose the correct option from the following:
a.
(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
b.
(a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
c.
(a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
d.
(a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
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