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NEET 2019 CODE-H1

2019 · 115 questions · First 10 Solutions Free
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Q46 mcq
A selectable marker is used to:
a.
Mark a gene on a chromosome for isolation using restriction enzyme
b.
Help in eliminating the non-transformants, so that the transformants can be regenerated Correct Answer
c.
Identify the gene for a desired trait in an alien organism
d.
Select a suitable vector for transformation in a specific crop
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Selectable markers are genes that allow selection of transformants and elimination of non-transformants, commonly by providing resistance to antibiotics or other selective agents.
Q47 mcq
Western Ghats have a large number of plant and animal species that are not found anywhere else. Which of the following terms will you use to notify such species?
a.
Keystone
b.
Endemic Correct Answer
c.
Vulnerable
d.
Threatened
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Species restricted to a particular geographic region and not found anywhere else are called endemic species.
Q48 mcq
Which of the following statements about ozone is correct?
a.
Stratospheric ozone protects us from UV radiations Correct Answer
b.
Tropospheric ozone protects us from UV radiations
c.
Stratospheric ozone is ‘bad’
d.
Tropospheric ozone is ‘good’
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Ozone in the stratosphere absorbs harmful UV radiation and is therefore called good ozone, while tropospheric ozone acts as a pollutant.
Q48 mcq
Which of the following statements about ozone is correct?
a.
Stratospheric ozone protects us from UV radiations Correct Answer
b.
Tropospheric ozone protects us from UV radiations
c.
Stratospheric ozone is 'bad'
d.
Tropospheric ozone is 'good'
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Ozone in the stratosphere is the 'good ozone' layer that absorbs harmful UV radiation. Ozone in the troposphere acts as a pollutant.
Q49 mcq
Exploration of molecular, genetic and species level diversity for novel products of economic importance is known as:
a.
Bioprospecting Correct Answer
b.
Biopiracy
c.
Bioenergetics
d.
Bioremediation
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Bioprospecting means exploring biodiversity at molecular, genetic and species levels for products of economic importance.
Q49 mcq
Exploration of molecular, genetic and species level diversity for novel products of economic importance is known as:
a.
Bioprospecting Correct Answer
b.
Biopiracy
c.
Bioenergetics
d.
Bioremediation
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Bioprospecting means exploring biodiversity at molecular, genetic and species levels to discover useful products of economic value.
Q50 mcq
Which of the following is an innovative remedy for plastic waste?
a.
Electrostatic precipitator
b.
Burning in the absence of oxygen
c.
Burying 500 m deep below soil surface
d.
Polyblend Correct Answer
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Polyblend is a fine powder of recycled plastic waste mixed with bitumen and used for road laying, making it an innovative remedy for plastic waste.
Q50 mcq
Which of the following is an innovative remedy for plastic waste?
a.
Electrostatic precipitator
b.
Burning in the absence of oxygen
c.
Burying 500 m deep below soil surface
d.
Polyblend Correct Answer
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Polyblend is a recycled plastic powder mixed with bitumen for road laying, and is used as an innovative remedy for plastic waste.
Q51 mcq
Between which among the following, the relationship is not an example of commensalism?
a.
Female wasp and fig species Correct Answer
b.
Orchid and the tree on which it grows
c.
Cattle egret and grazing cattle
d.
Sea anemone and clown fish
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Female wasp and fig species show mutualism, not commensalism. The other pairs are standard examples of commensalism.
Q52 mcq
If an agricultural field is liberally irrigated for a prolonged period of time, it is likely to face a problem of:
a.
Salinity Correct Answer
b.
Metal toxicity
c.
Alkalinity
d.
Acidity
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Prolonged irrigation without proper drainage causes waterlogging and rise of salts to the surface, leading to salinity.
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Q53 mcq
Which of the following statements about methanogens is not correct?
a.
They produce methane gas
b.
They can be used to produce biogas
c.
They are found in the rumen of cattle and their excreta
d.
They grow aerobically and breakdown cellulose-rich food
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Q54 mcq
In mung bean, resistance to yellow mosaic virus and powdery mildew were brought about by:
a.
Hybridization and selection
b.
Mutation breeding
c.
Biofortification
d.
Tissue culture
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Q55 mcq
Coca alkaloid or cocaine is obtained from:
a.
Datura
b.
Papaver somniferum
c.
Atropa belladonna
d.
Erythroxylum coca
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Q56 mcq
Among the following pairs of microbes, which pair has both the microbes that can be used as biofertilizers?
a.
Aspergillus and Cyanobacteria
b.
Aspergillus and Rhizopus
c.
Rhizobium and Rhizopus
d.
Cyanobacteria and Rhizobium
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Q57 mcq
Given below are four statements pertaining to separation of DNA fragments using gel electrophoresis. Identify the incorrect statements. (a) DNA is a negatively charged molecule and so it is loaded on gel towards the anode terminal. (b) DNA fragments travel along the surface of the gel whose concentration does not affect movement of DNA. (c) Smaller the size of DNA fragment, larger is the distance it travels through it. (d) Pure DNA can be visualized directly by exposing to UV radiation. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a.
(a), (b) and (d)
b.
(a), (c) and (d)
c.
(a), (b) and (c)
d.
(b), (c) and (d)
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Q58 mcq
An enzyme catalysing the removal of nucleotides from ends of DNA is:
a.
Protease
b.
DNA ligase
c.
Endonuclease
d.
Exonuclease
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Q59 mcq
In RNAi, the genes are silenced using:
a.
ds-DNA
b.
ds-RNA
c.
ss-DNA
d.
ss-RNA
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Q59 mcq
In RNAi, the genes are silenced using:
a.
ds-DNA
b.
ds-RNA
c.
ss-DNA
d.
ss-RNA
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Q60 mcq
Which is the most common type of embryo sac in angiosperms?
a.
Bisporic with two sequential mitotic divisions
b.
Tetrasporic with one mitotic stage of divisions
c.
Monosporic with three sequential mitotic divisions
d.
Monosporic with two sequential mitotic divisions
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Q61 mcq
From the following, identify the correct combination of salient features of genetic code:
a.
Degenerate, Non-overlapping, Non-ambiguous
b.
Universal, Non-ambiguous, Overlapping
c.
Degenerate, Overlapping, Commaless
d.
Universal, Ambiguous, Degenerate
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Q62 mcq
Which scientist experimentally proved that DNA is the sole genetic material in bacteriophage?
a.
Jacob and Monod
b.
Beadle and Tatum
c.
Mendelson and Stahl
d.
Hershey and Chase
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Q63 mcq
In the process of transcription in eukaryotes, RNA polymerase I transcribes:
a.
Precursor of mRNA, hnRNA
b.
mRNA with additional processing, capping and tailing
c.
tRNA, 5S rRNA and snRNAs
d.
rRNAs – 28S, 18S and 5.8S
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Q64 mcq
In which genetic condition does each cell in the affected person have three sex chromosomes XXY?
a.
Turner's syndrome
b.
Thalassemia
c.
Klinefelter's syndrome
d.
Phenylketonuria
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Q65 mcq
What initiation and termination factors are involved in transcription in eukaryotes?
a.
alpha and sigma, respectively
b.
sigma and rho, respectively
c.
alpha and beta, respectively
d.
beta and gamma, respectively
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Q66 mcq
Which of the following statements is correct about the origin and evolution of man?
a.
Neanderthal men lived in Asia between 1,00,000 and 40,000 years back.
b.
Agriculture came around 50,000 years back.
c.
The Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus primates existing 15 million years ago walked like men.
d.
Homo habilis probably ate meat.
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Q67 mcq
The production of gametes by the parents, the formation of zygotes, the F1 and F2 plants, can be understood using
a.
Wen diagram
b.
Pie diagram
c.
A pyramid diagram
d.
Punnett square
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Q67 mcq
The production of gametes by the parents, the formation of zygotes, the F1 and F2 plants, can be understood using
a.
Wen diagram
b.
Pie diagram
c.
A pyramid diagram
d.
Punnett square
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Q68 mcq
In Hatch and Slack pathway, the primary CO2 acceptor is
a.
Rubisco
b.
Oxaloacetic acid
c.
Phosphoglyceric acid
d.
Phosphoenol pyruvate
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Q68 mcq
In Hatch and Slack pathway, the primary CO2 acceptor is
a.
Rubisco
b.
Oxaloacetic acid
c.
Phosphoglyceric acid
d.
Phosphoenol pyruvate
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Q69 mcq
Removal of shoot tips is a very useful technique to boost the production of tea leaves. This is because:
a.
Gibberellins delay senescence of leaves.
b.
Gibberellins prevent bolting and are inactivated.
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Q69 mcq
Removal of shoot tips is a very useful technique to boost the production of tea leaves. This is because:
a.
Gibberellins delay senescence of leaves.
b.
Gibberellins prevent bolting and are inactivated.
c.
Auxins prevent leaf drop at early stages.
d.
Effect of auxins is removed and growth of lateral buds is enhanced.
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Q70 mcq
One scientist cultured Cladophora in a suspension of Azotobacter and illuminated the culture by splitting light through a prism. He observed that bacteria accumulated mainly in the region of:
a.
Blue and red light
b.
Violet and green light
c.
Indigo and green light
d.
Orange and yellow light
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Q71 mcq
In order to increase the yield of sugarcane crop, which of the following plant growth regulators should be sprayed?
a.
Cytokinins
b.
Ethylene
c.
Auxins
d.
Gibberellins
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Q72 mcq
What type of pollination takes place in Vallisneria?
a.
Male flowers are carried by water currents to female flowers at the surface of water.
b.
Pollination occurs in submerged condition by water.
c.
Flowers emerge above the surface of water and pollination occurs by insects.
d.
Flowers emerge above water surface and pollen is carried by wind.
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Q73 mcq
In which one of the following, both autogamy and geitonogamy are prevented?
a.
Maize
b.
Wheat
c.
Papaya
d.
Castor
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Q74 mcq
Match the placental types (column I) with their examples (column II). Column I: (a) Basal, (b) Axile, (c) Parietal, (d) Free central Column II: (i) Mustard, (ii) China rose, (iii) Dianthus, (iv) Sunflower Choose the correct answer from the following options:
a.
(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
b.
(a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
c.
(a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
d.
(a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
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Q75 mcq
Match the column I with column II. Column I: (a) Golgi apparatus, (b) Lysosomes, (c) Vacuoles, (d) Ribosomes Column II: (i) Synthesis of protein, (ii) Trap waste and excretory products, (iii) Formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids, (iv) Digesting biomolecules Choose the right match from options given below:
a.
(a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
b.
(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
c.
(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
d.
(a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
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Q76 mcq
Prosthetic groups differ from co-enzymes in that-
a.
They can serve as co-factors in a number of enzyme-catalyzed reactions
b.
They require metal ions for their activity
c.
They are tightly bound to apoenzymes
d.
Their association with apoenzymes is transient
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Q76 mcq
Prosthetic groups differ from co-enzymes in that—
a.
They can serve as co-factors in a number of enzyme-catalyzed reactions
b.
They require metal ions for their activity
c.
They are tightly bound to apoenzymes
d.
Their association with apoenzymes is transient
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Q77 mcq
Crossing over takes place between which chromatids and in which stage of the cell cycle?
a.
Non-sister chromatids of non-homologous chromosomes at pachytene stage of prophase I
b.
Non-sister chromatids of non-homologous chromosomes at zygotene stage of prophase I
c.
Non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes at pachytene stage of prophase I
d.
Non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes at zygotene stage of prophase I
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Q78 mcq
"Ramachandran plot" is used to confirm the structure of
a.
DNA
b.
RNA
c.
Proteins
d.
Triacylglycerides
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Q79 mcq
Which of the following is not a feature of active transport of solutes in plants?
a.
Requires ATP
b.
Occurs against concentration gradient
c.
Non-selective
d.
Occurs through membranes
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Q80 mcq
Which of the following bacteria reduce nitrate in soil into nitrogen?
a.
Nitrosomonas
b.
Nitrobacter
c.
Nitrococcus
d.
Thiobacillus
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Q81 mcq
What will be the direction of flow of water when a plant cell is placed in a hypotonic solution?
a.
No flow of water in any direction
b.
Water will flow in both directions
c.
Water will flow out of the cell
d.
Water will flow into the cell
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Q82 mcq
Where is the respiratory electron transport system (ETS) located in plants?
a.
Intermembrane space
b.
Mitochondrial matrix
c.
Outer mitochondrial membrane
d.
Inner mitochondrial membrane
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Q83 mcq
Which of the following is against the rules of ICBN?
a.
Generic and specific names should be written starting with small letters.
b.
Hand written scientific names should be underlined.
c.
Every species should have a generic name and a specific epithet.
d.
Scientific names are in Latin and should be italicized.
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Q84 mcq
Mad cow disease in cattle is caused by an organism which has:
a.
Free DNA without protein coat
b.
Inert crystalline structure
c.
Abnormally folded protein
d.
Free RNA without protein coat
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Q85 mcq
Which of the following statements is correct?
a.
Lichens are not good pollution indicators.
b.
Lichens do not grow in polluted areas.
c.
Algal component of lichens is called mycobiont.
d.
Fungal component of lichens is called phycobiont.
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Q85 mcq
Which of the following statements is correct?
a.
Lichens are not good pollution indicators.
b.
Lichens do not grow in polluted areas.
c.
Algal component of lichens is called mycobiont.
d.
Fungal component of lichens is called phycobiont.
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Q86 mcq
Match the organisms in Column I with habitats in Column II. Column I Column II (a) Halophiles (i) Hot springs (b) Thermoacidophiles (ii) Aquatic environment (c) Methanogens (iii) Guts of ruminants (d) Cyanobacteria (iv) Salty areas Select the correct answer from the options given below:
a.
(a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
b.
(a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
c.
(a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
d.
(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
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Q86 mcq
Match the organisms in Column I with habitats in Column II. Column I: (a) Halophiles, (b) Thermoacidophiles, (c) Methanogens, (d) Cyanobacteria. Column II: (i) Hot springs, (ii) Aquatic environment, (iii) Guts of ruminants, (iv) Salty areas. Select the correct answer from the options given below:
a.
(a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
b.
(a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
c.
(a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
d.
(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
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Q87 mcq
In the dicot root, the vascular cambium originates from:
a.
Intrafascicular and interfascicular tissue in a ring
b.
Tissue located below the phloem bundles and a portion of pericycle tissue above protoxylem.
c.
Cortical region
d.
Parenchyma between endodermis and pericycle
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Q88 mcq
Which of the following shows whorled phyllotaxy?
a.
Calotropis
b.
Mustard
c.
China rose
d.
Alstonia
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Q89 mcq
Regeneration of damaged growing grass following grazing is largely due to:
a.
Secondary meristem
b.
Lateral meristem
c.
Apical meristem
d.
Intercalary meristem
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Q90 mcq
Bicarpellary ovary with obliquely placed septum is seen in:
a.
Sesbania
b.
Brassica
c.
Aloe
d.
Solanum
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Q91 mcq
Select the incorrect statement regarding inbreeding.
a.
Inbreeding depression cannot be overcome by out-crossing.
b.
Inbreeding helps in elimination of deleterious alleles from the population.
c.
Inbreeding is necessary to evolve a pure line in any animal.
d.
Continued inbreeding reduces fertility and leads to inbreeding depression.
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Q92 mcq
A biocontrol agent to be a part of an integrated pest management should be:
a.
Species-specific and inactive on non-target organisms
b.
Species-specific and symbiotic
c.
Free living and broad spectrum
d.
Narrow spectrum and symbiotic
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Q93 mcq
Match the following enzymes with their functions: (a) Restriction endonuclease (b) Restriction exonuclease (c) DNA ligase (d) Taq polymerase Functions: (i) Joins the DNA fragments, (ii) Extends primers on genomic DNA template, (iii) Cuts DNA at specific position, (iv) Removes nucleotides from the ends of DNA. Select the correct option from the following:
a.
a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
b.
a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
c.
a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
d.
a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
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Q94 mcq
The two antibiotic resistance genes on vector pBR322 are for:
a.
Tetracycline and Kanamycin
b.
Ampicillin and Tetracycline
c.
Ampicillin and Chloramphenicol
d.
Chloramphenicol and Tetracycline
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Q94 mcq
The two antibiotic resistance genes on vector pBR322 are for
a.
Tetracycline and Kanamycin
b.
Ampicillin and Tetracycline
c.
Ampicillin and Chloramphenicol
d.
Chloramphenicol and Tetracycline
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Q95 mcq
Exploitation of bioresources of a nation by multinational companies without authorization from the concerned country is referred to as
a.
Biowar
b.
Bioweapon
c.
Biopiracy
d.
Bioethics
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Q95 mcq
Exploitation of bioresources of a nation by multinational companies without authorization from the concerned country is referred to as:
a.
Biowar
b.
Bioweapon
c.
Biopiracy
d.
Bioethics
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Q96 mcq
Carnivorous animals like lions and leopards occupy the same niche, but lions prey mostly on larger animals and leopards on smaller ones. This mechanism of competition is referred to as
a.
Competitive exclusion
b.
Character displacement
c.
Altruism
d.
Resource partitioning
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Q97 mcq
Decline in the population of Indian native fishes due to introduction of Clarias gariepinus in river Yamuna can be categorised as
a.
Alien species invasion
b.
Co-extinction
c.
Habitat fragmentation
d.
Over exploitation
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Q98 mcq
Match the following RNA polymerases with their transcribed products: (a) RNA polymerase I (b) RNA polymerase II (c) RNA polymerase III (i) tRNA (ii) rRNA (iii) hnRNA Select the correct option from the following:
a.
(a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i)
b.
(a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii)
c.
(a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii)
d.
(a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i)
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Q99 mcq
In a marriage between a male with blood group A and a female with blood group B, the progeny had either blood group AB or B. What could be the possible genotype of the parents?
a.
Iᴬi (Male); Iᴮi (Female)
b.
Iᴬi (Male); IᴮIᴮ (Female)
c.
IᴬIᴬ (Male); IᴮIᴮ (Female)
d.
IᴬIᴬ (Male); Iᴮi (Female)
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Q100 mcq
A population of a species invades a new area. Which of the following condition will lead to adaptive radiation?
a.
Area with many habitats occupied by a large number of species.
b.
Area with large number of habitats having very low food supply.
c.
Area with a single type of vacant habitat.
d.
Area with many types of vacant habitats.
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Q101 mcq
Identify A, B and C in the diagrammatic representation of the mechanism of hormone action.
a.
A = Protein hormone; B = Cyclic AMP; C = Hormone-receptor complex
b.
A = Steroid hormone; B = Hormone-receptor complex; C = Protein
c.
A = Protein hormone; B = Receptor; C = Cyclic AMP
d.
A = Steroid hormone; B = Receptor; C = Second messenger
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Q101 mcq
Identify A, B and C in the diagrammatic representation of the mechanism of hormone action.
a.
A = Protein hormone; B = Cyclic AMP; C = Hormone-receptor complex
b.
A = Steroid hormone; B = Hormone-receptor complex; C = Protein
c.
A = Protein hormone; B = Receptor; C = Cyclic AMP
d.
A = Steroid hormone; B = Receptor; C = Second messenger
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Q102 mcq
Humans have acquired immune system that produces antibodies to neutralize pathogens. Still innate immune system is present at the time of birth because it
a.
provides passive immunity
b.
is very specific and uses different macrophages
c.
produces memory cells for mounting fast secondary response
d.
has natural killer cells which can phagocytose and destroy microbes
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Q103 mcq
Select the correct sequence of events.
a.
Gametogenesis → Gamete transfer → Syngamy → Zygote → Cell differentiation → Cell division (Cleavage) → Organogenesis
b.
Gametogenesis → Gamete transfer → Syngamy → Zygote → Cell division (Cleavage) → Cell differentiation → Organogenesis
c.
Gametogenesis → Gamete transfer → Syngamy → Zygote → Cell division (Cleavage) → Organogenesis → Cell differentiation
d.
Gametogenesis → Syngamy → Gamete transfer → Zygote → Cell division (Cleavage) → Cell differentiation → Organogenesis
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Q104 mcq
Which of the following hormones is responsible for both the milk ejection reflex and the foetal ejection reflex?
a.
Relaxin
b.
Estrogen
c.
Prolactin
d.
Oxytocin
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Q105 mcq
No new follicles develop in the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle because:
a.
Both FSH and LH levels are low in the luteal phase.
b.
Follicles do not remain in the ovary after ovulation.
c.
FSH levels are high in the luteal phase.
d.
LH levels are high in the luteal phase.
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Q105 mcq
No new follicles develop in the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle because:
a.
Both FSH and LH levels are low in the luteal phase.
b.
Follicles do not remain in the ovary after ovulation.
c.
FSH levels are high in the luteal phase.
d.
LH levels are high in the luteal phase.
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Q106 mcq
In Australia, marsupials and placental mammals have evolved to share many similar characteristics. This type of evolution may be referred to as
a.
Convergent evolution
b.
Adaptive radiation
c.
Divergent evolution
d.
Cyclical evolution
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Q106 mcq
In Australia, marsupials and placental mammals have evolved to share many similar characteristics. This type of evolution may be referred to as
a.
Convergent Evolution
b.
Adaptive Radiation
c.
Divergent Evolution
d.
Cyclical Evolution
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Q107 mcq
Match the items of Column-I with Column-II: (a) XX-XO method of sex determination (b) XX-XY method of sex determination (c) Karyotype-45 (d) ZW-ZZ method of sex determination Column-II: (i) Turner's syndrome (ii) Female heterogametic (iii) Grasshopper (iv) Female homogametic Select the correct option from the following:
a.
(a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
b.
(a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
c.
(a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
d.
(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
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Q108 mcq
What will be the sequence of mRNA produced by the following stretch of DNA? 3′ ATGCATGCATGCATG 5′ TEMPLATE STRAND 5′ TACGTACGTACGTAC 3′ CODING STRAND
a.
3′ AUGCAUGCAUGCAUG 3′
b.
3′ AUGCAUGCAUGCAUG 5′
c.
5′ UACGUACGUACGUAC 3′
d.
3′ UACGUACGUACGUAC 5′
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Q109 mcq
Which of the following statements is not correct?
a.
In the knee-jerk reflex, stimulus is the stretching of muscle and response is its contraction
b.
An action potential in an axon does not move backward because the segment behind is in a refractory phase
c.
Depolarisation of hair cells of cochlea results in the opening of the mechanically gated potassium-ion channels
d.
Rods are very sensitive and contribute to daylight vision
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Q110 mcq
Match the following joints with the bones involved: (a) Gliding joint (b) Hinge joint (c) Pivot joint (d) Saddle joint (i) Between carpal and metacarpal of thumb (ii) Between atlas and axis (iii) Between the carpals (iv) Between humerus and ulna Select the correct option from the following:
a.
(a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
b.
(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
c.
(a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
d.
(a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
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Q111 mcq
Which of the following diseases is an autoimmune disorder?
a.
Gout
b.
Myasthenia gravis
c.
Arthritis
d.
Osteoporosis
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Q111 mcq
Which of the following diseases is an autoimmune disorder?
a.
Gout
b.
Myasthenia gravis
c.
Arthritis
d.
Osteoporosis
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Q112 mcq
Artificial light, extended work-time and reduced sleep-time disrupt the activity of –
a.
Posterior pituitary gland
b.
Thymus gland
c.
Pineal gland
d.
Adrenal gland
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Q112 mcq
Artificial light, extended work-time and reduced sleep-time disrupt the activity of:
a.
Posterior pituitary gland
b.
Thymus gland
c.
Pineal gland
d.
Adrenal gland
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Q113 mcq
Which of the following conditions will stimulate parathyroid gland to release parathyroid hormone?
a.
Rise in blood Ca2+ levels
b.
Fall in active Vitamin D levels
c.
Fall in blood Ca2+ levels
d.
Fall in bone Ca2+ levels
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Q114 mcq
Which of the following is a correct statement?
a.
IUDs suppress gametogenesis
b.
IUDs once inserted need not be replaced
c.
IUDs are generally inserted by the user herself
d.
IUDs increase phagocytosis of sperms in the uterus
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Q115 mcq
Which of the following sexually transmitted diseases do not specifically affect reproductive organs?
a.
Chlamydiasis and AIDS
b.
Genital warts and Hepatitis-B
c.
Syphilis and Genital herpes
d.
AIDS and Hepatitis B
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Q116 mcq
Select the correct statement.
a.
Expiration is initiated due to contraction of diaphragm.
b.
Expiration occurs due to external intercostal muscles.
c.
Intrapulmonary pressure is lower than the atmospheric pressure during inspiration.
d.
Inspiration occurs when atmospheric pressure is less than intrapulmonary pressure.
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Q117 mcq
The maximum volume of air a person can breathe in after a forced expiration is known as:
a.
Total Lung Capacity
b.
Expiratory Capacity
c.
Vital Capacity
d.
Inspiratory Capacity
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Q117 mcq
The maximum volume of air a person can breathe in after a forced expiration is known as:
a.
Total lung capacity
b.
Expiratory capacity
c.
Vital capacity
d.
Inspiratory capacity
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Q118 mcq
All the components of the nodal tissue are autoexcitable. Why does the SA node act as the normal pacemaker?
a.
SA node has the highest rate of depolarisation.
b.
SA node has the lowest rate of depolarisation.
c.
SA node is the only component to generate the threshold potential.
d.
Only SA node can convey the action potential to the other components.
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Q118 mcq
All the components of the nodal tissue are autoexcitable. Why does the SA node act as the normal pacemaker?
a.
SA node has the highest rate of depolarisation.
b.
SA node has the lowest rate of depolarisation.
c.
SA node is the only component to generate the threshold potential.
d.
Only SA node can convey the action potential to the other components.
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Q119 mcq
A specialised nodal tissue embedded in the lower corner of the right atrium, close to the atrioventricular septum, delays the spreading of impulses to the heart apex for about 0.1 s. This delay allows:
a.
the atria to empty completely.
b.
blood to enter aorta.
c.
the ventricles to empty completely.
d.
blood to enter pulmonary arteries.
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Q120 mcq
Match the following parts of a nephron with their function: (a) Descending limb of Henle's loop (b) Proximal convoluted tubule (c) Ascending limb of Henle's loop (d) Distal convoluted tubule (i) Reabsorption of salts only (ii) Reabsorption of water only (iii) Conditional reabsorption of sodium ions and water (iv) Reabsorption of ions, water and organic nutrients Select the correct option from the following:
a.
(a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
b.
(a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
c.
(a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
d.
(a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
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Q121 mcq
Match the items in Column-I with those in Column-II: Column-I (a) Podocytes (b) Protonephridia (c) Nephridia (d) Renal calculi Column-II (i) Crystallised oxalates (ii) Annelids (iii) Amphioxus (iv) Filtration slits Select the correct option from the following:
a.
(a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
b.
(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
c.
(a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
d.
(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
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Q122 mcq
Which of the following receptors are specifically responsible for maintenance of balance of body and posture?
a.
Crista ampullaris and macula
b.
Basilar membrane and otoliths
c.
Hair cells and organ of Corti
d.
Tectorial membrane and macula
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Q123 mcq
Which of the following cell organelles is present in the highest number in secretory cells?
a.
Lysosome
b.
Mitochondria
c.
Golgi complex
d.
Endoplasmic reticulum
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Q124 mcq
Non-membranous nucleoplasmic structures in nucleus are the site for active synthesis of:
a.
tRNA
b.
Protein synthesis
c.
mRNA
d.
rRNA
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Q124 mcq
Non-membranous nucleoplasmic structures in nucleus are the site for active synthesis of
a.
tRNA
b.
protein synthesis
c.
mRNA
d.
rRNA
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Q125 mcq
Which of the following nucleic acids is present in an organism having 70 S ribosomes only?
a.
Double stranded circular DNA with histone proteins
b.
Single stranded DNA with protein coat
c.
Double stranded circular naked DNA
d.
Double stranded DNA enclosed in nuclear membrane
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Q125 mcq
Which of the following nucleic acids is present in an organism having 70S ribosomes only?
a.
Double-stranded circular DNA with histone proteins
b.
Single-stranded DNA with protein coat
c.
Double-stranded circular naked DNA
d.
Double-stranded DNA enclosed in nuclear membrane
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Q126 mcq
After meiosis I, the resultant daughter cells have:
a.
four times the amount of DNA in comparison to haploid gamete.
b.
same amount of DNA as in the parent cell in S phase.
c.
twice the amount of DNA in comparison to haploid gamete.
d.
same amount of DNA in comparison to haploid gamete.
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Q126 mcq
After meiosis I, the resultant daughter cells have
a.
four times the amount of DNA in comparison to haploid gamete.
b.
same amount of DNA as in the parent cell in S phase.
c.
twice the amount of DNA in comparison to haploid gamete.
d.
same amount of DNA in comparison to haploid gamete.
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Q127 mcq
Which of the following organic compounds is the main constituent of lecithin?
a.
Phosphoprotein
b.
Arachidonic acid
c.
Phospholipid
d.
Cholesterol
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Q128 mcq
The main difference between active and passive transport across cell membrane is:
a.
active transport occurs more rapidly than passive transport.
b.
passive transport is non-selective whereas active transport is selective.
c.
passive transport requires a concentration gradient across a biological membrane whereas active transport requires energy to move solutes.
d.
passive transport is confined to anionic carrier proteins whereas active transport is confined to cationic channel proteins.
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Q129 mcq
Match the items given in Column-I with those in Column-II and choose the correct option. Column-I Column-II (a) Rennin (i) Vitamin B12 (b) Enterokinase (ii) Facilitated transport (c) Oxyntic cells (iii) Milk proteins (d) Fructose (iv) Trypsinogen
a.
(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
b.
(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
c.
(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
d.
(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
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Q130 mcq
Kwashiorkor disease is due to -
a.
protein deficiency not accompanied by calorie deficiency
b.
simultaneous deficiency of proteins and fats
c.
simultaneous deficiency of proteins and calories
d.
deficiency of carbohydrates
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Q131 mcq
Match the following genera with their respective phylum: (a) Ophiura (i) Mollusca (b) Physalia (ii) Platyhelminthes (c) Pinctada (iii) Echinodermata (d) Planaria (iv) Coelenterata Select the correct option:
a.
(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
b.
(a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
c.
(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
d.
(a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
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Q132 mcq
Which of the following animals are true coelomates with bilateral symmetry?
a.
Annelids
b.
Adult echinoderms
c.
Aschelminthes
d.
Platyhelminthes
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Q132 mcq
Which of the following animals are true coelomates with bilateral symmetry?
a.
Annelids
b.
Adult Echinoderms
c.
Aschelminthes
d.
Platyhelminthes
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Q133 mcq
The contrasting characteristics generally in a pair used for identification of animals in a taxonomic key are referred to as:
a.
Alternate
b.
Lead
c.
Couplet
d.
Doublet
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Q133 mcq
The contrasting characteristics generally in a pair used for identification of animals in taxonomic keys are referred to as:
a.
Alternate
b.
Lead
c.
Couplet
d.
Doublet
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Q134 mcq
Match the following cell structures with their characteristic features: (a) Tight junctions (b) Adhering junctions (c) Gap junctions (d) Synaptic junctions Select the correct option from the following:
a.
(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
b.
(a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
c.
(a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
d.
(a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
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Q135 mcq
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
a.
Female cockroach possesses sixteen ovarioles in the ovaries.
b.
Cockroaches exhibit mosaic vision with less sensitivity and more resolution.
c.
A mushroom-shaped gland is present in the 6th-7th abdominal segments of male cockroach.
d.
A pair of spermatheca is present in the 6th segment of female cockroach.
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Q165 mcq
The rate of radioactive disintegration at an instant for a radioactive sample of half-life 2.2 × 10^9 s is 10^10 s^-1. The number of radioactive atoms in that sample at that instant is:
a.
3.17 × 10^19
b.
3.17 × 10^20
c.
3.17 × 10^17
d.
3.17 × 10^18
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