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NEET · Biology

NEET 2018 CODE-HH

2018 · 113 questions · First 10 Solutions Free
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Q46 mcq
Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below:
a.
(1) v iv i ii
b.
(2) iv v ii iii
c.
(3) v iv i iii
d.
(4) iv i ii iii Correct Answer
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Ultrafiltration occurs in the Malpighian corpuscle (iv). Concentration of urine involves Henle’s loop (i). Transport of urine occurs via the Ureter (ii). Storage of urine occurs in the Urinary bladder (iii).
Q47 mcq
Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below:
a.
(1) ii iii i iv
b.
(2) iii ii iv i
c.
(3) iv i ii iii Correct Answer
d.
(4) i ii iii iv
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Glycosuria (iv) is the presence of glucose in urine. Gout (i) is accumulation of uric acid in joints. Renal calculi (ii) are masses of crystallised salts. Glomerular nephritis (iii) is inflammation in glomeruli.
Q48 mcq
Which of the following is an amino acid derived hormone?
a.
Estradiol
b.
Epinephrine Correct Answer
c.
Estriol
d.
Ecdysone
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Epinephrine (adrenaline) is synthesized from the amino acid tyrosine and is thus an amino acid derivative. Steroids include Estradiol, Estriol, and Ecdysone.
Q49 mcq
Which of the following hormones can play a significant role in osteoporosis?
a.
Estrogen and Parathyroid hormone Correct Answer
b.
Aldosterone and Prolactin
c.
Parathyroid hormone and Prolactin
d.
Progesterone and Aldosterone
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Estrogen deficiency in post-menopausal women leads to bone density loss. Excess Parathyroid hormone (PTH) causes bone resorption, contributing to osteoporosis.
Q50 mcq
Which of the following structures or regions is incorrectly paired with its function?
a.
Hypothalamus : production of releasing hormones and regulation of temperature, hunger and thirst.
b.
Medulla oblongata : controls respiration and cardiovascular reflexes.
c.
Corpus callosum : band of fibers connecting left and right cerebral hemispheres.
d.
Limbic system : consists of fibre tracts that interconnect different regions of brain; controls movement. Correct Answer
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
The limbic system is associated with emotions, motivation, and memory, not with motor control/movement.
Q51 mcq
The transparent lens in the human eye is held in its place by
a.
smooth muscles attached to the iris
b.
ligaments attached to the ciliary body Correct Answer
c.
smooth muscles attached to the ciliary body
d.
ligaments attached to the iris
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
The lens is held in position by suspensory ligaments which are attached to the ciliary body.
Q52 mcq
AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding strand of a gene. What will be the corresponding sequence of the transcribed mRNA?
a.
ACCUAUGCGAU
b.
AGGUAUCGCAU Correct Answer
c.
UCCAUAGCGUA
d.
UGGTUTCGCAT
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
The coding strand (non-template strand) is identical to the mRNA sequence, except that thymine (T) in DNA is replaced by uracil (U) in RNA.
Q52 mcq
AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding strand of a gene. What will be the corresponding sequence of the transcribed mRNA?
a.
ACCUAUGCGAU
b.
AGGUAUCGCAU Correct Answer
c.
UCCAUAGCGUA
d.
UGGTUTCGCAT
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
The mRNA sequence is complementary to the template strand but identical to the coding strand, with Uracil (U) replacing Thymine (T). Thus, AGGTATCGCAT becomes AGGUAUCGCAU.
Q53 mcq
All of the following are part of an operon except
a.
an enhancer Correct Answer
b.
an operator
c.
a promoter
d.
structural genes
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
An operon consists of a promoter, operator, and structural genes. Enhancers are regulatory sequences found in eukaryotes, not part of typical bacterial operons.
Q53 mcq
All of the following are part of an operon except
a.
an enhancer Correct Answer
b.
an operator
c.
a promoter
d.
structural genes
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
An operon consists of a promoter, operator, and structural genes. Enhancers are regulatory elements found in eukaryotes, not in bacterial operons.
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Q54 mcq
A woman has an X-linked condition on one of her X chromosomes. This chromosome can be inherited by
a.
Only grandchildren
b.
Only daughters
c.
Both sons and daughters
d.
Only sons
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Q54 mcq
A woman has an X-linked condition on one of her X chromosomes. This chromosome can be inherited by
a.
Only grandchildren
b.
Only daughters
c.
Both sons and daughters
d.
Only sons
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Q55 mcq
Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II: Column I: a. Proliferative Phase, b. Secretory Phase, c. Menstruation. Column II: i. Breakdown of endometrial lining, ii. Follicular Phase, iii. Luteal Phase.
a.
ii iii i
b.
iii ii i
c.
iii i ii
d.
i iii ii
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Q56 mcq
According to Hugo de Vries, the mechanism of evolution is
a.
Phenotypic variations
b.
Multiple step mutations
c.
Minor mutations
d.
Saltation
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Q56 mcq
According to Hugo de Vries, the mechanism of evolution is
a.
Phenotypic variations
b.
Multiple step mutations
c.
Minor mutations
d.
Saltation
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Q57 mcq
Among the following sets of examples for divergent evolution, select the incorrect option:
a.
Brain of bat, man and cheetah
b.
Forelimbs of man, bat and cheetah
c.
Eye of octopus, bat and man
d.
Heart of bat, man and cheetah
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Q58 mcq
The similarity of bone structure in the forelimbs of many vertebrates is an example of
a.
Convergent evolution
b.
Homology
c.
Adaptive radiation
d.
Analogy
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Q59 mcq
Which of the following is not an autoimmune disease?
a.
Alzheimer’s disease
b.
Psoriasis
c.
Vitiligo
d.
Rheumatoid arthritis
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Q60 mcq
Which of the following characteristics represent ‘Inheritance of blood groups’ in humans? a. Dominance, b. Co-dominance, c. Multiple allele, d. Incomplete dominance, e. Polygenic inheritance.
a.
b, d and e
b.
b, c and e
c.
a, c and e
d.
a, b and c
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Q61 mcq
Conversion of milk to curd improves its nutritional value by increasing the amount of
a.
Vitamin B12
b.
Vitamin D
c.
Vitamin E
d.
Vitamin A
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Q62 mcq
In which disease does mosquito transmitted pathogen cause chronic inflammation of lymphatic vessels?
a.
Ringworm disease
b.
Elephantiasis
c.
Amoebiasis
d.
Ascariasis
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Q63 mcq
All of the following are included in ‘Ex-situ conservation’ except
a.
Botanical gardens
b.
Wildlife safari parks
c.
Seed banks
d.
Sacred groves
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Q64 mcq
Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II: Column I: a. Eutrophication, b. Sanitary landfill, c. Snow blindness, d. Jhum cultivation. Column II: i. UV-B radiation, ii. Deforestation, iii. Nutrient enrichment, iv. Waste disposal.
a.
iii iv i ii
b.
ii i iii iv
c.
i ii iv iii
d.
i iii iv ii
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Q65 mcq
In a growing population of a country,
a.
reproductive and pre -reproductive individuals are equal in number.
b.
pre-reproductive individuals are more than the reproductive individuals.
c.
pre-reproductive individuals are less than the reproductive individuals.
d.
reproductive individuals are less than the post-reproductive individuals.
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Q66 mcq
Which part of poppy plant is used to obtain the drug ‘‘Smack’’?
a.
Roots
b.
Flowers
c.
Leaves
d.
Latex
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Q67 mcq
Which one of the following population interactions is widely used in medical science for the production of antibiotics?
a.
Parasitism
b.
Commensalism
c.
Amensalism
d.
Mutualism
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Q68 mcq
The contraceptive ‘SAHELI’
a.
is an IUD.
b.
blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus, preventing eggs from getting implanted.
c.
is a post-coital contraceptive.
d.
increases the concentration of estrogen and prevents ovulation in females.
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Q69 mcq
The amnion of mammalian embryo is derived from
a.
mesoderm and trophoblast
b.
ectoderm and mesoderm
c.
ectoderm and endoderm
d.
endoderm and mesoderm
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Q69 mcq
The amnion of mammalian embryo is derived from
a.
mesoderm and trophoblast
b.
ectoderm and mesoderm
c.
ectoderm and endoderm
d.
endoderm and mesoderm
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Q70 mcq
The difference between spermiogenesis and spermiation is
a.
In spermiogenesis spermatozoa from sertoli cells are released into the cavity of seminiferous tubules, while in spermiation spermatozoa are formed.
b.
In spermiogenesis spermatids are formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa are formed.
c.
In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa are released from sertoli cells into the cavity of seminiferous tubules.
d.
In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed, while in spermiation spermatids are formed.
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Q70 mcq
The difference between spermiogenesis and spermiation is
a.
In spermiogenesis spermatozoa from sertoli cells are released into the cavity of seminiferous tubules, while in spermiation spermatozoa are formed.
b.
In spermiogenesis spermatids are formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa are formed.
c.
In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa are released from sertoli cells into the cavity of seminiferous tubules.
d.
In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed, while in spermiation spermatids are formed.
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Q71 mcq
Hormones secreted by the placenta to maintain pregnancy are
a.
hCG, hPL, progestogens, estrogens
b.
hCG, hPL, progestogens, prolactin
c.
hCG, progestogens, estrogens, glucocorticoids
d.
hCG, hPL, estrogens, relaxin, oxytocin
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Q71 mcq
Hormones secreted by the placenta to maintain pregnancy are
a.
hCG, hPL, progestogens, estrogens
b.
hCG, hPL, progestogens, prolactin
c.
hCG, progestogens, estrogens, glucocorticoids
d.
hCG, hPL, estrogens, relaxin, oxytocin
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Q72 mcq
Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below: Column I: a. Tricuspid valve, b. Bicuspid valve, c. Semilunar valve Column II: i. Between left atrium and left ventricle, ii. Between right ventricle and pulmonary artery, iii. Between right atrium and right ventricle
a.
a-i, b-ii, c-iii
b.
a-iii, b-i, c-ii
c.
a-ii, b-i, c-iii
d.
a-i, b-iii, c-ii
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Q73 mcq
Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below: Column I: a. Tidal volume, b. Inspiratory Reserve volume, c. Expiratory Reserve volume, d. Residual volume Column II: i. 2500 – 3000 mL, ii. 1100 – 1200 mL, iii. 500 – 550 mL, iv. 1000 – 1100 mL
a.
a-i, b-iv, c-ii, d-iii
b.
a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
c.
a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
d.
a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
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Q74 mcq
Which of the following options correctly represents the lung conditions in asthma and emphysema, respectively?
a.
Increased respiratory surface; Inflammation of bronchioles
b.
Inflammation of bronchioles; Decreased respiratory surface
c.
Decreased respiratory surface; Inflammation of bronchioles
d.
Increased number of bronchioles; Increased respiratory surface
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Q75 mcq
Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below: Column I: a. Fibrinogen, b. Globulin, c. Albumin Column II: i. Osmotic balance, ii. Blood clotting, iii. Defence mechanism
a.
a-i, b-iii, c-ii
b.
a-iii, b-ii, c-i
c.
a-ii, b-iii, c-i
d.
a-i, b-ii, c-iii
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Q76 mcq
Which of the following is an occupational respiratory disorder?
a.
Botulism
b.
Anthracis
c.
Emphysema
d.
Silicosis
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Q77 mcq
Calcium is important in skeletal muscle contraction because it
a.
detaches the myosin head from the actin filament.
b.
binds to troponin to remove the masking of active sites on actin for myosin.
c.
prevents the formation of bonds between the myosin cross bridges and the actin filament.
d.
activates the myosin ATPase by binding to it.
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Q78 mcq
Which of the following gastric cells indirectly help in erythropoiesis?
a.
Goblet cells
b.
Chief cells
c.
Parietal cells
d.
Mucous cells
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Q79 mcq
Which one of these animals is not a homeotherm?
a.
Camelus
b.
Macropus
c.
Psittacula
d.
Chelone
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Q80 mcq
Identify the vertebrate group of animals characterized by crop and gizzard in its digestive system.
a.
Aves
b.
Amphibia
c.
Osteichthyes
d.
Reptilia
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Q81 mcq
Ciliates differ from all other protozoans in
a.
using pseudopodia for capturing prey
b.
using flagella for locomotion
c.
having two types of nuclei
d.
having a contractile vacuole for removing excess water
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Q82 mcq
Which of the following animals does not undergo metamorphosis?
a.
Moth
b.
Earthworm
c.
Starfish
d.
Tunicate
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Q83 mcq
Which of the following organisms are known as chief producers in the oceans?
a.
Cyanobacteria
b.
Dinoflagellates
c.
Euglenoids
d.
Diatoms
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Q83 mcq
Which of the following organisms are known as chief producers in the oceans?
a.
Cyanobacteria
b.
Dinoflagellates
c.
Euglenoids
d.
Diatoms
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Q84 mcq
Which of the following features is used to identify a male cockroach from a female cockroach?
a.
Forewings with darker tegmina
b.
Presence of a boat shaped sternum on the 9th abdominal segment
c.
Presence of anal cerci
d.
Presence of caudal styles
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Q84 mcq
Which of the following features is used to identify a male cockroach from a female cockroach?
a.
Forewings with darker tegmina
b.
Presence of a boat shaped sternum on the 9th abdominal segment
c.
Presence of anal cerci
d.
Presence of caudal styles
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Q85 mcq
Nissl bodies are mainly composed of
a.
Nucleic acids and SER
b.
Proteins and lipids
c.
Free ribosomes and RER
d.
DNA and RNA
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Q85 mcq
Nissl bodies are mainly composed of
a.
Nucleic acids and SER
b.
Proteins and lipids
c.
Free ribosomes and RER
d.
DNA and RNA
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Q86 mcq
Which of the following events does not occur in rough endoplasmic reticulum?
a.
Cleavage of signal peptide
b.
Protein folding
c.
Phospholipid synthesis
d.
Protein glycosylation
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Q86 mcq
Which of the following events does not occur in rough endoplasmic reticulum?
a.
Cleavage of signal peptide
b.
Protein folding
c.
Phospholipid synthesis
d.
Protein glycosylation
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Q87 mcq
Which of these statements is incorrect?
a.
Glycolysis operates as long as it is supplied with NAD that can pick up hydrogen atoms.
b.
Enzymes of TCA cycle are present in mitochondrial matrix.
c.
Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in outer mitochondrial membrane.
d.
Glycolysis occurs in cytosol.
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Q87 mcq
Which of these statements is incorrect?
a.
Glycolysis operates as long as it is supplied with NAD that can pick up hydrogen atoms.
b.
Enzymes of TCA cycle are present in mitochondrial matrix.
c.
Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in outer mitochondrial membrane.
d.
Glycolysis occurs in cytosol.
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Q88 mcq
Which of the following terms describe human dentition?
a.
Pleurodont, Monophyodont, Homodont
b.
Thecodont, Diphyodont, Homodont
c.
Pleurodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont
d.
Thecodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont
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Q89 mcq
Many ribosomes may associate with a single mRNA to form multiple copies of a polypeptide simultaneously. Such strings of ribosomes are termed as
a.
Plastidome
b.
Polysome
c.
Nucleosome
d.
Polyhedral bodies
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Q90 mcq
Select the incorrect match :
a.
Submetacentric – L-shaped chromosomes
b.
Lampbrush – Diplotene bivalents
c.
Polytene – Oocytes of amphibians
d.
Allosomes – Sex chromosomes
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Q91 mcq
Pneumatophores occur in
a.
Carnivorous plants
b.
Halophytes
c.
Submerged hydrophytes
d.
Free-floating hydrophytes
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Q92 mcq
Sweet potato is a modified
a.
Tap root
b.
Stem
c.
Rhizome
d.
Adventitious root
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Q93 mcq
Which of the following statements is correct?
a.
Horsetails are gymnosperms.
b.
Ovules are not enclosed by ovary wall in gymnosperms.
c.
Stems are usually unbranched in both Cycas and Cedrus.
d.
Selaginella is heterosporous, while Salvinia is homosporous.
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Q94 mcq
Casparian strips occur in
a.
Cortex
b.
Epidermis
c.
Endodermis
d.
Pericycle
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Q95 mcq
Secondary xylem and phloem in dicot stem are produced by
a.
Phellogen
b.
Apical meristems
c.
Axillary meristems
d.
Vascular cambium
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Q96 mcq
Select the wrong statement :
a.
Pseudopodia are locomotory and feeding structures in Sporozoans.
b.
Cell wall is present in members of Fungi and Plantae.
c.
Mitochondria are the powerhouse of the cell in all kingdoms except Monera.
d.
Mushrooms belong to Basidiomycetes.
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Q97 mcq
Plants having little or no secondary growth are
a.
Conifers
b.
Grasses
c.
Cycads
d.
Deciduous angiosperms
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Q98 mcq
Which of the following pairs is wrongly matched?
a.
XO type sex determination : Grasshopper
b.
Starch synthesis in pea : Multiple alleles
c.
T.H. Morgan : Linkage
d.
ABO blood grouping : Co-dominance
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Q99 mcq
Select the correct statement :
a.
Spliceosomes take part in translation.
b.
Franklin Stahl coined the term ‘‘linkage’’.
c.
Transduction was discovered by S. Altman.
d.
Punnett square was developed by a British scientist.
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Q100 mcq
The experimental proof for semiconservative replication of DNA was first shown in a
a.
Plant
b.
Fungus
c.
Virus
d.
Bacterium
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Q101 mcq
Select the correct match :
a.
Matthew Meselson and F. Stahl – Pisum sativum
b.
Alec Jeffreys – Streptococcus pneumoniae
c.
Francois Jacob and Jacques Monod – Lac operon
d.
Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase – TMV
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Q102 mcq
Offsets are produced by
a.
Parthenocarpy
b.
Meiotic divisions
c.
Parthenogenesis
d.
Mitotic divisions
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Q103 mcq
Which of the following flowers only once in its life-time?
a.
Mango
b.
Bamboo species
c.
Papaya
d.
Jackfruit
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Q103 mcq
Which of the following flowers only once in its life-time?
a.
Mango
b.
Bamboo species
c.
Papaya
d.
Jackfruit
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Q104 mcq
Which of the following has proved helpful in preserving pollen as fossils?
a.
Oil content
b.
Pollenkitt
c.
Sporopollenin
d.
Cellulosic intine
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Q104 mcq
Which of the following has proved helpful in preserving pollen as fossils?
a.
Oil content
b.
Pollenkitt
c.
Sporopollenin
d.
Cellulosic intine
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Q105 mcq
World Ozone Day is celebrated on
a.
16th September
b.
5th June
c.
22nd April
d.
21st April
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Q105 mcq
World Ozone Day is celebrated on
a.
16th September
b.
5th June
c.
22nd April
d.
21st April
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Q106 mcq
Natality refers to
a.
Number of individuals leaving the habitat
b.
Death rate
c.
Number of individuals entering a habitat
d.
Birth rate
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Q106 mcq
Natality refers to
a.
Number of individuals leaving the habitat
b.
Death rate
c.
Number of individuals entering a habitat
d.
Birth rate
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Q107 mcq
What type of ecological pyramid would be obtained with the following data? Secondary consumer : 120 g, Primary consumer : 60 g, Primary producer : 10 g
a.
Upright pyramid of numbers
b.
Inverted pyramid of biomass
c.
Upright pyramid of biomass
d.
Pyramid of energy
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Q107 mcq
What type of ecological pyramid would be obtained with the following data? Secondary consumer: 120 g, Primary consumer: 60 g, Primary producer: 10 g
a.
Upright pyramid of numbers
b.
Inverted pyramid of biomass
c.
Upright pyramid of biomass
d.
Pyramid of energy
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Q108 mcq
Which of the following is a secondary pollutant?
a.
SO2
b.
CO
c.
O3
d.
CO2
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Q108 mcq
Which of the following is a secondary pollutant?
a.
SO2
b.
CO
c.
O3
d.
CO2
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Q109 mcq
Niche is
a.
the range of temperature that the organism needs to live
b.
all the biological factors in the organism’s environment
c.
the functional role played by the organism where it lives
d.
the physical space where an organism lives
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Q110 mcq
In stratosphere, which of the following elements acts as a catalyst in degradation of ozone and release of molecular oxygen?
a.
Fe
b.
Carbon
c.
Oxygen
d.
Cl
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Q111 mcq
The correct order of steps in Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is
a.
Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
b.
Extension, Denaturation, Annealing
c.
Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
d.
Annealing, Extension, Denaturation
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Q112 mcq
In India, the organisation responsible for assessing the safety of introducing genetically modified organisms for public use is
a.
Research Committee on Genetic Manipulation (RCGM)
b.
Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)
c.
Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC)
d.
Council for Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR)
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Q113 mcq
Which of the following is commonly used as a vector for introducing a DNA fragment in human lymphocytes?
a.
λ phage
b.
Retrovirus
c.
pBR 322
d.
Ti plasmid
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Q114 mcq
Use of bioresources by multinational companies and organisations without authorisation from the concerned country and its people is called
a.
Biodegradation
b.
Bio-infringement
c.
Bioexploitation
d.
Biopiracy
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Q115 mcq
A ‘new’ variety of rice was patented by a foreign company, though such varieties have been present in India for a long time. This is related to
a.
Lerma Rojo
b.
Co-667
c.
Basmati
d.
Sharbati Sonora
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Q116 mcq
Select the correct match:
a.
T.H. Morgan – Transduction
b.
Ribozyme – Nucleic acid
c.
G. Mendel – Transformation
d.
F2 × Recessive parent – Dihybrid cross
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Q117 mcq
Which of the following elements is responsible for maintaining turgor in cells?
a.
Potassium
b.
Magnesium
c.
Calcium
d.
Sodium
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Q118 mcq
Which one of the following plants shows a very close relationship with a species of moth, where none of the two can complete its life cycle without the other?
a.
Banana
b.
Hydrilla
c.
Viola
d.
Yucca
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Q119 mcq
Pollen grains can be stored for several years in liquid nitrogen having a temperature of
a.
– 196°C
b.
– 120°C
c.
– 160°C
d.
– 80°C
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Q120 mcq
Double fertilization is
a.
Fusion of two male gametes with one egg
b.
Fusion of two male gametes of a pollen tube with two different eggs
c.
Syngamy and triple fusion
d.
Fusion of one male gamete with two polar nuclei
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Q121 mcq
Oxygen is not produced during photosynthesis by
a.
Cycas
b.
Green sulphur bacteria
c.
Chara
d.
Nostoc
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Q122 mcq
What is the role of NAD+ in cellular respiration?
a.
It is a nucleotide source for ATP synthesis.
b.
It functions as an enzyme.
c.
It is the final electron acceptor for anaerobic respiration.
d.
It functions as an electron carrier.
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Q123 mcq
In which of the following forms is iron absorbed by plants?
a.
Free element
b.
Ferric
c.
Both ferric and ferrous
d.
Ferrous
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Q123 mcq
In which of the following forms is iron absorbed by plants?
a.
Free element
b.
Ferric
c.
Both ferric and ferrous
d.
Ferrous
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Q124 mcq
The Golgi complex participates in
a.
Respiration in bacteria
b.
Fatty acid breakdown
c.
Activation of amino acid
d.
Formation of secretory vesicles
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Q124 mcq
The Golgi complex participates in
a.
Respiration in bacteria
b.
Fatty acid breakdown
c.
Activation of amino acid
d.
Formation of secretory vesicles
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Q126 mcq
Which among the following is not a prokaryote?
a.
Nostoc
b.
Saccharomyces
c.
Oscillatoria
d.
Mycobacterium
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Q126 mcq
Which among the following is not a prokaryote?
a.
Nostoc
b.
Saccharomyces
c.
Oscillatoria
d.
Mycobacterium
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Q127 mcq
Stomatal movement is not affected by
a.
O2 concentration
b.
Temperature
c.
CO2 concentration
d.
Light
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Q127 mcq
Stomatal movement is not affected by
a.
O2 concentration
b.
Temperature
c.
CO2 concentration
d.
Light
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Q128 mcq
Which of the following is not a product of light reaction of photosynthesis?
a.
NADPH
b.
ATP
c.
Oxygen
d.
NADH
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Q128 mcq
Which of the following is not a product of light reaction of photosynthesis?
a.
NADPH
b.
ATP
c.
Oxygen
d.
NADH
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Q129 mcq
Which of the following is true for nucleolus?
a.
It takes part in spindle formation.
b.
Larger nucleoli are present in dividing cells.
c.
It is a site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis.
d.
It is a membrane-bound structure.
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Q130 mcq
The stage during which separation of the paired homologous chromosomes begins is
a.
Diakinesis
b.
Pachytene
c.
Zygotene
d.
Diplotene
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Q131 mcq
Stomata in grass leaf are
a.
Rectangular
b.
Dumb-bell shaped
c.
Barrel shaped
d.
Kidney shaped
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Q132 mcq
Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below:
a.
ii iv iii i
b.
i iv iii ii
c.
iii iv i ii
d.
iii ii i iv
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Q133 mcq
Which one is wrongly matched?
a.
Gemma cups – Marchantia
b.
Uniflagellate gametes – Polysiphonia
c.
Unicellular organism – Chlorella
d.
Biflagellate zoospores – Brown algae
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Q134 mcq
After karyogamy followed by meiosis, spores are produced exogenously in
a.
Agaricus
b.
Neurospora
c.
Saccharomyces
d.
Alternaria
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Q135 mcq
Winged pollen grains are present in
a.
Mango
b.
Mustard
c.
Pinus
d.
Cycas
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Q151 mcq
Which oxide of nitrogen is not a common pollutant introduced into the atmosphere both due to natural and human activity?
a.
N2O
b.
N2O5
c.
NO
d.
NO2
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