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NEET 2020-E1

2020 · 111 questions · First 10 Solutions Free
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Q1 mcq
Which of the following is not an attribute of a population?
a.
Sex ratio
b.
Natality
c.
Mortality
d.
Species interaction Correct Answer
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Sex ratio, natality, and mortality are population attributes. Species interaction is an ecological relationship between different species, not an attribute of a single population.
Q2 mcq
The process of growth is maximum during
a.
Log phase Correct Answer
b.
Lag phase
c.
Senescence
d.
Dormancy
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
In a population growth curve, the exponential or log phase shows the maximum growth rate.
Q3 mcq
The roots that originate from the base of the stem are
a.
Fibrous roots Correct Answer
b.
Primary roots
c.
Prop roots
d.
Lateral roots
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Fibrous root systems arise from the base of the stem, typically in monocots.
Q4 mcq
Match the following diseases with the causative organism and select the correct option.
a.
(a) Typhoid – (i) Wuchereria; (b) Pneumonia – (iii) Salmonella; (c) Filariasis – (ii) Plasmodium; (d) Malaria – (iv) Haemophilus
b.
(a) Typhoid – (iii) Salmonella; (b) Pneumonia – (iv) Haemophilus; (c) Filariasis – (i) Wuchereria; (d) Malaria – (ii) Plasmodium Correct Answer
c.
(a) Typhoid – (ii) Plasmodium; (b) Pneumonia – (i) Wuchereria; (c) Filariasis – (iii) Salmonella; (d) Malaria – (iv) Haemophilus
d.
(a) Typhoid – (iv) Haemophilus; (b) Pneumonia – (i) Wuchereria; (c) Filariasis – (ii) Plasmodium; (d) Malaria – (iii) Salmonella
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Typhoid is caused by Salmonella, pneumonia by Haemophilus influenzae, filariasis by Wuchereria, and malaria by Plasmodium.
Q5 mcq
In which of the following techniques are the embryos transferred to assist those females who cannot conceive?
a.
ZIFT and IUT Correct Answer
b.
GIFT and ZIFT
c.
ICSI and ZIFT
d.
GIFT and ICSI
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Embryo transfer is done in ZIFT (zygote/early embryo transferred to fallopian tube) and IUT (embryo transferred to uterus).
Q6 mcq
Identify the wrong statement with reference to the gene 'I' that controls ABO blood groups.
a.
The gene I has three alleles.
b.
A person will have only two of the three alleles.
c.
When Iᵉ and Iᵃ are present together, they express same type of sugar. Correct Answer
d.
Allele 'i' does not produce any sugar.
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Iᵃ and Iᵂ are codominant but they produce different antigens/sugars on the RBC surface; they do not express the same type of sugar.
Q7 mcq
Choose the correct pair from the following
a.
Ligases - Join the two DNA molecules Correct Answer
b.
Polymerases - Break the DNA into fragments
c.
Nucleases - Separate the two strands of DNA
d.
Exonucleases - Make cuts at specific positions within DNA
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
DNA ligase joins DNA fragments by forming phosphodiester bonds. The other options are mismatched with enzyme functions.
Q8 mcq
Select the correct match
a.
Haemophilia – Y linked
b.
Phenylketonuria – Autosomal dominant trait
c.
Sickle cell anaemia – Autosomal recessive trait, chromosome-11 Correct Answer
d.
Thalassemia – X linked
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Sickle cell anaemia is an autosomal recessive disorder caused by mutation in the beta-globin gene on chromosome 11.
Q9 mcq
Match the following columns and select the correct option.
a.
(a) Gregarious, polyphagous pest – (i) Asterias; (b) Adult with radial symmetry and larva with bilateral symmetry – (iii) Ctenoplana; (c) Book lungs – (ii) Scorpion; (d) Bioluminescence – (iv) Locusta
b.
(a) Gregarious, polyphagous pest – (iv) Locusta; (b) Adult with radial symmetry and larva with bilateral symmetry – (i) Asterias; (c) Book lungs – (ii) Scorpion; (d) Bioluminescence – (iii) Ctenoplana Correct Answer
c.
(a) Gregarious, polyphagous pest – (iii) Ctenoplana; (b) Adult with radial symmetry and larva with bilateral symmetry – (ii) Scorpion; (c) Book lungs – (i) Asterias; (d) Bioluminescence – (iv) Locusta
d.
(a) Gregarious, polyphagous pest – (ii) Scorpion; (b) Adult with radial symmetry and larva with bilateral symmetry – (i) Asterias; (c) Book lungs – (iii) Ctenoplana; (d) Bioluminescence – (iv) Locusta
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Locusta is a gregarious polyphagous pest; Asterias shows radial symmetry as adult and bilateral symmetry in larva; scorpion has book lungs; Ctenoplana is bioluminescent.
Q10 mcq
The infectious stage of Plasmodium that enters the human body is
a.
Trophozoites
b.
Sporozoites Correct Answer
c.
Female gametocytes
d.
Male gametocytes
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Sporozoites are injected into humans by the bite of an infected female Anopheles mosquito.
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Q10 mcq
The infectious stage of Plasmodium that enters the human body is
a.
Trophozoites
b.
Sporozoites
c.
Female gametocytes
d.
Male gametocytes
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Q11 mcq
Identify the substances having glycosidic bond and peptide bond, respectively in their structure.
a.
Chitin, cholesterol
b.
Glycerol, trypsin
c.
Cellulose, lecithin
d.
Inulin, insulin
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Q11 mcq
Identify the substances having glycosidic bond and peptide bond, respectively in their structure
a.
Chitin, cholesterol
b.
Glycerol, trypsin
c.
Cellulose, lecithin
d.
Inulin, insulin
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Q12 mcq
The plant parts which consist of two generations - one within the other
a.
(a) Pollen grains inside the anther
b.
(b) Germinated pollen grain with two male gametes
c.
(c) Seed inside the fruit
d.
(d) Embryo sac inside the ovule
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Q12 mcq
The plant parts which consist of two generations — one within the other:
a.
Pollen grains inside the anther
b.
Germinated pollen grain with two male gametes
c.
Seed inside the fruit
d.
Embryo sac inside the ovule
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Q13 mcq
The product(s) of reaction catalyzed by nitrogenase in root nodules of leguminous plants is/are
a.
Ammonia alone
b.
Nitrate alone
c.
Ammonia and oxygen
d.
Ammonia and hydrogen
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Q13 mcq
The product(s) of reaction catalyzed by nitrogenase in root nodules of leguminous plants is/are
a.
Ammonia alone
b.
Nitrate alone
c.
Ammonia and oxygen
d.
Ammonia and hydrogen
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Q14 mcq
Identify the correct statement with regard to G1 phase (Gap 1) of interphase.
a.
DNA synthesis or replication takes place.
b.
Reorganisation of all cell components takes place.
c.
Cell is metabolically active, grows but does not replicate its DNA.
d.
Nuclear division takes place.
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Q15 mcq
Cuboidal epithelium with brush border of microvilli is found in
a.
Lining of intestine
b.
Ducts of salivary gland
c.
Proximal convoluted tubule of nephron
d.
Eustachian tube
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Q16 mcq
Which of the following statements about inclusion bodies is incorrect?
a.
They are not bound by any membrane
b.
These are involved in ingestion of food particles
c.
They lie free in the cytoplasm
d.
These represent reserve material in cytoplasm
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Q17 mcq
Which is the important site of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids in eukaryotic cells?
a.
Endoplasmic reticulum
b.
Peroxisomes
c.
Golgi bodies
d.
Polysomes
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Q19 mcq
Identify the wrong statement with reference to transport of oxygen.
a.
Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is mainly related to partial pressure of O2
b.
Partial pressure of CO2 can interfere with O2 binding with haemoglobin
c.
Higher H+ concentration in alveoli favours the formation of oxyhaemoglobin
d.
Low pCO2 in alveoli favours the formation of oxyhaemoglobin
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Q20 mcq
Ray florets have
a.
Inferior ovary
b.
Superior ovary
c.
Hypogynous ovary
d.
Half inferior ovary
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Q23 mcq
Which of the following is put into Anaerobic sludge digester for further sewage treatment?
a.
Primary sludge
b.
Floating debris
c.
Effluents of primary treatment
d.
Activated sludge
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Q24 mcq
Select the correct events that occur during inspiration.
a.
Contraction of diaphragm
b.
Contraction of external inter-costal muscles
c.
Pulmonary volume decreases
d.
Intra pulmonary pressure increases
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Q25 mcq
If the head of cockroach is removed, it may live for few days because
a.
the supra-oesophageal ganglia of the cockroach are situated in ventral part of abdomen.
b.
the cockroach does not have nervous system.
c.
the head holds a small proportion of a nervous system while the rest is situated along the ventral part of its body.
d.
the head holds a 1/3rd of a nervous system while the rest is situated along the dorsal part of its body.
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Q25 mcq
If the head of cockroach is removed, it may live for few days because
a.
the supra-oesophageal ganglia of the cockroach are situated in ventral part of abdomen.
b.
the cockroach does not have nervous system.
c.
the head holds a small proportion of a nervous system while the rest is situated along the ventral part of its body.
d.
the head holds a 1/3rd of a nervous system while the rest is situated along the dorsal part of its body.
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Q26 mcq
Which of the following statements are true for the phylum Chordata?
a.
In Urochordata notochord extends from head to tail and it is present throughout their life.
b.
In Vertebrata notochord is present during the embryonic period only.
c.
Central nervous system is dorsal and hollow.
d.
Chordata is divided into 3 subphyla: Hemichordata, Tunicata and Cephalochordata.
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Q26 mcq
Which of the following statements are true for the phylum Chordata? (a) In Urochordata notochord extends from head to tail and it is present throughout their life. (b) In Vertebrata notochord is present during the embryonic period only. (c) Central nervous system is dorsal and hollow. (d) Chordata is divided into 3 subphyla: Hemichordata, Tunicata and Cephalochordata.
a.
(d) and (c)
b.
(c) and (a)
c.
(a) and (b)
d.
(b) and (c)
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Q27 mcq
Match the organism with its use in biotechnology. (a) Bacillus thuringiensis (b) Thermus aquaticus (c) Agrobacterium tumefaciens (d) Salmonella typhimurium Select the correct option from the following: (a) (b) (c) (d)
a.
(ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
b.
(iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
c.
(iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
d.
(iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
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Q28 mcq
Match the following concerning essential elements and their functions in plants. (a) Iron (b) Zinc (c) Boron (d) Manganese Select the correct option. (a) (b) (c) (d)
a.
(ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
b.
(iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
c.
(iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
d.
(iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
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Q29 mcq
Identify the incorrect statement.
a.
Heart wood does not conduct water but gives mechanical support
b.
Sapwood is involved in conduction of water and minerals from root to leaf
c.
Sapwood is the innermost secondary xylem and is lighter in colour
d.
Due to deposition of tannins, resins, oils etc., heart wood is dark in colour
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Q30 mcq
Match the following: (a) Inhibitor of catalytic activity (b) Possess peptide bonds (c) Cell wall material in fungi (d) Secondary metabolite Choose the correct option from the following: (a) (b) (c) (d)
a.
(ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
b.
(iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
c.
(iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
d.
(ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
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Q31 mcq
Meiotic division of the secondary oocyte is completed
a.
Prior to ovulation
b.
At the time of copulation
c.
After zygote formation
d.
At the time of fusion of a sperm with an ovum
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Q32 mcq
According to Robert May, the global species diversity is about
a.
1.5 million
b.
20 million
c.
50 million
d.
7 million
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Q33 mcq
The first phase of translation is
a.
Binding of mRNA to ribosome
b.
Recognition of DNA molecule
c.
Aminoacylation of tRNA
d.
Recognition of an anti-codon
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Q34 mcq
Which of the following regions of the globe exhibits highest species diversity?
a.
Western Ghats of India
b.
Madagascar
c.
Himalayas
d.
Amazon forests
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Q35 mcq
Which of the following statements is not correct?
a.
In man insulin is synthesised as a proinsulin
b.
The proinsulin has an extra peptide called C-peptide.
c.
The functional insulin has A and B chains linked together by hydrogen bonds.
d.
Genetically engineered insulin is produced in E. coli.
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Q36 mcq
The transverse section of a plant shows the following anatomical features: (a) Large number of scattered vascular bundles surrounded by bundle sheath (b) Large conspicuous parenchymatous ground tissue (c) Vascular bundles conjoint and closed (d) Phloem parenchyma absent Identify the category of plant and its part:
a.
Monocotyledonous stem
b.
Monocotyledonous root
c.
Dicotyledonous stem
d.
Dicotyledonous root
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Q37 mcq
Match the following columns and select the correct option. Column-I Column-II (a) 6-15 pairs of gill slits (b) Heterocercal caudal fin (c) Air bladder (d) Poison sting
a.
(ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
b.
(iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
c.
(iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
d.
(i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
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Q37 mcq
Match the following columns and select the correct option. Column-I Column-II (a) 6-15 pairs of gill slits (i) Trygon (b) Heterocercal caudal fin (ii) Cyclostomes (c) Air bladder (iii) Chondrichthyes (d) Poison sting (iv) Osteichthyes
a.
(ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
b.
(iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
c.
(iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
d.
(i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
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Q38 mcq
From his experiments, S.L. Miller produced amino acids by mixing the following in a closed flask:
a.
CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 800°C
b.
CH3, H2, NH4 and water vapor at 800°C
c.
CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 600°C
d.
CH3, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 600°C
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Q38 mcq
From his experiments, S.L. Miller produced amino acids by mixing the following in a closed flask
a.
CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 800°C
b.
CH3, H2, NH4 and water vapor at 800°C
c.
CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 600°C
d.
CH3, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 600°C
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Q39 mcq
Embryological support for evolution was disapproved by
a.
Karl Ernst von Baer
b.
Alfred Wallace
c.
Charles Darwin
d.
Oparin
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Q39 mcq
Embryological support for evolution was disapproved by
a.
Karl Ernst von Baer
b.
Alfred Wallace
c.
Charles Darwin
d.
Oparin
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Q40 mcq
The process responsible for facilitating loss of water in liquid form from the tip of grass blades at night and in early morning is
a.
Transpiration
b.
Root pressure
c.
Imbibition
d.
Plasmolysis
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Q40 mcq
The process responsible for facilitating loss of water in liquid form from the tip of grass blades at night and in early morning is
a.
Transpiration
b.
Root pressure
c.
Imbibition
d.
Plasmolysis
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Q41 mcq
Secondary metabolites such as nicotine, strychnine and caffeine are produced by plants for their
a.
Nutritive value
b.
Growth response
c.
Defence action
d.
Effect on reproduction
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Q42 mcq
The oxygenation activity of RuBisCo enzyme in photorespiration leads to the formation of
a.
2 molecules of 3-C compound
b.
1 molecule of 3-C compound
c.
1 molecule of 6-C compound
d.
1 molecule of 4-C compound and 1 molecule of 2-C compound
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Q43 mcq
Bt cotton variety that was developed by the introduction of toxin gene of Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) is resistant to
a.
Insect pests
b.
Fungal diseases
c.
Plant nematodes
d.
Insect predators
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Q44 mcq
Which of the following refer to correct example(s) of organisms which have evolved due to changes in environment brought about by anthropogenic action? (a) Darwin’s Finches of Galapagos islands. (b) Herbicide resistant weeds. (c) Drug resistant eukaryotes. (d) Man-created breeds of domesticated animals like dogs.
a.
only (a)
b.
(a) and (c)
c.
(b), (c) and (d)
d.
only (d)
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Q45 mcq
Identify the wrong statement with reference to immunity.
a.
When exposed to antigen (living or dead) antibodies are produced in the host’s body. It is called “Active immunity”.
b.
When ready-made antibodies are directly given, it is called “Passive immunity”.
c.
Active immunity is quick and gives full response.
d.
Foetus receives some antibodies from mother, it is an example for passive immunity.
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Q46 mcq
By which method was a new breed ‘Hisardale’ of sheep formed by using Bikaneri ewes and Marino rams?
a.
Out crossing
b.
Mutational breeding
c.
Cross breeding
d.
Inbreeding
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Q47 mcq
Identify the correct statement with reference to human digestive system.
a.
Ileum opens into small intestine
b.
Serosa is the innermost layer of the alimentary canal
c.
Ileum is a highly coiled part
d.
Vermiform appendix arises from duodenum
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Q48 mcq
Match the following columns and select the correct option. Column-I Column-II (a) Clostridium butylicum (i) Cyclosporin-A (b) Trichoderma polysporum (ii) Butyric Acid (c) Monascus purpureus (iii) Citric Acid (d) Aspergillus niger (iv) Blood cholesterol lowering agent
a.
(iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
b.
(ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
c.
(i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
d.
(iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
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Q49 mcq
Presence of which of the following conditions in urine are indicative of Diabetes Mellitus?
a.
Uremia and Ketonuria
b.
Uremia and Renal Calculi
c.
Ketonuria and Glycosuria
d.
Renal calculi and Hyperglycaemia
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Q50 mcq
Floridean starch has structure similar to
a.
Starch and cellulose
b.
Amylopectin and glycogen
c.
Mannitol and algin
d.
Laminarin and cellulose
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Q51 mcq
Select the option including all sexually transmitted diseases.
a.
Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Genital herpes
b.
Gonorrhoea, Malaria, Genital herpes
c.
AIDS, Malaria, Filaria
d.
Cancer, AIDS, Syphilis
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Q51 mcq
Select the option including all sexually transmitted diseases.
a.
Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Genital herpes
b.
Gonorrhoea, Malaria, Genital herpes
c.
AIDS, Malaria, Filaria
d.
Cancer, AIDS, Syphilis
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Q52 mcq
Match the following with respect to meiosis. (a) Zygotene (i) Terminalization (b) Pachytene (ii) Chiasmata (c) Diplotene (iii) Crossing over (d) Diakinesis (iv) Synapsis Select the correct option from the following:
a.
(iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
b.
(iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
c.
(i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
d.
(ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
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Q52 mcq
Match the following with respect to meiosis. (a) Zygotene (b) Pachytene (c) Diplotene (d) Diakinesis Select the correct option from the following: (a) (b) (c) (d)
a.
(iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
b.
(iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
c.
(i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
d.
(ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
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Q53 mcq
Which of the following pairs is of unicellular algae?
a.
Laminaria and Sargassum
b.
Gelidium and Gracilaria
c.
Anabaena and Volvox
d.
Chlorella and Spirulina
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Q53 mcq
Which of the following pairs is of unicellular algae?
a.
Laminaria and Sargassum
b.
Gelidium and Gracilaria
c.
Anabaena and Volvox
d.
Chlorella and Spirulina
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Q54 mcq
Which of the following hormone levels will cause release of ovum (ovulation) from the Graafian follicle?
a.
High concentration of Estrogen
b.
High concentration of Progesterone
c.
Low concentration of LH
d.
Low concentration of FSH
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Q54 mcq
Which of the following hormone levels will cause release of ovum (ovulation) from the Graafian follicle?
a.
High concentration of Estrogen
b.
High concentration of Progesterone
c.
Low concentration of LH
d.
Low concentration of FSH
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Q55 mcq
Match the following columns and select the correct option. Column-I / Column-II (a) Bt cotton (b) Adenosine deaminase deficiency (c) RNAi (d) PCR
a.
(iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
b.
(iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
c.
(ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
d.
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
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Q56 mcq
Montreal protocol was signed in 1987 for control of
a.
Transport of genetically modified organisms from one country to another
b.
Emission of ozone depleting substances
c.
Release of greenhouse gases
d.
Disposal of e-wastes
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Q57 mcq
Which of the following is correct about viroids?
a.
They have RNA with protein coat
b.
They have free RNA without protein coat
c.
They have DNA with protein coat
d.
They have free DNA without protein coat
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Q58 mcq
The ovary is half inferior in:
a.
Brinjal
b.
Mustard
c.
Sunflower
d.
Plum
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Q59 mcq
The enzyme enterokinase helps in conversion of
a.
protein into polypeptides
b.
trypsinogen into trypsin
c.
caseinogen into casein
d.
pepsinogen into pepsin
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Q60 mcq
Match the trophic levels with their correct species examples in grassland ecosystem. (a) Fourth trophic level (b) Second trophic level (c) First trophic level (d) Third trophic level Select the correct option.
a.
(ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
b.
(iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
c.
(iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
d.
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
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Q61 mcq
How many true breeding pea plant varieties did Mendel select as pairs, which were similar except in one character with contrasting traits?
a.
4
b.
2
c.
14
d.
8
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Q62 mcq
Match the following columns and select the correct option. Column-I / Column-II (a) Organ of Corti (b) Cochlea (c) Eustachian tube (d) Stapes
a.
(ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
b.
(iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
c.
(iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
d.
(i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
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Q63 mcq
In water hyacinth and water lily, pollination takes place by:
a.
Insects or wind
b.
Water currents only
c.
Wind and water
d.
Insects and water
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Q64 mcq
Name the plant growth regulator which upon spraying on sugarcane crop, increases the length of stem, thus increasing the yield of sugarcane crop.
a.
Cytokinin
b.
Gibberellin
c.
Ethylene
d.
Abscisic acid
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Q65 mcq
In light reaction, plastoquinone facilitates the transfer of electrons from
a.
PS-II to Cyt b6f complex
b.
Cyt b6f complex to PS-I
c.
PS-I to NADP+
d.
PS-I to ATP synthase
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Q66 mcq
Which of the following is not an inhibitory substance governing seed dormancy?
a.
Gibberellic acid
b.
Abscisic acid
c.
Phenolic acid
d.
Para-ascorbic acid
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Q67 mcq
Name the enzyme that facilitates opening of DNA helix during transcription.
a.
DNA ligase
b.
DNA helicase
c.
DNA polymerase
d.
RNA polymerase
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Q67 mcq
Name the enzyme that facilitates opening of DNA helix during transcription.
a.
DNA ligase
b.
DNA helicase
c.
DNA polymerase
d.
RNA polymerase
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Q68 mcq
Which of the following would help in prevention of diuresis?
a.
More water reabsorption due to undersecretion of ADH
b.
Reabsorption of Na+ and water from renal tubules due to aldosterone
c.
Atrial natriuretic factor causes vasoconstriction
d.
Decrease in secretion of renin by JG cells
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Q68 mcq
Which of the following would help in prevention of diuresis?
a.
More water reabsorption due to undersecretion of ADH
b.
Reabsorption of Na+ and water from renal tubules due to aldosterone
c.
Atrial natriuretic factor causes vasoconstriction
d.
Decrease in secretion of renin by JG cells
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Q69 mcq
In relation to Gross primary productivity and Net primary productivity of an ecosystem, which one of the following statements is correct?
a.
Gross primary productivity is always less than net primary productivity
b.
Gross primary productivity is always more than net primary productivity
c.
Gross primary productivity and Net primary productivity are one and same
d.
There is no relationship between Gross primary productivity and Net primary productivity
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Q69 mcq
In relation to gross primary productivity and net primary productivity of an ecosystem, which one of the following statements is correct?
a.
Gross primary productivity is always less than net primary productivity
b.
Gross primary productivity is always more than net primary productivity
c.
Gross primary productivity and net primary productivity are one and the same
d.
There is no relationship between gross primary productivity and net primary productivity
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Q70 mcq
Match the following columns and select the correct option. Column I Column II (a) Placenta (i) Androgens (b) Zona pellucida (ii) Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG) (c) Bulbo-urethral glands (iii) Layer of the ovum (d) Leydig cells (iv) Lubrication of the penis
a.
(iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
b.
(i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
c.
(iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
d.
(ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
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Q71 mcq
Strobili or cones are found in
a.
Salvinia
b.
Pteris
c.
Marchantia
d.
Equisetum
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Q72 mcq
Some dividing cells exit the cell cycle and enter a vegetative inactive stage. This is called quiescent stage (G0). This process occurs at the end of
a.
M phase
b.
G1 phase
c.
S phase
d.
G2 phase
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Q73 mcq
Flippers of penguins and dolphins are examples of
a.
Adaptive radiation
b.
Convergent evolution
c.
Industrial melanism
d.
Natural selection
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Q75 mcq
The QRS complex in a standard ECG represents
a.
Repolarisation of auricles
b.
Depolarisation of auricles
c.
Depolarisation of ventricles
d.
Repolarisation of ventricles
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Q76 mcq
Match the following columns and select the correct option. Column I Column II (a) Eosinophils (i) Immune response (b) Basophils (ii) Phagocytosis (c) Neutrophils (iii) Release histaminase, destructive enzymes (d) Lymphocytes (iv) Release granules containing histamine
a.
(iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
b.
(iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
c.
(i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
d.
(ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
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Q77 mcq
Which of the following statements is correct?
a.
Adenine pairs with thymine through two H-bonds
b.
Adenine pairs with thymine through one H-bond
c.
Adenine pairs with thymine through three H-bonds
d.
Adenine does not pair with thymine
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Q78 mcq
The sequence that controls the copy number of the linked DNA in the vector is termed
a.
Selectable marker
b.
Ori site
c.
Palindromic sequence
d.
Recognition site
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Q79 mcq
Identify the basic amino acid from the following.
a.
Tyrosine
b.
Glutamic acid
c.
Lysine
d.
Valine
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Q80 mcq
Match the following columns and select the correct option. Column I Column II (a) Pituitary gland (i) Grave’s disease (b) Thyroid gland (ii) Diabetes mellitus (c) Adrenal gland (iii) Diabetes insipidus (d) Pancreas (iv) Addison’s disease
a.
(iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
b.
(iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
c.
(iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
d.
(ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
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Q81 mcq
Select the correct statement.
a.
Glucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis.
b.
Glucagon is associated with hypoglycemia.
c.
Insulin acts on pancreatic cells and adipocytes.
d.
Insulin is associated with hyperglycemia.
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Q82 mcq
Which one of the following is the most abundant protein in animals?
a.
Haemoglobin
b.
Collagen
c.
Lectin
d.
Insulin
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Q82 mcq
Which one of the following is the most abundant protein in animals?
a.
Haemoglobin
b.
Collagen
c.
Lectin
d.
Insulin
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Q83 mcq
Experimental verification of the chromosomal theory of inheritance was done by
a.
Mendel
b.
Sutton
c.
Boveri
d.
Morgan
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Q83 mcq
Experimental verification of the chromosomal theory of inheritance was done by
a.
Mendel
b.
Sutton
c.
Boveri
d.
Morgan
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Q84 mcq
Match the following columns and select the correct option. Column I Column II (a) Floating ribs (i) Located between second and seventh ribs (b) Acromion (ii) Head of the humerus (c) Scapula (iii) Clavicle (d) Glenoid cavity (iv) Do not connect with the sternum
a.
(ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
b.
(i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
c.
(iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
d.
(iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
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Q84 mcq
Match the following columns and select the correct option. Column I Column II (a) Floating ribs (i) Located between second and seventh ribs (b) Acromion (ii) Head of the humerus (c) Scapula (iii) Clavicle (d) Glenoid cavity (iv) Do not connect with the sternum
a.
(a) (ii), (b) (iv), (c) (i), (d) (iii)
b.
(a) (i), (b) (iii), (c) (ii), (d) (iv)
c.
(a) (iii), (b) (ii), (c) (iv), (d) (i)
d.
(a) (iv), (b) (iii), (c) (i), (d) (ii)
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Q85 mcq
The number of substrate level phosphorylations in one turn of citric acid cycle is
a.
Zero
b.
One
c.
Two
d.
Three
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Q85 mcq
The number of substrate-level phosphorylations in one turn of citric acid cycle is
a.
Zero
b.
One
c.
Two
d.
Three
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Q86 mcq
Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex occurs during
a.
Pachytene
b.
Zygotene
c.
Diplotene
d.
Leptotene
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Q86 mcq
Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex occurs during
a.
Pachytene
b.
Zygotene
c.
Diplotene
d.
Leptotene
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Q87 mcq
Bilaterally symmetrical and acoelomate animals are exemplified by
a.
Ctenophora
b.
Platyhelminthes
c.
Aschelminthes
d.
Annelida
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Q88 mcq
The body of the ovule is fused with the funicle at
a.
Hilum
b.
Micropyle
c.
Nucellus
d.
Chalaza
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Q89 mcq
Goblet cells of the alimentary canal are modified from
a.
Squamous epithelial cells
b.
Columnar epithelial cells
c.
Chondrocytes
d.
Compound epithelial cells
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Q90 mcq
Snow-blindness in Antarctic region is due to
a.
Freezing of fluids in the eye by low temperature
b.
Inflammation of cornea due to high dose of UV-B radiation
c.
High reflection of light from snow
d.
Damage to retina caused by infra-red rays
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Q120 mcq
Which of the following is not correct about carbon monoxide?
a.
It forms carboxyhaemoglobin
b.
It reduces oxygen carrying ability of blood
c.
The carboxyhaemoglobin (haemoglobin bound to CO) is less stable than oxyhaemoglobin
d.
It is produced due to incomplete combustion
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Q120 mcq
Which of the following is not correct about carbon monoxide?
a.
It forms carboxyhaemoglobin
b.
It reduces oxygen carrying ability of blood
c.
The carboxyhaemoglobin (haemoglobin bound to CO) is less stable than oxyhaemoglobin
d.
It is produced due to incomplete combustion
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Q144 mcq
The solids which have the negative temperature coefficient of resistance are:
a.
metals
b.
insulators only
c.
semiconductors only
d.
insulators and semiconductors
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