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G1 NEET QP 2020

2020 · 70 questions · First 10 Solutions Free
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Q1 mcq
Experimental verification of the chromosomal theory of inheritance was done by:
a.
Sutton
b.
Boveri
c.
Morgan Correct Answer
d.
Mendel
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
While Sutton and Boveri proposed the theory, Thomas Hunt Morgan provided the experimental verification using Drosophila.
Q2 mcq
Select the option including all sexually transmitted diseases.
a.
Gonorrhoea, Malaria, Genital herpes
b.
AIDS, Malaria, Filaria
c.
Cancer, AIDS, Syphilis
d.
Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Genital herpes Correct Answer
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Gonorrhoea, syphilis, and genital herpes are all classic examples of sexually transmitted infections (STIs). Malaria, filaria, and cancer are not primarily sexually transmitted.
Q3 mcq
Which of the following would help in prevention of diuresis?
a.
Reabsorption of Na+ and water from renal tubules due to aldosterone Correct Answer
b.
Atrial natriuretic factor causes vasoconstriction
c.
Decrease in secretion of renin by JG cells
d.
More water reabsorption due to undersecretion of ADH
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Diuresis is increased urine production. Aldosterone promotes Na+ and water reabsorption, reducing urine volume, thus preventing diuresis.
Q4 mcq
The process of growth is maximum during:
a.
Lag phase
b.
Senescence
c.
Dormancy
d.
Log phase Correct Answer
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
In the log (exponential) phase, the rate of growth is maximum and constant.
Q5 mcq
Which of the following is a basic amino acid?
a.
Alanine
b.
Tyrosine
c.
Lysine Correct Answer
d.
Serine
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Lysine is a basic amino acid due to the presence of an extra amino group in its side chain.
Q6 mcq
In which of the following techniques, the embryos are transferred to assist those females who cannot conceive?
a.
GIFT and ZIFT
b.
ICSI and ZIFT
c.
GIFT and ICSI
d.
ZIFT and IUT Correct Answer
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
ZIFT (Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer) and IUT (Intra Uterine Transfer) are techniques where the embryo is transferred into the female body.
Q7 mcq
Name the enzyme that facilitates opening of DNA helix during transcription.
a.
DNA helicase
b.
DNA polymerase
c.
RNA polymerase Correct Answer
d.
DNA ligase
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
During transcription, DNA-dependent RNA polymerase is the enzyme that initiates the process, opens the DNA helix, and synthesizes RNA.
Q8 mcq
If the distance between two consecutive base pairs is 0.34 nm and the total number of base pairs of a DNA double helix in a typical mammalian cell is 6.6 x 10^9 bp, then the length of the DNA is approximately:
a.
2.5 meters
b.
2.2 meters Correct Answer
c.
2.7 meters
d.
2.0 meters
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Length = (Number of bp) * (Distance per bp) = (6.6 * 10^9) * (0.34 * 10^-9 m) = 2.244 meters, which is approximately 2.2 meters.
Q9 mcq
The first phase of translation is:
a.
Recognition of DNA molecule
b.
Aminoacylation of tRNA Correct Answer
c.
Recognition of an anti-codon
d.
Binding of mRNA to ribosome
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
The activation of amino acids and their attachment to their specific tRNAs (aminoacylation) is the charging step before translation begins on the ribosome.
Q10 mcq
Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins are examples of:
a.
Convergent evolution Correct Answer
b.
Industrial melanism
c.
Natural selection
d.
Adaptive radiation
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Analogous organs (different structure, same function) like the flippers of penguins and dolphins demonstrate convergent evolution.
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Q11 mcq
Identify the wrong statement with reference to the gene 'I' that controls ABO blood groups.
a.
A person will have only two of the three alleles.
b.
When IA and IB are present together, they express same type of sugar.
c.
Allele 'i' does not produce any sugar.
d.
The gene (I) has three alleles.
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Q12 mcq
Embryological support for evolution was disapproved by:
a.
Alfred Wallace
b.
Charles Darwin
c.
Oparin
d.
Karl Ernst von Baer
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Q13 mcq
Which of the following statements is correct?
a.
Adenine pairs with thymine through one H-bond.
b.
Adenine pairs with thymine through three H-bonds.
c.
Adenine does not pair with thymine.
d.
Adenine pairs with thymine through two H-bonds.
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Q14 mcq
From his experiments, S.L. Miller produced amino acids by mixing the following in a closed flask:
a.
CH3, H2, NH4 and water vapor at 800°C
b.
CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 600°C
c.
CH3, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 600°C
d.
CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 800°C
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Q15 mcq
Experimental verification of the chromosomal theory of inheritance was done by:
a.
Sutton
b.
Boveri
c.
Morgan
d.
Mendel
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Q16 mcq
From his experiments, S.L. Miller produced amino acids by mixing the following in a closed flask:
a.
CH3, H2, NH4 and water vapor at 800°C
b.
CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 600°C
c.
CH3, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 600°C
d.
CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 800°C
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Q17 mcq
Strobili or cones are found in:
a.
Pteris
b.
Marchantia
c.
Equisetum
d.
Salvinia
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Q18 mcq
Match the following columns: (a) Clostridium butylicum, (b) Trichoderma polysporum, (c) Monascus purpureus, (d) Aspergillus niger. Matches: (i) Cyclosporin-A, (ii) Butyric Acid, (iii) Citric Acid, (iv) Blood cholesterol lowering agent.
a.
(a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
b.
(a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
c.
(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
d.
(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
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Q19 mcq
Identify the wrong statement with reference to immunity.
a.
When ready-made antibodies are directly given, it is called “Passive immunity”.
b.
Active immunity is quick and gives full response.
c.
Foetus receives some antibodies from mother, it is an example for passive immunity.
d.
When exposed to antigen (living or dead) antibodies are produced in the host’s body. It is called “Active immunity”.
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Q20 mcq
Secondary metabolites such as nicotine, strychnine and caffeine are produced by plants for their:
a.
Growth response
b.
Defence action
c.
Effect on reproduction
d.
Nutritive value
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Q21 mcq
Bt cotton variety that was developed by the introduction of toxin gene of Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) is resistant to :
a.
Fungal diseases
b.
Plant nematodes
c.
Insect predators
d.
Insect pests
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Q22 mcq
Identify the wrong statement with regard to Restriction Enzymes.
a.
They cut the strand of DNA at palindromic sites.
b.
They are useful in genetic engineering.
c.
Sticky ends can be joined by using DNA ligases.
d.
Each restriction enzyme functions by inspecting the length of a DNA sequence.
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Q23 mcq
Match the following columns and select the correct option: (a) Bt cotton, (b) Adenosine deaminase deficiency, (c) RNAi, (d) PCR.
a.
1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) (Error in text mapping)
b.
2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (Error in text mapping)
c.
3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (Error in text mapping)
d.
4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
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Q24 mcq
The specific palindromic sequence which is recognized by EcoRI is:
a.
5' - GGAACC - 3' / 3'- CCTTGG-5'
b.
5' - CTTAAG - 3' / 3' - GAATTC - 5'
c.
5' - GGATCC - 3' / 3' - CCTAGG - 5'
d.
5' - GAATTC - 3' / 3' - CTTAAG - 5'
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Q25 mcq
In gel electrophoresis, separated DNA fragments can be visualized with the help of:
a.
Ethidium bromide in UV radiation
b.
Acetocarmine in UV radiation
c.
Ethidium bromide in infrared radiation
d.
Acetocarmine in bright blue light
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Q26 mcq
The sequence that controls the copy number of the linked DNA in the vector, is termed:
a.
Ori site
b.
Palindromic sequence
c.
Recognition site
d.
Selectable marker
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Q27 mcq
Montreal protocol was signed in 1987 for control of:
a.
Emission of ozone depleting substances
b.
Release of Green House gases
c.
Disposal of e-wastes
d.
Transport of Genetically modified organisms from one country to another
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Q28 mcq
Snow-blindness in Antarctic region is due to:
a.
Inflammation of cornea due to high dose of UV-B radiation
b.
High reflection of light from snow
c.
Damage to retina caused by infra-red rays
d.
Freezing of fluids in the eye by low temperature
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Q29 mcq
In water hyacinth and water lily, pollination takes place by:
a.
water currents only
b.
wind and water
c.
insects and water
d.
insects or wind
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Q30 mcq
Which of the following regions of the globe exhibits highest species diversity?
a.
Madagascar
b.
Himalayas
c.
Amazon forests
d.
Western Ghats of India
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Q31 mcq
Which of the following is put into Anaerobic sludge digester for further sewage treatment?
a.
Floating debris
b.
Effluents of primary treatment
c.
Activated sludge
d.
Primary sludge
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Q32 mcq
Which is the important site of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids in eukaryotic cells?
a.
Peroxisomes
b.
Golgi bodies
c.
Polysomes
d.
Endoplasmic reticulum
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Q33 mcq
Which of the following pairs is of unicellular algae?
a.
Gelidium and Gracilaria
b.
Anabaena and Volvox
c.
Chlorella and Spirulina
d.
Laminaria and Sargassum
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Q34 mcq
Match the following columns and select the correct option.
a.
Column I: (a) 6-15 pairs of gill slits, (b) Heterocercal caudal fin, (c) Air Bladder, (d) Poison sting; Column II: (i) Trygon, (ii) Cyclostomes, (iii) Chondrichthyes, (iv) Osteichthyes. Match: (1) (iii)(iv)(i)(ii) (2) (iv)(ii)(iii)(i) (3) (i)(iv)(iii)(ii) (4) (ii)(iii)(iv)(i)
b.
Option 1
c.
Option 2
d.
Option 4
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Q35 mcq
Bilaterally symmetrical and acoelomate animals are exemplified by:
a.
Platyhelminthes
b.
Aschelminthes
c.
Annelida
d.
Ctenophora
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Q36 mcq
Floridean starch has structure similar to:
a.
Amylopectin and glycogen
b.
Mannitol and algin
c.
Laminarin and cellulose
d.
Starch and cellulose
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Q37 mcq
Which of the following is correct about viroids?
a.
They have free RNA without protein coat.
b.
They have DNA with protein coat.
c.
They have free DNA without protein coat.
d.
They have RNA with protein coat.
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Q38 mcq
Identify the incorrect statement.
a.
Sapwood is involved in conduction of water and minerals from root to leaf.
b.
Sapwood is the innermost secondary xylem and is lighter in colour.
c.
Due to deposition of tannins, resins, oils etc., heart wood is dark in colour.
d.
Heart wood does not conduct water but gives mechanical support.
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Q39 mcq
The transverse section of a plant shows the following anatomical features: Large number of scattered vascular bundles surrounded by bundle sheath. Large conspicuous parenchymatous ground tissue. Vascular bundles conjoint and closed. Phloem parenchyma absent. Identify the category of plant and its part.
a.
Monocotyledonous root
b.
Dicotyledonous stem
c.
Dicotyledonous root
d.
Monocotyledonous stem
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Q40 mcq
The ovary is half inferior in:
a.
Mustard
b.
Sunflower
c.
Plum
d.
Brinjal
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Q41 mcq
The body of the ovule is fused within the funicle at:
a.
Micropyle
b.
Nucellus
c.
Chalaza
d.
Hilum
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Q42 mcq
Goblet cells of alimentary canal are modified from:
a.
Columnar epithelial cells
b.
Chondrocytes
c.
Compound epithelial cells
d.
Squamous epithelial cells
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Q43 mcq
The roots that originate from the base of the stem are:
a.
Primary roots
b.
Prop roots
c.
Lateral roots
d.
Fibrous roots
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Q44 mcq
Some dividing cells exit the cell cycle and enter vegetative inactive stage. This is called quiescent stage (G0). This process occurs at the end of:
a.
G1 phase
b.
S phase
c.
G2 phase
d.
M phase
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Q45 mcq
Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex occurs during:
a.
Zygotene
b.
Diplotene
c.
Leptotene
d.
Pachytene
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Q46 mcq
Which of the following hormone levels will cause release of ovum (ovulation) from the Graafian follicle?
a.
High concentration of Progesterone
b.
Low concentration of LH
c.
Low concentration of FSH
d.
High concentration of Estrogen
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Q47 mcq
Name the plant growth regulator which upon spraying on sugarcane crop, increases the length of stem, thus increasing the yield of sugarcane crop.
a.
Gibberellin
b.
Ethylene
c.
Abscisic acid
d.
Cytokinin
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Q48 mcq
Which of the following is not an inhibitory substance governing seed dormancy?
a.
Abscisic acid
b.
Phenolic acid
c.
Para-ascorbic acid
d.
Gibberellic acid
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Q49 mcq
Cuboidal epithelium with brush border of microvilli is found in:
a.
ducts of salivary glands
b.
proximal convoluted tubule of nephron
c.
eustachian tube
d.
lining of intestine
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Q50 mcq
Match the following concerning essential elements and their functions in plants: (a) Iron (i) Photolysis of water (b) Zinc (ii) Pollen germination (c) Boron (iii) Required for chlorophyll biosynthesis (d) Manganese (iv) IAA biosynthesis
a.
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
b.
(2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
c.
(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
d.
(4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
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Q51 mcq
Which of the following is not an inhibitory substance governing seed dormancy?
a.
Abscisic acid
b.
Phenolic acid
c.
Para-ascorbic acid
d.
Gibberellic acid
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Q52 mcq
The process responsible for facilitating loss of water in liquid form from the tip of grass blades at night and in early morning is:
a.
Root pressure
b.
Imbibition
c.
Plasmolysis
d.
Transpiration
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Q53 mcq
Select the correct statement.
a.
Glucagon is associated with hypoglycemia.
b.
Insulin acts on pancreatic cells and adipocytes.
c.
Insulin is associated with hyperglycemia.
d.
Glucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis.
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Q54 mcq
In light reaction, plastoquinone facilitates the transfer of electrons from :
a.
Cyt b6f complex to PS-I
b.
PS-I to NADP+
c.
PS-I to ATP synthase
d.
PS-II to Cyt b6f complex
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Q57 mcq
Identify the wrong statement with reference to transport of oxygen.
a.
Partial pressure of CO2 can interfere with O2 binding with haemoglobin.
b.
Higher H+ conc. in alveoli favours the formation of oxyhaemoglobin.
c.
Low pCO2 in alveoli favours the formation of oxyhaemoglobin.
d.
Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is mainly related to partial pressure of O2.
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Q58 mcq
Identify the correct statement with regard to G1 phase (Gap 1) of interphase.
a.
Reorganisation of all cell components takes place.
b.
Cell is metabolically active, grows but does not replicate its DNA.
c.
Nuclear Division takes place.
d.
DNA synthesis or replication takes place.
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Q59 mcq
Which of the following statements about inclusion bodies is incorrect?
a.
These are involved in ingestion of food particles.
b.
They lie free in the cytoplasm.
c.
These represent reserve material in cytoplasm.
d.
They are not bound by any membrane.
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Q60 mcq
Match the following diseases with the causative organism and select the correct option. Column-I (Disease) Column-II (Organism) (a) Typhoid (i) Wuchereria (b) Pneumonia (ii) Plasmodium (c) Filariasis (iii) Salmonella (d) Malaria (iv) Haemophilus
a.
(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
b.
(a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
c.
(a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
d.
(a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
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Q61 mcq
Meiotic division of the secondary oocyte is completed:
a.
At the time of copulation
b.
After zygote formation
c.
At the time of fusion of a sperm with an ovum
d.
Prior to ovulation
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Q66 mcq
Which of the following is not an attribute of a population?
a.
Natality
b.
Mortality
c.
Species interaction
d.
Sex ratio
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Q76 mcq
Match the following with respect to meiosis: (a) Zygotene, (b) Pachytene, (c) Diplotene, (d) Diakinesis with (i) Terminalization, (ii) Chiasmata, (iii) Crossing over, (iv) Synapsis.
a.
1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
b.
2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
c.
3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
d.
4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
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Q88 mcq
Match the following columns and select the correct option. Column - I (Cells) | Column - II (Function) (a) Eosinophils | (i) Immune response (b) Basophils | (ii) Phagocytosis (c) Neutrophils | (iii) Release histaminase, destructive enzymes (d) Lymphocytes | (iv) Release granules containing histamine
a.
(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
b.
(2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
c.
(3) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
d.
(4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
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Q89 mcq
Match the trophic levels with their correct species examples in a grassland ecosystem. (a) Fourth trophic level | (i) Crow (b) Second trophic level | (ii) Vulture (c) First trophic level | (iii) Rabbit (d) Third trophic level | (iv) Grass
a.
(a)(b)(c)(d) -> (iii)(ii)(i)(iv)
b.
(a)(b)(c)(d) -> (iv)(iii)(ii)(i)
c.
(a)(b)(c)(d) -> (i)(ii)(iii)(iv)
d.
(a)(b)(c)(d) -> (ii)(iii)(iv)(i)
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Q122 mcq
Match the following columns and select the correct option. Column I: (a) Placenta, (b) Zona pellucida, (c) Bulbo-urethral glands, (d) Leydig cells Column II: (i) Androgens, (ii) Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG), (iii) Layer of the ovum, (iv) Lubrication of the Penis
a.
(1) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
b.
(2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
c.
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
d.
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
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Q125 mcq
The enzyme enterokinase helps in conversion of:
a.
trypsinogen into trypsin
b.
caseinogen into casein
c.
pepsinogen into pepsin
d.
protein into polypeptides
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Q126 mcq
Match the following columns and select the correct option. Column I: (a) Gregarious, polyphagous pest, (b) Adult with radial symmetry and larva with bilateral symmetry, (c) Book lungs, (d) Bioluminescence Column II: (i) Asterias, (ii) Scorpion, (iii) Ctenoplana, (iv) Locusta
a.
(iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
b.
(iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
c.
(ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
d.
(i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
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Q127 mcq
Presence of which of the following conditions in urine are indicative of Diabetes Mellitus?
a.
Uremia and Renal Calculi
b.
Ketonuria and Glycosuria
c.
Renal calculi and Hyperglycaemia
d.
Uremia and Ketonuria
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Q128 mcq
Identify the basic amino acid from the following.
a.
Glutamic Acid
b.
Lysine
c.
Valine
d.
Tyrosine
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Q157 mcq
Measuring Zeta potential is useful in determining which property of colloidal solution?
a.
Solubility
b.
Stability of the colloidal particles
c.
Size of the colloidal particles
d.
Viscosity
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Q160 mcq
The number of protons, neutrons and electrons in Lu, respectively, are:
a.
104, 71 and 71
b.
71, 71 and 104
c.
175, 104 and 71
d.
71, 104 and 71
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