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NEET 2018 CODE-SS

2018 · 111 questions · First 10 Solutions Free
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Q46 mcq
The similarity of bone structure in the forelimbs of many vertebrates is an example of
a.
Adaptive radiation
b.
Convergent evolution
c.
Analogy
d.
Homology Correct Answer
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Homologous structures are those that have the same basic structural plan and origin (same ancestral lineage) but may differ in function. The forelimbs of vertebrates (e.g., human arm, bat wing, whale flipper) share the same bone arrangement (humerus, radius, ulna, carpals, etc.), making them homologous structures — evidence of divergent evolution from a common ancestor.
Q47 mcq
In which disease does mosquito-transmitted pathogen cause chronic inflammation of lymphatic vessels?
a.
Amoebiasis
b.
Ringworm disease
c.
Ascariasis
d.
Elephantiasis Correct Answer
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Elephantiasis (filariasis) is caused by the filarial worm Wuchereria bancrofti, transmitted by the mosquito Culex. It causes chronic inflammation and blockage of lymphatic vessels, leading to massive swelling of limbs and genitals.
Q48 mcq
Conversion of milk to curd improves its nutritional value by increasing the amount of
a.
Vitamin E
b.
Vitamin B₁₂ Correct Answer
c.
Vitamin A
d.
Vitamin D
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Lactic acid bacteria (LAB), such as Lactobacillus, convert milk to curd. During this fermentation process, LAB synthesize Vitamin B₁₂, thereby increasing its concentration in curd compared to raw milk and improving its nutritional value.
Q49 mcq
Which of the following characteristics represent 'Inheritance of blood groups' in humans? a. Dominance b. Co-dominance c. Multiple allele d. Incomplete dominance e. Polygenic inheritance
a.
a, c and e
b.
b, d and e
c.
a, b and c Correct Answer
d.
b, c and e
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
ABO blood group inheritance involves: (a) Dominance — Iᴬ and Iᴮ are both dominant over i; (b) Co-dominance — Iᴬ and Iᴮ are co-dominant when both are present (giving blood group AB); (c) Multiple alleles — there are three alleles (Iᴬ, Iᴮ, i) for a single gene. Incomplete dominance (d) and polygenic inheritance (e) are not features of ABO blood group inheritance.
Q50 mcq
Among the following sets of examples for divergent evolution, select the incorrect option:
a.
Eye of octopus, bat and man Correct Answer
b.
Brain of bat, man and cheetah
c.
Heart of bat, man and cheetah
d.
Forelimbs of man, bat and cheetah
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Divergent evolution produces homologous structures from a common ancestor. The eyes of octopus and vertebrates (bat, man) are analogous structures — they look similar but evolved independently (convergent evolution), NOT from a common ancestor. Hence they are an example of convergent evolution, not divergent evolution, making option (1) the incorrect example for divergent evolution.
Q51 mcq
Which of the following is not an autoimmune disease?
a.
Vitiligo
b.
Alzheimer's disease Correct Answer
c.
Rheumatoid arthritis
d.
Psoriasis
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Alzheimer's disease is a neurodegenerative disorder caused by accumulation of amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles in the brain — it is not an autoimmune disease. Vitiligo, rheumatoid arthritis, and psoriasis are all autoimmune diseases where the immune system attacks the body's own cells/tissues.
Q52 mcq
Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below: Column I — Column II a. Glycosuria — i. Accumulation of uric acid in joints b. Gout — ii. Mass of crystallised salts within the kidney c. Renal calculi — iii. Inflammation in glomeruli d. Glomerular nephritis — iv. Presence of glucose in urine
a.
a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii Correct Answer
b.
a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
c.
a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
d.
a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Correct matches: Glycosuria (a) = presence of glucose in urine (iv); Gout (b) = accumulation of uric acid in joints (i); Renal calculi (c) = mass of crystallised salts within the kidney (ii); Glomerular nephritis (d) = inflammation in glomeruli (iii). So a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii.
Q53 mcq
Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below: Column I (Function) — Column II (Part of Excretory System) a. Ultrafiltration — i. Henle's loop b. Concentration of urine — ii. Ureter c. Transport of urine — iii. Urinary bladder d. Storage of urine — iv. Malpighian corpuscle v. Proximal convoluted tubule
a.
a-v, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
b.
a-v, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
c.
a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii Correct Answer
d.
a-iv, b-v, c-ii, d-iii
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Correct matches: Ultrafiltration (a) occurs in the Malpighian corpuscle (iv) — specifically the glomerulus; Concentration of urine (b) occurs in Henle's loop (i); Transport of urine (c) is via the Ureter (ii); Storage of urine (d) occurs in the Urinary bladder (iii). So a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii.
Q54 mcq
The contraceptive 'SAHELI'
a.
is a post-coital contraceptive.
b.
is an IUD.
c.
increases the concentration of estrogen and prevents ovulation in females.
d.
blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus, preventing eggs from getting implanted. Correct Answer
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
SAHELI (Centchroman) is a non-steroidal oral contraceptive pill developed by CDRI, Lucknow. It is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) — it blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus, thereby preventing implantation of the fertilized egg. It is taken once a week and does not increase estrogen levels.
Q54 mcq
The contraceptive 'SAHELI'
a.
is a post-coital contraceptive.
b.
is an IUD.
c.
increases the concentration of estrogen and prevents ovulation in females.
d.
blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus, preventing eggs from getting implanted. Correct Answer
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
SAHELI (centchroman/ormeloxifene) is a non-steroidal oral contraceptive. It acts as a selective estrogen receptor modulator — it blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus, thereby preventing implantation of the fertilized egg. It does not increase estrogen concentration nor is it an IUD.
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Q55 mcq
The amnion of mammalian embryo is derived from
a.
ectoderm and endoderm
b.
mesoderm and trophoblast
c.
endoderm and mesoderm
d.
ectoderm and mesoderm
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Q55 mcq
The amnion of mammalian embryo is derived from
a.
ectoderm and endoderm
b.
mesoderm and trophoblast
c.
endoderm and mesoderm
d.
ectoderm and mesoderm
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Q56 mcq
The difference between spermiogenesis and spermiation is
a.
In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa are released from sertoli cells into the cavity of seminiferous tubules.
b.
In spermiogenesis spermatozoa from sertoli cells are released into the cavity of seminiferous tubules, while in spermiation spermatozoa are formed.
c.
In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed, while in spermiation spermatids are formed.
d.
In spermiogenesis spermatids are formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa are released.
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Q56 mcq
The difference between spermiogenesis and spermiation is
a.
In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa are released from sertoli cells into the cavity of seminiferous tubules.
b.
In spermiogenesis spermatozoa from sertoli cells are released into the cavity of seminiferous tubules, while in spermiation spermatozoa are formed.
c.
In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed, while in spermiation spermatids are formed.
d.
In spermiogenesis spermatids are formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa are formed.
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Q57 mcq
Hormones secreted by the placenta to maintain pregnancy are
a.
hCG, progestogens, estrogens, glucocorticoids
b.
hCG, hPL, progestogens, estrogens
c.
hCG, hPL, estrogens, relaxin, oxytocin
d.
hCG, hPL, progestogens, prolactin
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Q58 mcq
Which of the following gastric cells indirectly help in erythropoiesis?
a.
Parietal cells
b.
Goblet cells
c.
Mucous cells
d.
Chief cells
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Q59 mcq
Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below: Column I: a. Fibrinogen, b. Globulin, c. Albumin Column II: i. Osmotic balance, ii. Blood clotting, iii. Defence mechanism
a.
a-ii, b-iii, c-i
b.
a-i, b-iii, c-ii
c.
a-i, b-ii, c-iii
d.
a-iii, b-ii, c-i
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Q60 mcq
Calcium is important in skeletal muscle contraction because it
a.
prevents the formation of bonds between the myosin cross bridges and the actin filament.
b.
detaches the myosin head from the actin filament.
c.
activates the myosin ATPase by binding to it.
d.
binds to troponin to remove the masking of active sites on actin for myosin.
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Q61 mcq
Which of the following is an occupational respiratory disorder?
a.
Emphysema
b.
Botulism
c.
Silicosis
d.
Anthracis
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Q62 mcq
Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below: Column I: a. Eutrophication, b. Sanitary landfill, c. Snow blindness, d. Jhum cultivation Column II: i. UV-B radiation, ii. Deforestation, iii. Nutrient enrichment, iv. Waste disposal
a.
a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
b.
a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
c.
a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii
d.
a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
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Q63 mcq
Which one of the following population interactions is widely used in medical science for the production of antibiotics?
a.
Amensalism
b.
Parasitism
c.
Mutualism
d.
Commensalism
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Q64 mcq
Which part of poppy plant is used to obtain the drug 'Smack'?
a.
Leaves
b.
Roots
c.
Latex
d.
Flowers
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Q65 mcq
In a growing population of a country,
a.
pre-reproductive individuals are less than the reproductive individuals.
b.
reproductive and pre-reproductive individuals are equal in number.
c.
reproductive individuals are less than the post-reproductive individuals.
d.
pre-reproductive individuals are more than the reproductive individuals.
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Q66 mcq
All of the following are included in 'Ex-situ conservation' except
a.
Seed banks
b.
Botanical gardens
c.
Sacred groves
d.
Wildlife safari parks
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Q67 mcq
AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding strand of a gene. What will be the corresponding sequence of the transcribed mRNA?
a.
UCCAUAGCGUA
b.
ACCUAUGCGAU
c.
UGGTUTCGCAT
d.
AGGUAUCGCAU
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Q68 mcq
A woman has an X-linked condition on one of her X chromosomes. This chromosome can be inherited by
a.
Both sons and daughters
b.
Only grandchildren
c.
Only sons
d.
Only daughters
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Q68 mcq
A woman has an X-linked condition on one of her X chromosomes. This chromosome can be inherited by
a.
Both sons and daughters
b.
Only grandchildren
c.
Only sons
d.
Only daughters
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Q69 mcq
Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below: Column I: a. Proliferative Phase, b. Secretory Phase, c. Menstruation Column II: i. Breakdown of endometrial lining, ii. Follicular Phase, iii. Luteal Phase
a.
a-iii, b-i, c-ii
b.
a-ii, b-iii, c-i
c.
a-i, b-iii, c-ii
d.
a-iii, b-ii, c-i
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Q69 mcq
Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below: Column I — Column II a. Proliferative Phase — i. Breakdown of endometrial lining b. Secretory Phase — ii. Follicular Phase c. Menstruation — iii. Luteal Phase a b c (1) iii i ii (2) ii iii i (3) i iii ii (4) iii ii i
a.
a-iii, b-i, c-ii
b.
a-ii, b-iii, c-i
c.
a-i, b-iii, c-ii
d.
a-iii, b-ii, c-i
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Q70 mcq
All of the following are part of an operon except
a.
a promoter
b.
an enhancer
c.
structural genes
d.
an operator
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Q70 mcq
All of the following are part of an operon except
a.
a promoter
b.
an enhancer
c.
structural genes
d.
an operator
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Q71 mcq
According to Hugo de Vries, the mechanism of evolution is
a.
Minor mutations
b.
Phenotypic variations
c.
Saltation
d.
Multiple step mutations
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Q71 mcq
According to Hugo de Vries, the mechanism of evolution is
a.
Minor mutations
b.
Phenotypic variations
c.
Saltation
d.
Multiple step mutations
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Q72 mcq
Which of the following options correctly represents the lung conditions in asthma and emphysema, respectively?
a.
Decreased respiratory surface; Inflammation of bronchioles
b.
Increased respiratory surface; Inflammation of bronchioles
c.
Increased number of bronchioles; Increased respiratory surface
d.
Inflammation of bronchioles; Decreased respiratory surface
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Q73 mcq
Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below: Column I — Column II a. Tricuspid valve — i. Between left atrium and left ventricle b. Bicuspid valve — ii. Between right ventricle and pulmonary artery c. Semilunar valve — iii. Between right atrium and right ventricle a b c (1) ii i iii (2) i ii iii (3) i iii ii (4) iii i ii
a.
a-ii, b-i, c-iii
b.
a-i, b-ii, c-iii
c.
a-i, b-iii, c-ii
d.
a-iii, b-i, c-ii
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Q74 mcq
Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below: Column I — Column II a. Tidal volume — i. 2500–3000 mL b. Inspiratory Reserve volume — ii. 1100–1200 mL c. Expiratory Reserve volume — iii. 500–550 mL d. Residual volume — iv. 1000–1100 mL a b c d (1) iv iii ii i (2) i iv ii iii (3) iii i iv ii (4) iii ii i iv
a.
a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
b.
a-i, b-iv, c-ii, d-iii
c.
a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
d.
a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
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Q75 mcq
Which of the following is an amino acid derived hormone?
a.
Estriol
b.
Estradiol
c.
Ecdysone
d.
Epinephrine
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Q76 mcq
Which of the following structures or regions is incorrectly paired with its function?
a.
Corpus callosum: band of fibers connecting left and right cerebral hemispheres.
b.
Hypothalamus: production of releasing hormones and regulation of temperature, hunger and thirst.
c.
Limbic system: consists of fibre tracts that interconnect different regions of brain; controls movement.
d.
Medulla oblongata: controls respiration and cardiovascular reflexes.
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Q77 mcq
Which of the following hormones can play a significant role in osteoporosis?
a.
Parathyroid hormone and Prolactin
b.
Estrogen and Parathyroid hormone
c.
Progesterone and Aldosterone
d.
Aldosterone and Prolactin
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Q78 mcq
The transparent lens in the human eye is held in its place by
a.
smooth muscles attached to the ciliary body
b.
smooth muscles attached to the iris
c.
ligaments attached to the iris
d.
ligaments attached to the ciliary body
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Q79 mcq
Which of the following terms describe human dentition?
a.
Pleurodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont
b.
Pleurodont, Monophyodont, Homodont
c.
Thecodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont
d.
Thecodont, Diphyodont, Homodont
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Q80 mcq
Which of the following events does not occur in rough endoplasmic reticulum?
a.
Phospholipid synthesis
b.
Cleavage of signal peptide
c.
Protein glycosylation
d.
Protein folding
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Q81 mcq
Select the incorrect match:
a.
Polytene chromosomes — Oocytes of amphibians
b.
Submetacentric chromosomes — L-shaped chromosomes
c.
Allosomes — Sex chromosomes
d.
Lampbrush chromosomes — Diplotene bivalents
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Q82 mcq
Nissl bodies are mainly composed of
a.
Free ribosomes and RER
b.
Nucleic acids and SER
c.
DNA and RNA
d.
Proteins and lipids
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Q82 mcq
Nissl bodies are mainly composed of
a.
Free ribosomes and RER
b.
Nucleic acids and SER
c.
DNA and RNA
d.
Proteins and lipids
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Q83 mcq
Many ribosomes may associate with a single mRNA to form multiple copies of a polypeptide simultaneously. Such strings of ribosomes are termed as
a.
Nucleosome
b.
Plastidome
c.
Polyhedral bodies
d.
Polysome
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Q83 mcq
Many ribosomes may associate with a single mRNA to form multiple copies of a polypeptide simultaneously. Such strings of ribosomes are termed as
a.
Nucleosome
b.
Plastidome
c.
Polyhedral bodies
d.
Polysome
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Q84 mcq
Which of these statements is incorrect?
a.
Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in outer mitochondrial membrane.
b.
Glycolysis operates as long as it is supplied with NAD that can pick up hydrogen atoms.
c.
Glycolysis occurs in cytosol.
d.
Enzymes of TCA cycle are present in mitochondrial matrix.
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Q84 mcq
Which of these statements is incorrect?
a.
Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in outer mitochondrial membrane.
b.
Glycolysis operates as long as it is supplied with NAD that can pick up hydrogen atoms.
c.
Glycolysis occurs in cytosol.
d.
Enzymes of TCA cycle are present in mitochondrial matrix.
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Q85 mcq
Identify the vertebrate group of animals characterized by crop and gizzard in its digestive system.
a.
Osteichthyes
b.
Aves
c.
Reptilia
d.
Amphibia
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Q85 mcq
Identify the vertebrate group of animals characterized by crop and gizzard in its digestive system.
a.
Osteichthyes
b.
Aves
c.
Reptilia
d.
Amphibia
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Q86 mcq
Ciliates differ from all other protozoans in
a.
having two types of nuclei
b.
using pseudopodia for capturing prey
c.
having a contractile vacuole for removing excess water
d.
using flagella for locomotion
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Q86 mcq
Ciliates differ from all other protozoans in
a.
having two types of nuclei
b.
using pseudopodia for capturing prey
c.
having a contractile vacuole for removing excess water
d.
using flagella for locomotion
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Q87 mcq
Which of the following animals does not undergo metamorphosis?
a.
Starfish
b.
Moth
c.
Tunicate
d.
Earthworm
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Q88 mcq
Which of the following features is used to identify a male cockroach from a female cockroach?
a.
Presence of anal cerci
b.
Forewings with darker tegmina
c.
Presence of caudal styles
d.
Presence of a boat shaped sternum on the 9th abdominal segment
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Q89 mcq
Which of the following organisms are known as chief producers in the oceans?
a.
Euglenoids
b.
Cyanobacteria
c.
Diatoms
d.
Dinoflagellates
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Q90 mcq
Which one of these animals is not a homeotherm?
a.
Psittacula
b.
Camelus
c.
Chelone
d.
Macropus
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Q91 mcq
Which of the following pairs is wrongly matched?
a.
T.H. Morgan : Linkage
b.
XO type sex determination : Grasshopper
c.
ABO blood grouping : Co-dominance
d.
Starch synthesis in pea : Multiple alleles
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Q92 mcq
Which of the following flowers only once in its life-time?
a.
Papaya
b.
Mango
c.
Jackfruit
d.
Bamboo species
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Q93 mcq
Select the correct match:
a.
Francois Jacob and Jacques Monod – Lac operon
b.
Matthew Meselson and F. Stahl – Pisum sativum
c.
Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase – TMV
d.
Alec Jeffreys – Streptococcus pneumoniae
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Q94 mcq
Select the correct statement:
a.
Transduction was discovered by S. Altman.
b.
Spliceosomes take part in translation.
c.
Punnett square was developed by a British scientist.
d.
Franklin Stahl coined the term 'linkage'.
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Q95 mcq
Which of the following has proved helpful in preserving pollen as fossils?
a.
Sporopollenin
b.
Oil content
c.
Cellulosic intine
d.
Pollenkitt
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Q96 mcq
Offsets are produced by
a.
Parthenogenesis
b.
Parthenocarpy
c.
Mitotic divisions
d.
Meiotic divisions
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Q97 mcq
The experimental proof for semiconservative replication of DNA was first shown in a
a.
Virus
b.
Plant
c.
Bacterium
d.
Fungus
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Q98 mcq
Winged pollen grains are present in
a.
Pinus
b.
Mango
c.
Cycas
d.
Mustard
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Q99 mcq
After karyogamy followed by meiosis, spores are produced exogenously in
a.
Saccharomyces
b.
Agaricus
c.
Alternaria
d.
Neurospora
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Q100 mcq
Which one is wrongly matched?
a.
Unicellular organism – Chlorella
b.
Gemma cups – Marchantia
c.
Biflagellate zoospores – Brown algae
d.
Uniflagellate gametes – Polysiphonia
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Q101 mcq
Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below: Column I Column II a. Herbarium i. It is a place having a collection of preserved plants and animals. b. Key ii. A list that enumerates methodically all the species found in an area with brief description aiding identification. c. Museum iii. Is a place where dried and pressed plant specimens mounted on sheets are kept. d. Catalogue iv. A booklet containing a list of characters and their alternates which are helpful in identification of various taxa.
a.
a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
b.
a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i
c.
a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
d.
a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii
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Q102 mcq
In which of the following forms is iron absorbed by plants?
a.
Both ferric and ferrous
b.
Free element
c.
Ferrous
d.
Ferric
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Q102 mcq
In which of the following forms is iron absorbed by plants?
a.
Both ferric and ferrous
b.
Free element
c.
Ferrous
d.
Ferric
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Q103 mcq
Which one of the following plants shows a very close relationship with a species of moth, where none of the two can complete its life cycle without the other?
a.
Viola
b.
Banana
c.
Yucca
d.
Hydrilla
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Q103 mcq
Which one of the following plants shows a very close relationship with a species of moth, where none of the two can complete its life cycle without the other?
a.
Viola
b.
Banana
c.
Yucca
d.
Hydrilla
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Q104 mcq
Oxygen is not produced during photosynthesis by
a.
Chara
b.
Cycas
c.
Nostoc
d.
Green sulphur bacteria
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Q104 mcq
Oxygen is not produced during photosynthesis by
a.
Chara
b.
Cycas
c.
Nostoc
d.
Green sulphur bacteria
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Q105 mcq
Which of the following elements is responsible for maintaining turgor in cells?
a.
Calcium
b.
Potassium
c.
Sodium
d.
Magnesium
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Q105 mcq
Which of the following elements is responsible for maintaining turgor in cells?
a.
Calcium
b.
Potassium
c.
Sodium
d.
Magnesium
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Q106 mcq
What is the role of NAD⁺ in cellular respiration?
a.
It is the final electron acceptor for anaerobic respiration.
b.
It is a nucleotide source for ATP synthesis.
c.
It functions as an electron carrier.
d.
It functions as an enzyme.
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Q107 mcq
Double fertilization is
a.
Syngamy and triple fusion
b.
Fusion of two male gametes with one egg
c.
Fusion of one male gamete with two polar nuclei
d.
Fusion of two male gametes of a pollen tube with two different eggs
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Q108 mcq
Pollen grains can be stored for several years in liquid nitrogen having a temperature of
a.
–160°C
b.
–196°C
c.
–80°C
d.
–120°C
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Q109 mcq
What type of ecological pyramid would be obtained with the following data? Secondary consumer: 120 g Primary consumer: 60 g Primary producer: 10 g
a.
Upright pyramid of biomass
b.
Upright pyramid of numbers
c.
Pyramid of energy
d.
Inverted pyramid of biomass
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Q110 mcq
Natality refers to
a.
Number of individuals entering a habitat
b.
Number of individuals leaving the habitat
c.
Birth rate
d.
Death rate
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Q111 mcq
Which of the following is a secondary pollutant?
a.
O₃
b.
SO₂
c.
CO₂
d.
CO
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Q112 mcq
In stratosphere, which of the following elements acts as a catalyst in degradation of ozone and release of molecular oxygen?
a.
Oxygen
b.
Fe
c.
Cl
d.
Carbon
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Q113 mcq
Niche is
a.
the functional role played by the organism where it lives
b.
the range of temperature that the organism needs to live
c.
the physical space where an organism lives
d.
all the biological factors in the organism's environment
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Q114 mcq
World Ozone Day is celebrated on
a.
22nd April
b.
16th September
c.
21st April
d.
5th June
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Q115 mcq
Which of the following statements is correct?
a.
Stems are usually unbranched in both Cycas and Cedrus.
b.
Horsetails are gymnosperms.
c.
Selaginella is heterosporous, while Salvinia is homosporous.
d.
Ovules are not enclosed by ovary wall in gymnosperms.
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Q116 mcq
Secondary xylem and phloem in dicot stem are produced by
a.
Axillary meristems
b.
Phellogen
c.
Vascular cambium
d.
Apical meristems
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Q117 mcq
Sweet potato is a modified
a.
Rhizome
b.
Tap root
c.
Adventitious root
d.
Stem
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Q118 mcq
Pneumatophores occur in
a.
Submerged hydrophytes
b.
Carnivorous plants
c.
Free-floating hydrophytes
d.
Halophytes
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Q119 mcq
Select the wrong statement:
a.
Mitochondria are the powerhouse of the cell in all kingdoms except Monera.
b.
Pseudopodia are locomotory and feeding structures in Sporozoans.
c.
Mushrooms belong to Basidiomycetes.
d.
Cell wall is present in members of Fungi and Plantae.
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Q120 mcq
Casparian strips occur in
a.
Endodermis
b.
Cortex
c.
Pericycle
d.
Epidermis
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Q121 mcq
Plants having little or no secondary growth are
a.
Cycads
b.
Conifers
c.
Deciduous angiosperms
d.
Grasses
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Q122 mcq
A 'new' variety of rice was patented by a foreign company, though such varieties have been present in India for a long time. This is related to
a.
Basmati
b.
Lerma Rojo
c.
Sharbati Sonora
d.
Co-667
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Q122 mcq
A 'new' variety of rice was patented by a foreign company, though such varieties have been present in India for a long time. This is related to
a.
Basmati
b.
Lerma Rojo
c.
Sharbati Sonora
d.
Co-667
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Q123 mcq
Which of the following is commonly used as a vector for introducing a DNA fragment in human lymphocytes?
a.
pBR 322
b.
λ phage
c.
Ti plasmid
d.
Retrovirus
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Q123 mcq
Which of the following is commonly used as a vector for introducing a DNA fragment in human lymphocytes?
a.
pBR 322
b.
λ phage
c.
Ti plasmid
d.
Retrovirus
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Q124 mcq
Use of bioresources by multinational companies and organisations without authorisation from the concerned country and its people is called
a.
Bioexploitation
b.
Biodegradation
c.
Biopiracy
d.
Bio-infringement
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Q124 mcq
Use of bioresources by multinational companies and organisations without authorisation from the concerned country and its people is called
a.
Bioexploitation
b.
Biodegradation
c.
Biopiracy
d.
Bio-infringement
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Q125 mcq
Select the correct match:
a.
G. Mendel – Transformation
b.
T.H. Morgan – Transduction
c.
F₂ Recessive parent – Dihybrid cross
d.
Ribozyme – Nucleic acid
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Q125 mcq
Select the correct match:
a.
G. Mendel – Transformation
b.
T.H. Morgan – Transduction
c.
F₂ Recessive parent – Dihybrid cross
d.
Ribozyme – Nucleic acid
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Q126 mcq
The correct order of steps in Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is
a.
Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
b.
Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
c.
Annealing, Extension, Denaturation
d.
Extension, Denaturation, Annealing
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Q126 mcq
The correct order of steps in Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is
a.
Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
b.
Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
c.
Annealing, Extension, Denaturation
d.
Extension, Denaturation, Annealing
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Q127 mcq
In India, the organisation responsible for assessing the safety of introducing genetically modified organisms for public use is
a.
Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC)
b.
Research Committee on Genetic Manipulation (RCGM)
c.
Council for Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR)
d.
Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)
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Q128 mcq
The stage during which separation of the paired homologous chromosomes begins is
a.
Zygotene
b.
Diakinesis
c.
Diplotene
d.
Pachytene
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Q129 mcq
The Golgi complex participates in
a.
Activation of amino acid
b.
Respiration in bacteria
c.
Formation of secretory vesicles
d.
Fatty acid breakdown
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Q130 mcq
Stomatal movement is not affected by
a.
CO₂ concentration
b.
O₂ concentration
c.
Light
d.
Temperature
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Q131 mcq
The two functional groups characteristic of sugars are
a.
carbonyl and hydroxyl
b.
carbonyl and phosphate
c.
carbonyl and methyl
d.
hydroxyl and methyl
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Q132 mcq
Which of the following is not a product of light reaction of photosynthesis?
a.
Oxygen
b.
NADPH
c.
NADH
d.
ATP
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Q133 mcq
Stomata in grass leaf are
a.
Barrel shaped
b.
Rectangular
c.
Kidney shaped
d.
Dumb-bell shaped
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Q134 mcq
Which of the following is true for nucleolus?
a.
It is a site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis.
b.
It takes part in spindle formation.
c.
It is a membrane-bound structure.
d.
Larger nucleoli are present in dividing cells.
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Q135 mcq
Which among the following is not a prokaryote?
a.
Oscillatoria
b.
Nostoc
c.
Mycobacterium
d.
Saccharomyces
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