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NEET 2018 CODE-RR

2018 · 114 questions · First 10 Solutions Free
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Q1 mcq
What is the role of NAD⁺ in cellular respiration?
a.
It is a nucleotide source for ATP synthesis.
b.
It functions as an electron carrier. Correct Answer
c.
It functions as an enzyme.
d.
It is the final electron acceptor for anaerobic respiration.
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
NAD⁺ (Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide) functions as an electron carrier in cellular respiration. It accepts electrons (and hydrogen) to become NADH during glycolysis and the Krebs cycle, then donates them to the electron transport chain to drive ATP synthesis. It is not an enzyme, not a nucleotide source for ATP, and the final electron acceptor in anaerobic respiration is an organic molecule (e.g., pyruvate), not NAD⁺.
Q2 mcq
Oxygen is not produced during photosynthesis by
a.
Cycas
b.
Nostoc
c.
Green sulphur bacteria Correct Answer
d.
Chara
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Green sulphur bacteria (e.g., Chlorobium) are anoxygenic photosynthesizers — they use H₂S instead of H₂O as the electron donor, producing sulphur instead of oxygen. Cycas (gymnosperm), Nostoc (cyanobacterium), and Chara (green alga) all perform oxygenic photosynthesis, splitting water and releasing O₂.
Q3 mcq
Double fertilization is
a.
Fusion of two male gametes with one egg
b.
Fusion of one male gamete with two polar nuclei
c.
Fusion of two male gametes of a pollen tube with two different eggs
d.
Syngamy and triple fusion Correct Answer
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Double fertilization in angiosperms involves two events: syngamy (fusion of one male gamete with the egg cell to form a diploid zygote) and triple fusion (fusion of the second male gamete with the two polar nuclei to form the triploid primary endosperm nucleus). Together these two events constitute double fertilization.
Q4 mcq
In which of the following forms is iron absorbed by plants?
a.
Free element
b.
Ferrous
c.
Ferric
d.
Both ferric and ferrous Correct Answer
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Plants can absorb iron in both ferrous (Fe²⁺) and ferric (Fe³⁺) forms, though Fe²⁺ is the primary form absorbed. Many plants reduce Fe³⁺ to Fe²⁺ at the root surface before uptake. NCERT notes both forms are absorbed, making option (4) correct.
Q5 mcq
Which of the following elements is responsible for maintaining turgor in cells?
a.
Potassium Correct Answer
b.
Sodium
c.
Magnesium
d.
Calcium
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Potassium (K⁺) is the most abundant cation in plant cells and plays a key role in maintaining turgor pressure. It is actively transported into guard cells to cause stomatal opening (by increasing osmotic pressure), and is essential for maintaining the osmotic potential that drives water uptake and turgor in all plant cells.
Q6 mcq
Which one of the following plants shows a very close relationship with a species of moth, where none of the two can complete its life cycle without the other?
a.
Banana
b.
Yucca Correct Answer
c.
Hydrilla
d.
Viola
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Yucca and the Yucca moth (Tegeticula) share an obligate mutualistic relationship — neither can complete its life cycle without the other. The moth is the sole pollinator of Yucca, and Yucca flowers are the sole site where the moth lays eggs and its larvae feed. This is a classic NCERT example of mutualism/co-evolution.
Q7 mcq
Pollen grains can be stored for several years in liquid nitrogen having a temperature of
a.
–196°C Correct Answer
b.
–80°C
c.
–120°C
d.
–160°C
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Liquid nitrogen has a temperature of –196°C. Pollen grains can be stored for several years in liquid nitrogen (cryopreservation) at this temperature without losing their viability. This is explicitly stated in NCERT Biology textbook (Class 12, Chapter 2).
Q8 mcq
What type of ecological pyramid would be obtained with the following data? Secondary consumer: 120 g Primary consumer: 60 g Primary producer: 10 g
a.
Upright pyramid of numbers
b.
Pyramid of energy
c.
Inverted pyramid of biomass Correct Answer
d.
Upright pyramid of biomass
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
The data shows: Primary producer (10 g) < Primary consumer (60 g) < Secondary consumer (120 g). Biomass increases from producer to higher trophic levels, which is an inverted pyramid of biomass. This pattern is typically seen in aquatic ecosystems where phytoplankton (producers) have lower standing biomass than the consumers they support due to rapid turnover rates.
Q9 mcq
Natality refers to
a.
Number of individuals leaving the habitat
b.
Birth rate Correct Answer
c.
Death rate
d.
Number of individuals entering a habitat
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Natality refers to the birth rate in a population — the number of new individuals born per unit time. It is one of the four key parameters (along with mortality, immigration, and emigration) that determine population size and growth.
Q9 mcq
Natality refers to
a.
Number of individuals leaving the habitat
b.
Birth rate Correct Answer
c.
Death rate
d.
Number of individuals entering a habitat
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Natality refers to the birth rate, i.e., the number of births per unit time in a population. It is one of the factors that increases population size.
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Q10 mcq
World Ozone Day is celebrated on
a.
16th September
b.
21st April
c.
5th June
d.
22nd April
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Q10 mcq
World Ozone Day is celebrated on
a.
16th September
b.
21st April
c.
5th June
d.
22nd April
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Q11 mcq
In stratosphere, which of the following elements acts as a catalyst in degradation of ozone and release of molecular oxygen?
a.
Fe
b.
Cl
c.
Carbon
d.
Oxygen
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Q11 mcq
In stratosphere, which of the following elements acts as a catalyst in degradation of ozone and release of molecular oxygen?
a.
Fe
b.
Cl
c.
Carbon
d.
Oxygen
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Q12 mcq
Niche is
a.
The range of temperature that the organism needs to live
b.
The physical space where an organism lives
c.
All the biological factors in the organism's environment
d.
The functional role played by the organism where it lives
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Q12 mcq
Niche is
a.
the range of temperature that the organism needs to live
b.
the physical space where an organism lives
c.
all the biological factors in the organism's environment
d.
the functional role played by the organism where it lives
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Q13 mcq
Which of the following is a secondary pollutant?
a.
SO₂
b.
CO₂
c.
CO
d.
O₃
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Q13 mcq
Which of the following is a secondary pollutant?
a.
SO₂
b.
CO₂
c.
CO
d.
O₃
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Q14 mcq
Which of the following statements is correct?
a.
Horsetails are gymnosperms.
b.
Selaginella is heterosporous, while Salvinia is homosporous.
c.
Ovules are not enclosed by ovary wall in gymnosperms.
d.
Stems are usually unbranched in both Cycas and Cedrus.
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Q15 mcq
Pneumatophores occur in
a.
Carnivorous plants
b.
Free-floating hydrophytes
c.
Halophytes
d.
Submerged hydrophytes
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Q16 mcq
Sweet potato is a modified
a.
Tap root
b.
Adventitious root
c.
Stem
d.
Rhizome
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Q17 mcq
Secondary xylem and phloem in dicot stem are produced by
a.
Phellogen
b.
Vascular cambium
c.
Apical meristems
d.
Axillary meristems
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Q18 mcq
Select the wrong statement:
a.
Pseudopodia are locomotory and feeding structures in Sporozoans.
b.
Mushrooms belong to Basidiomycetes.
c.
Cell wall is present in members of Fungi and Plantae.
d.
Mitochondria are the powerhouse of the cell in all kingdoms except Monera.
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Q19 mcq
Casparian strips occur in
a.
Cortex
b.
Pericycle
c.
Epidermis
d.
Endodermis
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Q20 mcq
Plants having little or no secondary growth are
a.
Conifers
b.
Deciduous angiosperms
c.
Grasses
d.
Cycads
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Q21 mcq
A 'new' variety of rice was patented by a foreign company, though such varieties have been present in India for a long time. This is related to
a.
Lerma Rojo
b.
Sharbati Sonora
c.
Co-667
d.
Basmati
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Q22 mcq
Which of the following is commonly used as a vector for introducing a DNA fragment in human lymphocytes?
a.
λ phage
b.
Ti plasmid
c.
Retrovirus
d.
pBR 322
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Q23 mcq
Use of bioresources by multinational companies and organisations without authorisation from the concerned country and its people is called
a.
Biodegradation
b.
Biopiracy
c.
Bio-infringement
d.
Bioexploitation
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Q24 mcq
Select the correct match:
a.
T.H. Morgan – Transduction
b.
F₂ × Recessive parent – Dihybrid cross
c.
Ribozyme – Nucleic acid
d.
G. Mendel – Transformation
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Q25 mcq
The correct order of steps in Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is
a.
Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
b.
Annealing, Extension, Denaturation
c.
Extension, Denaturation, Annealing
d.
Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
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Q26 mcq
In India, the organisation responsible for assessing the safety of introducing genetically modified organisms for public use is
a.
Research Committee on Genetic Manipulation (RCGM)
b.
Council for Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR)
c.
Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)
d.
Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC)
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Q27 mcq
The stage during which separation of the paired homologous chromosomes begins is
a.
Diakinesis
b.
Diplotene
c.
Pachytene
d.
Zygotene
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Q28 mcq
The Golgi complex participates in
a.
Respiration in bacteria
b.
Formation of secretory vesicles
c.
Fatty acid breakdown
d.
Activation of amino acid
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Q29 mcq
Stomatal movement is not affected by
a.
O₂ concentration
b.
Light
c.
Temperature
d.
CO₂ concentration
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Q29 mcq
Stomatal movement is not affected by
a.
O₂ concentration
b.
Light
c.
Temperature
d.
CO₂ concentration
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Q30 mcq
Stomata in grass leaf are
a.
Rectangular
b.
Kidney shaped
c.
Dumb-bell shaped
d.
Barrel shaped
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Q30 mcq
Stomata in grass leaf are
a.
Rectangular
b.
Kidney shaped
c.
Dumb-bell shaped
d.
Barrel shaped
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Q31 mcq
The two functional groups characteristic of sugars are
a.
carbonyl and phosphate
b.
carbonyl and methyl
c.
hydroxyl and methyl
d.
carbonyl and hydroxyl
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Q31 mcq
The two functional groups characteristic of sugars are
a.
carbonyl and phosphate
b.
carbonyl and methyl
c.
hydroxyl and methyl
d.
carbonyl and hydroxyl
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Q32 mcq
Which of the following is not a product of light reaction of photosynthesis?
a.
NADPH
b.
NADH
c.
ATP
d.
Oxygen
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Q32 mcq
Which of the following is not a product of light reaction of photosynthesis?
a.
NADPH
b.
NADH
c.
ATP
d.
Oxygen
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Q33 mcq
Which of the following is true for nucleolus?
a.
It takes part in spindle formation.
b.
It is a membrane-bound structure.
c.
Larger nucleoli are present in dividing cells.
d.
It is a site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis.
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Q33 mcq
Which of the following is true for nucleolus?
a.
It takes part in spindle formation.
b.
It is a membrane-bound structure.
c.
Larger nucleoli are present in dividing cells.
d.
It is a site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis.
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Q34 mcq
Which among the following is not a prokaryote?
a.
Nostoc
b.
Mycobacterium
c.
Saccharomyces
d.
Oscillatoria
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Q34 mcq
Which among the following is not a prokaryote?
a.
Nostoc
b.
Mycobacterium
c.
Saccharomyces
d.
Oscillatoria
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Q35 mcq
Winged pollen grains are present in
a.
Mango
b.
Cycas
c.
Mustard
d.
Pinus
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Q35 mcq
Winged pollen grains are present in
a.
Mango
b.
Cycas
c.
Mustard
d.
Pinus
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Q36 mcq
After karyogamy followed by meiosis, spores are produced exogenously in
a.
Agaricus
b.
Alternaria
c.
Neurospora
d.
Saccharomyces
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Q36 mcq
After karyogamy followed by meiosis, spores are produced exogenously in
a.
Agaricus
b.
Alternaria
c.
Neurospora
d.
Saccharomyces
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Q37 mcq
Which one is wrongly matched?
a.
Gemma cups – Marchantia
b.
Biflagellate zoospores – Brown algae
c.
Uniflagellate gametes – Polysiphonia
d.
Unicellular organism – Chlorella
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Q38 mcq
Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below: Column I: a. Herbarium, b. Key, c. Museum, d. Catalogue Column II: i. It is a place having a collection of preserved plants and animals. ii. A list that enumerates methodically all the species found in an area with brief description aiding identification. iii. Is a place where dried and pressed plant specimens mounted on sheets are kept. iv. A booklet containing a list of characters and their alternates which are helpful in identification of various taxa.
a.
a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i
b.
a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
c.
a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii
d.
a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
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Q39 mcq
Which of the following flowers only once in its life-time?
a.
Mango
b.
Jackfruit
c.
Bamboo species
d.
Papaya
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Q40 mcq
Which of the following pairs is wrongly matched?
a.
XO type sex determination – Grasshopper
b.
ABO blood grouping – Co-dominance
c.
Starch synthesis in pea – Multiple alleles
d.
T.H. Morgan – Linkage
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Q41 mcq
Offsets are produced by
a.
Parthenocarpy
b.
Mitotic divisions
c.
Meiotic divisions
d.
Parthenogenesis
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Q42 mcq
Which of the following has proved helpful in preserving pollen as fossils?
a.
Oil content
b.
Cellulosic intine
c.
Pollenkitt
d.
Sporopollenin
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Q43 mcq
Select the correct statement:
a.
Spliceosomes take part in translation.
b.
Punnett square was developed by a British scientist.
c.
Franklin Stahl coined the term 'linkage'.
d.
Transduction was discovered by S. Altman.
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Q44 mcq
The experimental proof for semiconservative replication of DNA was first shown in a
a.
Plant
b.
Bacterium
c.
Fungus
d.
Virus
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Q45 mcq
Select the correct match:
a.
Matthew Meselson and F. Stahl – Pisum sativum
b.
Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase – TMV
c.
Alec Jeffreys – Streptococcus pneumoniae
d.
Francois Jacob and Jacques Monod – Lac operon
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Q46 mcq
Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below: Column I: a. Tidal volume, b. Inspiratory Reserve volume, c. Expiratory Reserve volume, d. Residual volume Column II: i. 2500–3000 mL, ii. 1100–1200 mL, iii. 500–550 mL, iv. 1000–1100 mL
a.
a-i, b-iv, c-ii, d-iii
b.
a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
c.
a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
d.
a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
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Q47 mcq
Which of the following options correctly represents the lung conditions in asthma and emphysema, respectively?
a.
Increased respiratory surface; Inflammation of bronchioles
b.
Increased number of bronchioles; Increased respiratory surface
c.
Inflammation of bronchioles; Decreased respiratory surface
d.
Decreased respiratory surface; Inflammation of bronchioles
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Q48 mcq
Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below: Column I: a. Tricuspid valve, b. Bicuspid valve, c. Semilunar valve Column II: i. Between left atrium and left ventricle, ii. Between right ventricle and pulmonary artery, iii. Between right atrium and right ventricle
a.
a-i, b-ii, c-iii
b.
a-i, b-iii, c-ii
c.
a-iii, b-i, c-ii
d.
a-ii, b-i, c-iii
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Q48 mcq
Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below: Column I Column II a. Tricuspid valve i. Between left atrium and left ventricle b. Bicuspid valve ii. Between right ventricle and pulmonary artery c. Semilunar valve iii. Between right atrium and right ventricle a b c
a.
i ii iii
b.
i iii ii
c.
iii i ii
d.
ii i iii
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Q49 mcq
All of the following are part of an operon except
a.
an enhancer
b.
structural genes
c.
an operator
d.
a promoter
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Q49 mcq
All of the following are part of an operon except
a.
an enhancer
b.
structural genes
c.
an operator
d.
a promoter
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Q50 mcq
AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding strand of a gene. What will be the corresponding sequence of the transcribed mRNA?
a.
ACCUAUGCGAU
b.
UGGTUTCGCAT
c.
AGGUAUCGCAU
d.
UCCAUAGCGUA
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Q50 mcq
AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding strand of a gene. What will be the corresponding sequence of the transcribed mRNA?
a.
ACCUAUGCGAU
b.
UGGTUTCGCAT
c.
AGGUAUCGCAU
d.
UCCAUAGCGUA
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Q51 mcq
According to Hugo de Vries, the mechanism of evolution is
a.
Phenotypic variations
b.
Saltation
c.
Multiple step mutations
d.
Minor mutations
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Q52 mcq
Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below: Column I Column II a. Proliferative Phase i. Breakdown of endometrial lining b. Secretory Phase ii. Follicular Phase c. Menstruation iii. Luteal Phase a b c
a.
ii iii i
b.
i iii ii
c.
iii ii i
d.
iii i ii
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Q53 mcq
A woman has an X-linked condition on one of her X chromosomes. This chromosome can be inherited by
a.
Only grandchildren
b.
Only sons
c.
Only daughters
d.
Both sons and daughters
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Q54 mcq
Ciliates differ from all other protozoans in
a.
using pseudopodia for capturing prey
b.
having a contractile vacuole for removing excess water
c.
using flagella for locomotion
d.
having two types of nuclei
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Q55 mcq
Identify the vertebrate group of animals characterized by crop and gizzard in its digestive system.
a.
Aves
b.
Reptilia
c.
Amphibia
d.
Osteichthyes
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Q56 mcq
Which of the following organisms are known as chief producers in the oceans?
a.
Cyanobacteria
b.
Diatoms
c.
Dinoflagellates
d.
Euglenoids
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Q57 mcq
Which of the following features is used to identify a male cockroach from a female cockroach?
a.
Forewings with darker tegmina
b.
Presence of caudal styles
c.
Presence of a boat shaped sternum on the 9th abdominal segment
d.
Presence of anal cerci
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Q58 mcq
Which of the following animals does not undergo metamorphosis?
a.
Moth
b.
Tunicate
c.
Earthworm
d.
Starfish
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Q59 mcq
Which one of these animals is not a homeotherm?
a.
Camelus
b.
Chelone
c.
Macropus
d.
Psittacula
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Q60 mcq
The transparent lens in the human eye is held in its place by
a.
smooth muscles attached to the iris
b.
ligaments attached to the iris
c.
ligaments attached to the ciliary body
d.
smooth muscles attached to the ciliary body
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Q61 mcq
Which of the following structures or regions is incorrectly paired with its function? (1) Hypothalamus: production of releasing hormones and regulation of temperature, hunger and thirst. (2) Limbic system: consists of fibre tracts that interconnect different regions of brain; controls movement. (3) Medulla oblongata: controls respiration and cardiovascular reflexes. (4) Corpus callosum: band of fibers connecting left and right cerebral hemispheres.
a.
Hypothalamus : production of releasing hormones and regulation of temperature, hunger and thirst.
b.
Limbic system : consists of fibre tracts that interconnect different regions of brain; controls movement.
c.
Medulla oblongata : controls respiration and cardiovascular reflexes.
d.
Corpus callosum : band of fibers connecting left and right cerebral hemispheres.
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Q62 mcq
Which of the following hormones can play a significant role in osteoporosis?
a.
Estrogen and Parathyroid hormone
b.
Progesterone and Aldosterone
c.
Aldosterone and Prolactin
d.
Parathyroid hormone and Prolactin
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Q63 mcq
Which of the following is an amino acid derived hormone?
a.
Estradiol
b.
Ecdysone
c.
Epinephrine
d.
Estriol
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Q64 mcq
Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below: Column I Column II a. Glycosuria i. Accumulation of uric acid in joints b. Gout ii. Mass of crystallised salts within the kidney c. Renal calculi iii. Inflammation in glomeruli d. Glomerular nephritis iv. Presence of glucose in urine a b c d
a.
ii iii i iv
b.
i ii iii iv
c.
iii ii iv i
d.
iv i ii iii
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Q64 mcq
Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below: Column I Column II a. Glycosuria i. Accumulation of uric acid in joints b. Gout ii. Mass of crystallised salts within the kidney c. Renal calculi iii. Inflammation in glomeruli d. Glomerular nephritis iv. Presence of glucose in urine a b c d
a.
ii iii i iv
b.
i ii iii iv
c.
iii ii iv i
d.
iv i ii iii
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Q65 mcq
Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below: Column I (Function) Column II (Part of Excretory System) a. Ultrafiltration i. Henle's loop b. Concentration of urine ii. Ureter c. Transport of urine iii. Urinary bladder d. Storage of urine iv. Malpighian corpuscle v. Proximal convoluted tubule a b c d
a.
v iv i ii
b.
iv i ii iii
c.
iv v ii iii
d.
v iv i iii
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Q65 mcq
Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below: Column I (Function) Column II (Part of Excretory System) a. Ultrafiltration i. Henle's loop b. Concentration of urine ii. Ureter c. Transport of urine iii. Urinary bladder d. Storage of urine iv. Malpighian corpuscle v. Proximal convoluted tubule a b c d
a.
v iv i ii
b.
iv i ii iii
c.
iv v ii iii
d.
v iv i iii
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Q66 mcq
Which of the following gastric cells indirectly help in erythropoiesis?
a.
Goblet cells
b.
Mucous cells
c.
Chief cells
d.
Parietal cells
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Q66 mcq
Which of the following gastric cells indirectly help in erythropoiesis?
a.
Goblet cells
b.
Mucous cells
c.
Chief cells
d.
Parietal cells
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Q67 mcq
Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below: Column I Column II a. Fibrinogen i. Osmotic balance b. Globulin ii. Blood clotting c. Albumin iii. Defence mechanism a b c
a.
i iii ii
b.
i ii iii
c.
iii ii i
d.
ii iii i
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Q68 mcq
Calcium is important in skeletal muscle contraction because it
a.
detaches the myosin head from the actin filament.
b.
activates the myosin ATPase by binding to it.
c.
binds to troponin to remove the masking of active sites on actin for myosin.
d.
prevents the formation of bonds between the myosin cross bridges and the actin filament.
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Q69 mcq
Which of the following is an occupational respiratory disorder?
a.
Botulism
b.
Silicosis
c.
Anthracis
d.
Emphysema
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Q70 mcq
Which of these statements is incorrect?
a.
Glycolysis operates as long as it is supplied with NAD that can pick up hydrogen atoms.
b.
Glycolysis occurs in cytosol.
c.
Enzymes of TCA cycle are present in mitochondrial matrix.
d.
Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in outer mitochondrial membrane.
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Q71 mcq
Nissl bodies are mainly composed of
a.
Nucleic acids and SER
b.
DNA and RNA
c.
Proteins and lipids
d.
Free ribosomes and RER
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Q72 mcq
Select the incorrect match:
a.
Submetacentric Chromosomes – L-shaped chromosomes
b.
Allosomes – Sex chromosomes
c.
Lampbrush chromosomes – Diplotene bivalents
d.
Polytene chromosomes – Oocytes of amphibians
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Q73 mcq
Many ribosomes may associate with a single mRNA to form multiple copies of a polypeptide simultaneously. Such strings of ribosomes are termed as
a.
Plastidome
b.
Polyhedral bodies
c.
Polysome
d.
Nucleosome
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Q74 mcq
Which of the following events does not occur in rough endoplasmic reticulum?
a.
Cleavage of signal peptide
b.
Protein glycosylation
c.
Protein folding
d.
Phospholipid synthesis
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Q75 mcq
Which of the following terms describe human dentition?
a.
Pleurodont, Monophyodont, Homodont
b.
Thecodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont
c.
Thecodont, Diphyodont, Homodont
d.
Pleurodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont
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Q76 mcq
In a growing population of a country,
a.
reproductive and pre-reproductive individuals are equal in number.
b.
reproductive individuals are less than the post-reproductive individuals.
c.
pre-reproductive individuals are more than the reproductive individuals.
d.
pre-reproductive individuals are less than the reproductive individuals.
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Q77 mcq
Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below: Column I Column II a. Eutrophication i. UV-B radiation b. Sanitary landfill ii. Deforestation c. Snow blindness iii. Nutrient enrichment d. Jhum cultivation iv. Waste disposal a b c d
a.
iii iv i ii
b.
i iii iv ii
c.
ii i iii iv
d.
i ii iv iii
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Q78 mcq
Which part of poppy plant is used to obtain the drug 'Smack'?
a.
Roots
b.
Latex
c.
Flowers
d.
Leaves
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Q78 mcq
Which part of poppy plant is used to obtain the drug 'Smack'?
a.
Roots
b.
Latex
c.
Flowers
d.
Leaves
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Q79 mcq
Which one of the following population interactions is widely used in medical science for the production of antibiotics?
a.
Parasitism
b.
Mutualism
c.
Commensalism
d.
Amensalism
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Q79 mcq
Which one of the following population interactions is widely used in medical science for the production of antibiotics?
a.
Parasitism
b.
Mutualism
c.
Commensalism
d.
Amensalism
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Q80 mcq
All of the following are included in 'Ex-situ conservation' except
a.
Botanical gardens
b.
Sacred groves
c.
Wildlife safari parks
d.
Seed banks
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Q80 mcq
All of the following are included in 'Ex-situ conservation' except
a.
Botanical gardens
b.
Sacred groves
c.
Wildlife safari parks
d.
Seed banks
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Q81 mcq
Hormones secreted by the placenta to maintain pregnancy are
a.
hCG, hPL, progestogens, estrogens
b.
hCG, hPL, estrogens, relaxin, oxytocin
c.
hCG, hPL, progestogens, prolactin
d.
hCG, progestogens, estrogens, glucocorticoids
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Q81 mcq
Hormones secreted by the placenta to maintain pregnancy are
a.
hCG, hPL, progestogens, estrogens
b.
hCG, hPL, estrogens, relaxin, oxytocin
c.
hCG, hPL, progestogens, prolactin
d.
hCG, progestogens, estrogens, glucocorticoids
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Q82 mcq
The contraceptive 'SAHELI'
a.
is an IUD.
b.
increases the concentration of estrogen and prevents ovulation in females.
c.
blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus, preventing eggs from getting implanted.
d.
is a post-coital contraceptive.
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Q83 mcq
The difference between spermiogenesis and spermiation is
a.
In spermiogenesis spermatozoa from sertoli cells are released into the cavity of seminiferous tubules, while in spermiation spermatozoa are formed.
b.
In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed, while in spermiation spermatids are formed.
c.
In spermiogenesis spermatids are formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa are formed.
d.
In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa are released from sertoli cells into the cavity of seminiferous tubules.
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Q84 mcq
The amnion of mammalian embryo is derived from
a.
mesoderm and trophoblast
b.
endoderm and mesoderm
c.
ectoderm and mesoderm
d.
ectoderm and endoderm
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Q85 mcq
The similarity of bone structure in the forelimbs of many vertebrates is an example of
a.
Convergent evolution
b.
Analogy
c.
Homology
d.
Adaptive radiation
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Q86 mcq
In which disease does mosquito transmitted pathogen cause chronic inflammation of lymphatic vessels?
a.
Ringworm disease
b.
Ascariasis
c.
Elephantiasis
d.
Amoebiasis
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Q87 mcq
Which of the following is not an autoimmune disease?
a.
Alzheimer's disease
b.
Rheumatoid arthritis
c.
Psoriasis
d.
Vitiligo
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Q88 mcq
Which of the following characteristics represent 'Inheritance of blood groups' in humans? a. Dominance b. Co-dominance c. Multiple allele d. Incomplete dominance e. Polygenic inheritance
a.
b, d and e
b.
a, b and c
c.
b, c and e
d.
a, c and e
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Q89 mcq
Among the following sets of examples for divergent evolution, select the incorrect option:
a.
Brain of bat, man and cheetah
b.
Heart of bat, man and cheetah
c.
Forelimbs of man, bat and cheetah
d.
Eye of octopus, bat and man
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Q90 mcq
Conversion of milk to curd improves its nutritional value by increasing the amount of
a.
Vitamin B₁₂
b.
Vitamin A
c.
Vitamin D
d.
Vitamin E
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Q137 mcq
On which of the following properties does the coagulating power of an ion depend?
a.
Both magnitude and sign of the charge on the ion
b.
Size of the ion alone
c.
The magnitude of the charge on the ion alone
d.
The sign of charge on the ion alone
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