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NEET 2018 CODE-YY

2018 · 115 questions · First 10 Solutions Free
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Q1 mcq
Oxygen is not produced during photosynthesis by
a.
Nostoc
b.
Cycas
c.
Green sulphur bacteria Correct Answer
d.
Chara
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Green sulphur bacteria are anoxygenic photosynthesizers — they use H₂S (not H₂O) as the electron donor, so no oxygen is released. Nostoc (cyanobacterium), Cycas (which harbours photosynthetic cyanobacteria in coralloid roots), and Chara (green alga) all perform oxygenic photosynthesis.
Q2 mcq
Which one of the following plants shows a very close relationship with a species of moth, where none of the two can complete its life cycle without the other?
a.
Yucca Correct Answer
b.
Banana
c.
Hydrilla
d.
Viola
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Yucca and the Yucca moth (Tegeticula/Pronuba) share an obligate mutualistic relationship — the moth pollinates the Yucca flower and lays eggs in the ovary; the plant provides food (seeds) for moth larvae. Neither can complete its life cycle without the other.
Q3 mcq
In which of the following forms is iron absorbed by plants?
a.
Ferrous Correct Answer
b.
Free element
c.
Ferric
d.
Both ferric and ferrous
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Plants primarily absorb iron in the ferrous form (Fe²⁺). Even when Fe³⁺ is present in soil, plant root cells reduce it to Fe²⁺ via ferric reductase before uptake through iron transporters.
Q4 mcq
Which of the following elements is responsible for maintaining turgor in cells?
a.
Sodium
b.
Potassium Correct Answer
c.
Magnesium
d.
Calcium
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Potassium (K⁺) is the principal ion responsible for maintaining turgor pressure in plant cells. It accumulates in guard cells to cause stomatal opening and plays a key role in osmotic regulation throughout the plant.
Q5 mcq
Pollen grains can be stored for several years in liquid nitrogen having a temperature of
a.
–80°C
b.
–196°C Correct Answer
c.
–120°C
d.
–160°C
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Liquid nitrogen has a temperature of –196°C. Pollen grains stored in liquid nitrogen (cryopreservation) can remain viable for years and are used in pollen banks for crop breeding programmes.
Q6 mcq
Double fertilization is
a.
Fusion of one male gamete with two polar nuclei
b.
Fusion of two male gametes with one egg
c.
Fusion of two male gametes of a pollen tube with two different eggs
d.
Syngamy and triple fusion Correct Answer
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Double fertilization in angiosperms involves two events: syngamy (fusion of one male gamete with the egg cell to form the diploid zygote) and triple fusion (fusion of the second male gamete with the two polar nuclei to form the triploid primary endosperm nucleus). Together these constitute double fertilization.
Q7 mcq
What is the role of NAD⁺ in cellular respiration?
a.
It functions as an electron carrier. Correct Answer
b.
It is a nucleotide source for ATP synthesis.
c.
It functions as an enzyme.
d.
It is the final electron acceptor for anaerobic respiration.
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
NAD⁺ acts as an electron (and hydrogen) carrier in cellular respiration. It is reduced to NADH during glycolysis and the Krebs cycle, then reoxidised in the electron transport chain, thereby shuttling electrons to drive ATP synthesis. It is not the final electron acceptor (O₂ is in aerobic; pyruvate/acetaldehyde in anaerobic), nor an enzyme.
Q8 mcq
Select the correct match:
a.
F₂ Recessive parent – Dihybrid cross
b.
T.H. Morgan – Transduction
c.
Ribozyme – Nucleic acid Correct Answer
d.
G. Mendel – Transformation
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Ribozymes are RNA molecules with catalytic activity — they are nucleic acids (RNA) that function as enzymes. T.H. Morgan is associated with linkage and chromosomal theory of inheritance (not transduction — transduction was described by Zinder and Lederberg). G. Mendel is associated with laws of inheritance, not transformation (transformation was shown by Griffith). The F₂ recessive parent ratio is linked to test cross, not specifically dihybrid cross alone.
Q9 mcq
Which of the following is commonly used as a vector for introducing a DNA fragment in human lymphocytes?
a.
Ti plasmid
b.
λ phage
c.
Retrovirus Correct Answer
d.
pBR 322
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Retroviruses are commonly used as vectors to introduce genes into human lymphocytes in gene therapy (e.g., ADA deficiency treatment). They integrate their genome into the host cell's DNA, making them effective for stable gene delivery into lymphocytes. Ti plasmid is used for plant transformation; pBR 322 is a bacterial cloning vector; λ phage is used in bacterial systems.
Q9 mcq
Which of the following is commonly used as a vector for introducing a DNA fragment in human lymphocytes?
a.
Ti plasmid
b.
λ phage
c.
Retrovirus Correct Answer
d.
pBR 322
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Retroviruses are commonly used as vectors for gene therapy in human lymphocytes because they can integrate their genetic material into the host cell genome. This property makes them suitable for introducing DNA fragments into human lymphocytes, as was done in the ADA deficiency gene therapy case.
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Q10 mcq
Use of bioresources by multinational companies and organisations without authorisation from the concerned country and its people is called
a.
Biopiracy
b.
Biodegradation
c.
Bio-infringement
d.
Bioexploitation
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Q10 mcq
Use of bioresources by multinational companies and organisations without authorisation from the concerned country and its people is called
a.
Biopiracy
b.
Biodegradation
c.
Bio-infringement
d.
Bioexploitation
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Q11 mcq
In India, the organisation responsible for assessing the safety of introducing genetically modified organisms for public use is
a.
Council for Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR)
b.
Research Committee on Genetic Manipulation (RCGM)
c.
Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)
d.
Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC)
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Q11 mcq
In India, the organisation responsible for assessing the safety of introducing genetically modified organisms for public use is
a.
Council for Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR)
b.
Research Committee on Genetic Manipulation (RCGM)
c.
Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)
d.
Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC)
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Q12 mcq
The correct order of steps in Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is
a.
Annealing, Extension, Denaturation
b.
Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
c.
Extension, Denaturation, Annealing
d.
Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
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Q12 mcq
The correct order of steps in Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is
a.
Annealing, Extension, Denaturation
b.
Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
c.
Extension, Denaturation, Annealing
d.
Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
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Q13 mcq
A 'new' variety of rice was patented by a foreign company, though such varieties have been present in India for a long time. This is related to
a.
Sharbati Sonora
b.
Lerma Rojo
c.
Co-667
d.
Basmati
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Q14 mcq
Natality refers to
a.
Birth rate
b.
Number of individuals leaving the habitat
c.
Death rate
d.
Number of individuals entering a habitat
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Q15 mcq
World Ozone Day is celebrated on
a.
21st April
b.
16th September
c.
5th June
d.
22nd April
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Q16 mcq
Which of the following is a secondary pollutant?
a.
CO₂
b.
SO₂
c.
CO
d.
O₃
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Q17 mcq
Niche is
a.
the physical space where an organism lives
b.
the range of temperature that the organism needs to live
c.
all the biological factors in the organism's environment
d.
the functional role played by the organism where it lives
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Q18 mcq
What type of ecological pyramid would be obtained with the following data? Secondary consumer : 120 g Primary consumer : 60 g Primary producer : 10 g
a.
Pyramid of energy
b.
Upright pyramid of numbers
c.
Inverted pyramid of biomass
d.
Upright pyramid of biomass
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Q19 mcq
In stratosphere, which of the following elements acts as a catalyst in degradation of ozone and release of molecular oxygen?
a.
Cl
b.
Fe
c.
Carbon
d.
Oxygen
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Q20 mcq
Which of the following pairs is wrongly matched?
a.
ABO blood grouping : Co-dominance
b.
XO type sex determination : Grasshopper
c.
Starch synthesis in pea : Multiple alleles
d.
T.H. Morgan : Linkage
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Q21 mcq
Select the correct statement:
a.
Punnett square was developed by a British scientist.
b.
Spliceosomes take part in translation.
c.
Franklin Stahl coined the term 'linkage'.
d.
Transduction was discovered by S. Altman.
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Q22 mcq
The experimental proof for semiconservative replication of DNA was first shown in a
a.
Bacterium
b.
Plant
c.
Fungus
d.
Virus
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Q23 mcq
Select the correct match:
a.
Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase – TMV
b.
Matthew Meselson and F. Stahl – Pisum sativum
c.
Alec Jeffreys – Streptococcus pneumoniae
d.
Francois Jacob and Jacques Monod – Lac operon
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Q24 mcq
Offsets are produced by
a.
Mitotic divisions
b.
Parthenocarpy
c.
Meiotic divisions
d.
Parthenogenesis
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Q25 mcq
Which of the following flowers only once in its life-time?
a.
Jackfruit
b.
Mango
c.
Bamboo species
d.
Papaya
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Q26 mcq
Which of the following has proved helpful in preserving pollen as fossils?
a.
Cellulosic intine
b.
Oil content
c.
Pollenkitt
d.
Sporopollenin
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Q27 mcq
The two functional groups characteristic of sugars are
a.
carbonyl and methyl
b.
carbonyl and phosphate
c.
hydroxyl and methyl
d.
carbonyl and hydroxyl
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Q28 mcq
Which among the following is not a prokaryote?
a.
Mycobacterium
b.
Nostoc
c.
Saccharomyces
d.
Oscillatoria
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Q28 mcq
Which among the following is not a prokaryote?
a.
Mycobacterium
b.
Nostoc
c.
Saccharomyces
d.
Oscillatoria
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Q29 mcq
Which of the following is not a product of light reaction of photosynthesis?
a.
NADH
b.
NADPH
c.
ATP
d.
Oxygen
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Q29 mcq
Which of the following is not a product of light reaction of photosynthesis?
a.
NADH
b.
NADPH
c.
ATP
d.
Oxygen
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Q30 mcq
Stomatal movement is not affected by
a.
Light
b.
O₂ concentration
c.
Temperature
d.
CO₂ concentration
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Q30 mcq
Stomatal movement is not affected by
a.
Light
b.
O₂ concentration
c.
Temperature
d.
CO₂ concentration
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Q31 mcq
The Golgi complex participates in
a.
Formation of secretory vesicles
b.
Respiration in bacteria
c.
Fatty acid breakdown
d.
Activation of amino acid
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Q31 mcq
The Golgi complex participates in
a.
Formation of secretory vesicles
b.
Respiration in bacteria
c.
Fatty acid breakdown
d.
Activation of amino acid
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Q32 mcq
Which of the following is true for nucleolus?
a.
It is a membrane-bound structure.
b.
It takes part in spindle formation.
c.
Larger nucleoli are present in dividing cells.
d.
It is a site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis.
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Q32 mcq
Which of the following is true for nucleolus?
a.
It is a membrane-bound structure.
b.
It takes part in spindle formation.
c.
Larger nucleoli are present in dividing cells.
d.
It is a site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis.
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Q33 mcq
The stage during which separation of the paired homologous chromosomes begins is
a.
Diplotene
b.
Diakinesis
c.
Pachytene
d.
Zygotene
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Q33 mcq
The stage during which separation of the paired homologous chromosomes begins is
a.
Diplotene
b.
Diakinesis
c.
Pachytene
d.
Zygotene
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Q34 mcq
Stomata in grass leaf are
a.
Kidney shaped
b.
Rectangular
c.
Dumb-bell shaped
d.
Barrel shaped
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Q34 mcq
Stomata in grass leaf are
a.
Kidney shaped
b.
Rectangular
c.
Dumb-bell shaped
d.
Barrel shaped
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Q35 mcq
Casparian strips occur in
a.
Pericycle
b.
Cortex
c.
Epidermis
d.
Endodermis
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Q35 mcq
Casparian strips occur in
a.
Pericycle
b.
Cortex
c.
Epidermis
d.
Endodermis
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Q36 mcq
Plants having little or no secondary growth are
a.
Deciduous angiosperms
b.
Conifers
c.
Grasses
d.
Cycads
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Q37 mcq
Pneumatophores occur in
a.
Free-floating hydrophytes
b.
Carnivorous plants
c.
Halophytes
d.
Submerged hydrophytes
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Q38 mcq
Sweet potato is a modified
a.
Adventitious root
b.
Tap root
c.
Stem
d.
Rhizome
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Q39 mcq
Secondary xylem and phloem in dicot stem are produced by
a.
Vascular cambium
b.
Phellogen
c.
Apical meristems
d.
Axillary meristems
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Q40 mcq
Which of the following statements is correct?
a.
Selaginella is heterosporous, while Salvinia is homosporous.
b.
Horsetails are gymnosperms.
c.
Ovules are not enclosed by ovary wall in gymnosperms.
d.
Stems are usually unbranched in both Cycas and Cedrus.
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Q41 mcq
Select the wrong statement:
a.
Mushrooms belong to Basidiomycetes.
b.
Pseudopodia are locomotory and feeding structures in Sporozoans.
c.
Cell wall is present in members of Fungi and Plantae.
d.
Mitochondria are the powerhouse of the cell in all kingdoms except Monera.
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Q42 mcq
Winged pollen grains are present in
a.
Cycas
b.
Mango
c.
Mustard
d.
Pinus
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Q43 mcq
After karyogamy followed by meiosis, spores are produced exogenously in
a.
Alternaria
b.
Agaricus
c.
Neurospora
d.
Saccharomyces
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Q44 mcq
Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below: Column I: a. Herbarium b. Key c. Museum d. Catalogue Column II: i. It is a place having a collection of preserved plants and animals. ii. A list that enumerates methodically all the species found in an area with brief description aiding identification. iii. Is a place where dried and pressed plant specimens mounted on sheets are kept. iv. A booklet containing a list of characters and their alternates which are helpful in identification of various taxa.
a.
a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
b.
a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i
c.
a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii
d.
a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
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Q45 mcq
Which one is wrongly matched?
a.
Biflagellate zoospores – Brown algae
b.
Gemma cups – Marchantia
c.
Uniflagellate gametes – Polysiphonia
d.
Unicellular organism – Chlorella
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Q46 mcq
Which of these statements is incorrect?
a.
Glycolysis occurs in cytosol.
b.
Glycolysis operates as long as it is supplied with NAD that can pick up hydrogen atoms.
c.
Enzymes of TCA cycle are present in mitochondrial matrix.
d.
Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in outer mitochondrial membrane.
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Q47 mcq
Nissl bodies are mainly composed of
a.
DNA and RNA
b.
Nucleic acids and SER
c.
Proteins and lipids
d.
Free ribosomes and RER
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Q48 mcq
Select the incorrect match:
a.
Allosomes – Sex chromosomes
b.
Submetacentric chromosomes – L-shaped chromosomes
c.
Lampbrush chromosomes – Diplotene bivalents
d.
Polytene chromosomes – Oocytes of amphibians
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Q49 mcq
Which of the following events does not occur in rough endoplasmic reticulum?
a.
Protein glycosylation
b.
Cleavage of signal peptide
c.
Protein folding
d.
Phospholipid synthesis
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Q49 mcq
Which of the following events does not occur in rough endoplasmic reticulum?
a.
Protein glycosylation
b.
Cleavage of signal peptide
c.
Protein folding
d.
Phospholipid synthesis
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Q50 mcq
Which of the following terms describe human dentition?
a.
Thecodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont
b.
Pleurodont, Monophyodont, Homodont
c.
Thecodont, Diphyodont, Homodont
d.
Pleurodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont
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Q50 mcq
Which of the following terms describe human dentition?
a.
Thecodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont
b.
Pleurodont, Monophyodont, Homodont
c.
Thecodont, Diphyodont, Homodont
d.
Pleurodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont
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Q51 mcq
Many ribosomes may associate with a single mRNA to form multiple copies of a polypeptide simultaneously. Such strings of ribosomes are termed as
a.
Polyhedral bodies
b.
Plastidome
c.
Polysome
d.
Nucleosome
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Q51 mcq
Many ribosomes may associate with a single mRNA to form multiple copies of a polypeptide simultaneously. Such strings of ribosomes are termed as
a.
Polyhedral bodies
b.
Plastidome
c.
Polysome
d.
Nucleosome
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Q52 mcq
Which one of these animals is not a homeotherm?
a.
Chelone
b.
Camelus
c.
Macropus
d.
Psittacula
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Q52 mcq
Which one of these animals is not a homeotherm?
a.
Chelone
b.
Camelus
c.
Macropus
d.
Psittacula
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Q53 mcq
Identify the vertebrate group of animals characterized by crop and gizzard in its digestive system.
a.
Reptilia
b.
Aves
c.
Amphibia
d.
Osteichthyes
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Q53 mcq
Identify the vertebrate group of animals characterized by crop and gizzard in its digestive system.
a.
Reptilia
b.
Aves
c.
Amphibia
d.
Osteichthyes
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Q54 mcq
Which of the following features is used to identify a male cockroach from a female cockroach?
a.
Presence of caudal styles
b.
Forewings with darker tegmina
c.
Presence of a boat shaped sternum on the 9th abdominal segment
d.
Presence of anal cerci
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Q55 mcq
Which of the following organisms are known as chief producers in the oceans?
a.
Diatoms
b.
Cyanobacteria
c.
Dinoflagellates
d.
Euglenoids
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Q56 mcq
Ciliates differ from all other protozoans in
a.
having a contractile vacuole for removing excess water
b.
using pseudopodia for capturing prey
c.
using flagella for locomotion
d.
having two types of nuclei
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Q57 mcq
Which of the following animals does not undergo metamorphosis?
a.
Tunicate
b.
Moth
c.
Earthworm
d.
Starfish
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Q58 mcq
Which of the following options correctly represents the lung conditions in asthma and emphysema, respectively?
a.
Increased number of bronchioles; Increased respiratory surface
b.
Increased respiratory surface; Inflammation of bronchioles
c.
Inflammation of bronchioles; Decreased respiratory surface
d.
Decreased respiratory surface; Inflammation of bronchioles
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Q59 mcq
Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below: Column I Column II a. Tricuspid valve i. Between left atrium and left ventricle b. Bicuspid valve ii. Between right ventricle and pulmonary artery c. Semilunar valve iii. Between right atrium and right ventricle
a.
a-i, b-iii, c-ii
b.
a-i, b-ii, c-iii
c.
a-iii, b-i, c-ii
d.
a-ii, b-i, c-iii
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Q60 mcq
Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below: Column I Column II a. Tidal volume i. 2500 – 3000 mL b. Inspiratory Reserve volume ii. 1100 – 1200 mL c. Expiratory Reserve volume iii. 500 – 550 mL d. Residual volume iv. 1000 – 1100 mL
a.
a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
b.
a-i, b-iv, c-ii, d-iii
c.
a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
d.
a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
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Q61 mcq
Which of the following is an amino acid derived hormone?
a.
Ecdysone
b.
Estradiol
c.
Epinephrine
d.
Estriol
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Q62 mcq
Which of the following structures or regions is incorrectly paired with its function? (1) Limbic system: consists of fibre tracts that interconnect different regions of brain; controls movement. (2) Hypothalamus: production of releasing hormones and regulation of temperature, hunger and thirst. (3) Medulla oblongata: controls respiration and cardiovascular reflexes. (4) Corpus callosum: band of fibers connecting left and right cerebral hemispheres.
a.
Limbic system: consists of fibre tracts that interconnect different regions of brain; controls movement.
b.
Hypothalamus: production of releasing hormones and regulation of temperature, hunger and thirst.
c.
Medulla oblongata: controls respiration and cardiovascular reflexes.
d.
Corpus callosum: band of fibers connecting left and right cerebral hemispheres.
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Q63 mcq
The transparent lens in the human eye is held in its place by
a.
ligaments attached to the iris
b.
smooth muscles attached to the iris
c.
ligaments attached to the ciliary body
d.
smooth muscles attached to the ciliary body
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Q64 mcq
Which of the following hormones can play a significant role in osteoporosis?
a.
Progesterone and Aldosterone
b.
Estrogen and Parathyroid hormone
c.
Aldosterone and Prolactin
d.
Parathyroid hormone and Prolactin
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Q64 mcq
Which of the following hormones can play a significant role in osteoporosis?
a.
Progesterone and Aldosterone
b.
Estrogen and Parathyroid hormone
c.
Aldosterone and Prolactin
d.
Parathyroid hormone and Prolactin
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Q65 mcq
Hormones secreted by the placenta to maintain pregnancy are
a.
hCG, hPL, estrogens, relaxin, oxytocin
b.
hCG, hPL, progestogens, estrogens
c.
hCG, hPL, progestogens, prolactin
d.
hCG, progestogens, estrogens, glucocorticoids
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Q65 mcq
Hormones secreted by the placenta to maintain pregnancy are
a.
hCG, hPL, estrogens, relaxin, oxytocin
b.
hCG, hPL, progestogens, estrogens
c.
hCG, hPL, progestogens, prolactin
d.
hCG, progestogens, estrogens, glucocorticoids
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Q66 mcq
The contraceptive 'SAHELI'
a.
increases the concentration of estrogen and prevents ovulation in females.
b.
is an IUD.
c.
blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus, preventing eggs from getting implanted.
d.
is a post-coital contraceptive.
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Q66 mcq
The contraceptive 'SAHELI'
a.
increases the concentration of estrogen and prevents ovulation in females.
b.
is an IUD.
c.
blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus, preventing eggs from getting implanted.
d.
is a post-coital contraceptive.
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Q67 mcq
The difference between spermiogenesis and spermiation is
a.
In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed, while in spermiation spermatids are formed.
b.
In spermiogenesis spermatozoa from sertoli cells are released into the cavity of seminiferous tubules, while in spermiation spermatozoa are formed.
c.
In spermiogenesis spermatids are formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa are formed.
d.
In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa are released from sertoli cells into the cavity of seminiferous tubules.
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Q68 mcq
The amnion of mammalian embryo is derived from
a.
endoderm and mesoderm
b.
mesoderm and trophoblast
c.
ectoderm and mesoderm
d.
ectoderm and endoderm
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Q69 mcq
Among the following sets of examples for divergent evolution, select the incorrect option:
a.
Heart of bat, man and cheetah
b.
Brain of bat, man and cheetah
c.
Forelimbs of man, bat and cheetah
d.
Eye of octopus, bat and man
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Q70 mcq
Which of the following is not an autoimmune disease?
a.
Rheumatoid arthritis
b.
Alzheimer's disease
c.
Psoriasis
d.
Vitiligo
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Q71 mcq
In which disease does mosquito transmitted pathogen cause chronic inflammation of lymphatic vessels?
a.
Ascariasis
b.
Ringworm disease
c.
Elephantiasis
d.
Amoebiasis
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Q72 mcq
Conversion of milk to curd improves its nutritional value by increasing the amount of
a.
Vitamin A
b.
Vitamin B12
c.
Vitamin D
d.
Vitamin E
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Q73 mcq
The similarity of bone structure in the forelimbs of many vertebrates is an example of
a.
Analogy
b.
Convergent evolution
c.
Homology
d.
Adaptive radiation
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Q74 mcq
Which of the following characteristics represent 'Inheritance of blood groups' in humans? a. Dominance b. Co-dominance c. Multiple allele d. Incomplete dominance e. Polygenic inheritance
a.
a, b and c
b.
b, d and e
c.
b, c and e
d.
a, c and e
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Q75 mcq
Which one of the following population interactions is widely used in medical science for the production of antibiotics?
a.
Mutualism
b.
Parasitism
c.
Commensalism
d.
Amensalism
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Q76 mcq
Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below: Column I — Column II a. Eutrophication — i. UV-B radiation b. Sanitary landfill — ii. Deforestation c. Snow blindness — iii. Nutrient enrichment d. Jhum cultivation — iv. Waste disposal
a.
a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii
b.
a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
c.
a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
d.
a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
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Q77 mcq
All of the following are included in 'Ex-situ conservation' except
a.
Sacred groves
b.
Botanical gardens
c.
Wildlife safari parks
d.
Seed banks
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Q78 mcq
In a growing population of a country,
a.
reproductive individuals are less than the post-reproductive individuals.
b.
reproductive and pre-reproductive individuals are equal in number.
c.
pre-reproductive individuals are more than the reproductive individuals.
d.
pre-reproductive individuals are less than the reproductive individuals.
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Q79 mcq
Which part of poppy plant is used to obtain the drug 'Smack'?
a.
Latex
b.
Roots
c.
Flowers
d.
Leaves
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Q79 mcq
Which part of poppy plant is used to obtain the drug 'Smack'?
a.
Latex
b.
Roots
c.
Flowers
d.
Leaves
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Q80 mcq
All of the following are part of an operon except
a.
structural genes
b.
an enhancer
c.
an operator
d.
a promoter
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Q80 mcq
All of the following are part of an operon except
a.
Structural genes
b.
An enhancer
c.
An operator
d.
A promoter
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Q81 mcq
A woman has an X-linked condition on one of her X chromosomes. This chromosome can be inherited by
a.
Only sons
b.
Only grandchildren
c.
Only daughters
d.
Both sons and daughters
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Q81 mcq
A woman has an X-linked condition on one of her X chromosomes. This chromosome can be inherited by
a.
Only sons
b.
Only grandchildren
c.
Only daughters
d.
Both sons and daughters
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Q82 mcq
According to Hugo de Vries, the mechanism of evolution is
a.
Saltation
b.
Phenotypic variations
c.
Multiple step mutations
d.
Minor mutations
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Q82 mcq
According to Hugo de Vries, the mechanism of evolution is
a.
Saltation
b.
Phenotypic variations
c.
Multiple step mutations
d.
Minor mutations
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Q83 mcq
AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding strand of a gene. What will be the corresponding sequence of the transcribed mRNA?
a.
UGGTUTCGCAT
b.
ACCUAUGCGAU
c.
AGGUAUCGCAU
d.
UCCAUAGCGUA
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Q83 mcq
AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding strand of a gene. What will be the corresponding sequence of the transcribed mRNA?
a.
UGGUUUCGCAT
b.
ACCUAUGCGAU
c.
AGGUAUCGCAU
d.
UCCAUAGCGUA
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Q84 mcq
Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below: Column I | Column II a. Proliferative Phase | i. Breakdown of endometrial lining b. Secretory Phase | ii. Follicular Phase c. Menstruation | iii. Luteal Phase a b c
a.
i iii ii
b.
ii iii i
c.
iii ii i
d.
iii i ii
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Q85 mcq
Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below: Column I | Column II a. Glycosuria | i. Accumulation of uric acid in joints b. Gout | ii. Mass of crystallised salts within the kidney c. Renal calculi | iii. Inflammation in glomeruli d. Glomerular nephritis | iv. Presence of glucose in urine a b c d
a.
i ii iii iv
b.
ii iii i iv
c.
iii ii iv i
d.
iv i ii iii
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Q86 mcq
Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below: Column I (Function) | Column II (Part of Excretory System) a. Ultrafiltration | i. Henle's loop b. Concentration of urine | ii. Ureter c. Transport of urine | iii. Urinary bladder d. Storage of urine | iv. Malpighian corpuscle | v. Proximal convoluted tubule a b c d
a.
iv i ii iii
b.
v iv i ii
c.
iv v ii iii
d.
v iv i iii
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Q87 mcq
Which of the following is an occupational respiratory disorder?
a.
Silicosis
b.
Botulism
c.
Anthracis
d.
Emphysema
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Q88 mcq
Calcium is important in skeletal muscle contraction because it
a.
Activates the myosin ATPase by binding to it.
b.
Detaches the myosin head from the actin filament.
c.
Binds to troponin to remove the masking of active sites on actin for myosin.
d.
Prevents the formation of bonds between the myosin cross bridges and the actin filament.
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Q89 mcq
Which of the following gastric cells indirectly help in erythropoiesis?
a.
Mucous cells
b.
Goblet cells
c.
Chief cells
d.
Parietal cells
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Q90 mcq
Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below: Column I | Column II a. Fibrinogen | i. Osmotic balance b. Globulin | ii. Blood clotting c. Albumin | iii. Defence mechanism a b c
a.
i ii iii
b.
i iii ii
c.
iii ii i
d.
ii iii i
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