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NEET 2018 CODE-FF

2018 · 110 questions · First 10 Solutions Free
Questions 1–10 have full step-by-step solutions visible. Sign in to unlock all 110 →
Q46 mcq
Hormones secreted by the placenta to maintain pregnancy are
a.
hCG, hPL, progestogens, prolactin
b.
hCG, hPL, estrogens, relaxin, oxytocin
c.
hCG, hPL, progestogens, estrogens Correct Answer
d.
hCG, progestogens, estrogens, glucocorticoids
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
The placenta secretes hCG, hPL, estrogens and progestogens to maintain pregnancy.
Q47 mcq
The contraceptive 'SAHELI'
a.
blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus, preventing eggs from getting implanted.
b.
increases the concentration of estrogen and prevents ovulation in females.
c.
is an IUD.
d.
is a post-coital contraceptive. Correct Answer
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Saheli (centchroman/ormeloxifene) is a non-steroidal oral contraceptive, used weekly. It is not an IUD; it acts as an anti-estrogen and is not a post-coital method.
Q48 mcq
The difference between spermiogenesis and spermiation is
a.
In spermiogenesis spermatids are formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa are formed.
b.
In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed, while in spermiation spermatids are formed.
c.
In spermiogenesis spermatozoa from Sertoli cells are released into the cavity of seminiferous tubules, while in spermiation spermatozoa are formed.
d.
In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa are released from Sertoli cells into the cavity of seminiferous tubules. Correct Answer
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Spermiogenesis is the transformation of spermatids into spermatozoa. Spermiation is the release of spermatozoa from Sertoli cells into the lumen of seminiferous tubules.
Q49 mcq
The amnion of mammalian embryo is derived from
a.
ectoderm and mesoderm Correct Answer
b.
endoderm and mesoderm
c.
mesoderm and trophoblast
d.
ectoderm and endoderm
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
The amnion is formed from extraembryonic ectoderm and mesoderm.
Q50 mcq
In a growing population of a country,
a.
pre-reproductive individuals are more than the reproductive individuals. Correct Answer
b.
reproductive individuals are less than the post-reproductive individuals.
c.
reproductive and pre-reproductive individuals are equal in number.
d.
pre-reproductive individuals are less than the reproductive individuals.
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
A growing population has an expanding age pyramid, with the pre-reproductive group larger than the reproductive group.
Q51 mcq
All of the following are included in ex-situ conservation except
a.
Wildlife safari parks
b.
Sacred groves Correct Answer
c.
Botanical gardens
d.
Seed banks
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Sacred groves are an example of in-situ conservation; wildlife safari parks, botanical gardens and seed banks are ex-situ methods.
Q52 mcq
Which one of the following population interactions is widely used in medical science for the production of antibiotics?
a.
Commensalism
b.
Mutualism
c.
Parasitism
d.
Amensalism Correct Answer
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Amensalism is exploited in antibiotic production, where one microorganism inhibits another without being affected, e.g. Penicillium producing penicillin.
Q53 mcq
Which part of poppy plant is used to obtain the drug 'Smack'?
a.
Flowers
b.
Latex Correct Answer
c.
Roots
d.
Leaves
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Smack is heroin, derived from morphine obtained from the latex of the opium poppy.
Q54 mcq
Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below: Column I: a. Eutrophication, b. Sanitary landfill, c. Snow blindness, d. Jhum cultivation Column II: i. UV-B radiation, ii. Deforestation, iii. Nutrient enrichment, iv. Waste disposal
a.
ii i iii iv
b.
i iii iv ii
c.
iii iv i ii Correct Answer
d.
i ii iv iii
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Eutrophication → nutrient enrichment (iii); sanitary landfill → waste disposal (iv); snow blindness → UV-B radiation (i); jhum cultivation → deforestation (ii).
Q55 mcq
Which of the following gastric cells indirectly help in erythropoiesis?
a.
Chief cells
b.
Mucous cells
c.
Goblet cells
d.
Parietal cells Correct Answer
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Parietal cells secrete intrinsic factor, which helps absorption of vitamin B12, indirectly supporting erythropoiesis.
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Q55 mcq
Which of the following gastric cells indirectly help in erythropoiesis?
a.
Chief cells
b.
Mucous cells
c.
Goblet cells
d.
Parietal cells
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Q56 mcq
Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below: Column I: a. Fibrinogen, b. Globulin, c. Albumin Column II: i. Osmotic balance, ii. Blood clotting, iii. Defence mechanism
a.
iii ii i
b.
i ii iii
c.
i iii ii
d.
ii iii i
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Q56 mcq
Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below: Column I: a. Fibrinogen, b. Globulin, c. Albumin Column II: i. Osmotic balance, ii. Blood clotting, iii. Defence mechanism
a.
a-iii, b-ii, c-i
b.
a-i, b-ii, c-iii
c.
a-i, b-iii, c-ii
d.
a-ii, b-iii, c-i
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Q57 mcq
Calcium is important in skeletal muscle contraction because it
a.
binds to troponin to remove the masking of active sites on actin for myosin.
b.
activates the myosin ATPase by binding to it.
c.
detaches the myosin head from the actin filament.
d.
prevents the formation of bonds between the myosin cross bridges and the actin filament.
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Q57 mcq
Calcium is important in skeletal muscle contraction because it
a.
binds to troponin to remove the masking of active sites on actin for myosin.
b.
activates the myosin ATPase by binding to it.
c.
detaches the myosin head from the actin filament.
d.
prevents the formation of bonds between the myosin cross bridges and the actin filament.
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Q58 mcq
Which of the following is an occupational respiratory disorder?
a.
Anthracis
b.
Silicosis
c.
Botulism
d.
Emphysema
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Q59 mcq
Ciliates differ from all other protozoans in
a.
using flagella for locomotion
b.
having a contractile vacuole for removing excess water
c.
using pseudopodia for capturing prey
d.
having two types of nuclei
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Q60 mcq
Which of the following features is used to identify a male cockroach from a female cockroach?
a.
Presence of a boat-shaped sternum on the 9th abdominal segment
b.
Presence of caudal styles
c.
Forewings with darker tegmina
d.
Presence of anal cerci
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Q61 mcq
Which of the following organisms are known as chief producers in the oceans?
a.
Dinoflagellates
b.
Diatoms
c.
Cyanobacteria
d.
Euglenoids
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Q62 mcq
Identify the vertebrate group of animals characterized by crop and gizzard in its digestive system.
a.
Amphibia
b.
Reptilia
c.
Aves
d.
Osteichthyes
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Q63 mcq
Which of the following animals does not undergo metamorphosis?
a.
Earthworm
b.
Tunicate
c.
Moth
d.
Starfish
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Q64 mcq
Which one of these animals is not a homeotherm?
a.
Macropus
b.
Chelone
c.
Camelus
d.
Psittacula
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Q65 mcq
The similarity of bone structure in the forelimbs of many vertebrates is an example of
a.
Homology
b.
Analogy
c.
Convergent evolution
d.
Adaptive radiation
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Q66 mcq
In which disease does mosquito-transmitted pathogen cause chronic inflammation of lymphatic vessels?
a.
Elephantiasis
b.
Ascariasis
c.
Ringworm disease
d.
Amoebiasis
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Q67 mcq
Conversion of milk to curd improves its nutritional value by increasing the amount of
a.
Vitamin D
b.
Vitamin A
c.
Vitamin B12
d.
Vitamin E
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Q68 mcq
Which of the following characteristics represent inheritance of blood groups in humans? a. Dominance b. Co-dominance c. Multiple allele d. Incomplete dominance e. Polygenic inheritance
a.
b, c and e
b.
a, b and c
c.
b, d and e
d.
a, c and e
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Q69 mcq
Which of the following is not an autoimmune disease?
a.
Psoriasis
b.
Rheumatoid arthritis
c.
Alzheimer's disease
d.
Vitiligo
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Q70 mcq
Among the following sets of examples for divergent evolution, select the incorrect option:
a.
Forelimbs of man, bat and cheetah
b.
Heart of bat, man and cheetah
c.
Brain of bat, man and cheetah
d.
Eye of octopus, bat and man
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Q71 mcq
Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below: Column I: a. Glycosuria, b. Gout, c. Renal calculi, d. Glomerular nephritis Column II: i. Accumulation of uric acid in joints, ii. Mass of crystallised salts within the kidney, iii. Inflammation in glomeruli, iv. Presence of glucose in urine
a.
a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i
b.
a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
c.
a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
d.
a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
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Q72 mcq
Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below: Column I (Function): a. Ultrafiltration, b. Concentration of urine, c. Transport of urine, d. Storage of urine Column II (Part of Excretory System): i. Henle's loop, ii. Ureter, iii. Urinary bladder, iv. Malpighian corpuscle, v. Proximal convoluted tubule
a.
a-iv, b-v, c-ii, d-iii
b.
a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
c.
a-v, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
d.
a-v, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
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Q72 mcq
Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below: Column I (Function) a. Ultrafiltration b. Concentration of urine c. Transport of urine d. Storage of urine Column II (Part of Excretory System) i. Henle’s loop ii. Ureter iii. Urinary bladder iv. Malpighian corpuscle v. Proximal convoluted tubule
a.
iv v ii iii
b.
iv i ii iii
c.
v iv i ii
d.
v iv i iii
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Q73 mcq
Nissl bodies are mainly composed of
a.
Proteins and lipids
b.
DNA and RNA
c.
Nucleic acids and SER
d.
Free ribosomes and RER
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Q73 mcq
Nissl bodies are mainly composed of
a.
Proteins and lipids
b.
DNA and RNA
c.
Nucleic acids and SER
d.
Free ribosomes and RER
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Q74 mcq
Which of the following terms describe human dentition?
a.
Thecodont, Diphyodont, Homodont
b.
Thecodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont
c.
Pleurodont, Monophyodont, Homodont
d.
Pleurodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont
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Q74 mcq
Which of the following terms describe human dentition?
a.
Thecodont, Diphyodont, Homodont
b.
Thecodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont
c.
Pleurodont, Monophyodont, Homodont
d.
Pleurodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont
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Q75 mcq
Many ribosomes may associate with a single mRNA to form multiple copies of a polypeptide simultaneously. Such strings of ribosomes are termed as
a.
Polysome
b.
Polyhedral bodies
c.
Plastidome
d.
Nucleosome
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Q75 mcq
Many ribosomes may associate with a single mRNA to form multiple copies of a polypeptide simultaneously. Such strings of ribosomes are termed as
a.
Polysome
b.
Polyhedral bodies
c.
Plastidome
d.
Nucleosome
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Q76 mcq
Which of these statements is incorrect?
a.
Enzymes of TCA cycle are present in mitochondrial matrix.
b.
Glycolysis occurs in cytosol.
c.
Glycolysis operates as long as it is supplied with NAD that can pick up hydrogen atoms.
d.
Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in outer mitochondrial membrane.
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Q77 mcq
Which of the following events does not occur in rough endoplasmic reticulum?
a.
Protein folding
b.
Protein glycosylation
c.
Cleavage of signal peptide
d.
Phospholipid synthesis
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Q78 mcq
Select the incorrect match:
a.
Lampbrush chromosomes – Diplotene bivalents
b.
Allosomes – Sex chromosomes
c.
Submetacentric chromosomes – L-shaped chromosomes
d.
Polytene chromosomes – Oocytes of amphibians
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Q79 mcq
All of the following are part of an operon except
a.
an operator
b.
structural genes
c.
an enhancer
d.
a promoter
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Q80 mcq
A woman has an X-linked condition on one of her X chromosomes. This chromosome can be inherited by
a.
Only daughters
b.
Only sons
c.
Only grandchildren
d.
Both sons and daughters
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Q81 mcq
Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below: Column I a. Proliferative Phase b. Secretory Phase c. Menstruation Column II i. Breakdown of endometrial lining ii. Follicular Phase iii. Luteal Phase
a.
iii ii i
b.
i iii ii
c.
ii iii i
d.
iii i ii
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Q82 mcq
According to Hugo de Vries, the mechanism of evolution is
a.
Multiple step mutations
b.
Saltation
c.
Phenotypic variations
d.
Minor mutations
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Q83 mcq
AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding strand of a gene. What will be the corresponding sequence of the transcribed mRNA?
a.
AGGUAUCGCAU
b.
UGGTUTCGCAT
c.
ACCUAUGCGAU
d.
UCCAUAGCGUA
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Q84 mcq
Which of the following is an amino acid derived hormone?
a.
Epinephrine
b.
Ecdysone
c.
Estradiol
d.
Estriol
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Q85 mcq
Which of the following structures or regions is incorrectly paired with its function?
a.
Medulla oblongata: controls respiration and cardiovascular reflexes.
b.
Limbic system: consists of fibre tracts that interconnect different regions of brain; controls movement.
c.
Hypothalamus: production of releasing hormones and regulation of temperature, hunger and thirst.
d.
Corpus callosum: band of fibers connecting left and right cerebral hemispheres.
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Q86 mcq
Which of the following hormones can play a significant role in osteoporosis?
a.
Aldosterone and Prolactin
b.
Progesterone and Aldosterone
c.
Estrogen and Parathyroid hormone
d.
Parathyroid hormone and Prolactin
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Q87 mcq
The transparent lens in the human eye is held in its place by
a.
ligaments attached to the ciliary body
b.
ligaments attached to the iris
c.
smooth muscles attached to the iris
d.
smooth muscles attached to the ciliary body
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Q87 mcq
The transparent lens in the human eye is held in its place by
a.
ligaments attached to the ciliary body
b.
ligaments attached to the iris
c.
smooth muscles attached to the iris
d.
smooth muscles attached to the ciliary body
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Q88 mcq
Which of the following options correctly represents the lung conditions in asthma and emphysema, respectively?
a.
Inflammation of bronchioles; Decreased respiratory surface
b.
Increased number of bronchioles; Increased respiratory surface
c.
Increased respiratory surface; Inflammation of bronchioles
d.
Decreased respiratory surface; Inflammation of bronchioles
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Q88 mcq
Which of the following options correctly represents the lung conditions in asthma and emphysema, respectively?
a.
Inflammation of bronchioles; Decreased respiratory surface
b.
Increased number of bronchioles; Increased respiratory surface
c.
Increased respiratory surface; Inflammation of bronchioles
d.
Decreased respiratory surface; Inflammation of bronchioles
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Q89 mcq
Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below: Column I a. Tricuspid valve b. Bicuspid valve c. Semilunar valve Column II i. Between left atrium and left ventricle ii. Between right ventricle and pulmonary artery iii. Between right atrium and right ventricle
a.
iii i ii
b.
i iii ii
c.
i ii iii
d.
ii i iii
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Q89 mcq
Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below: Column I a. Tricuspid valve b. Bicuspid valve c. Semilunar valve Column II i. Between left atrium and left ventricle ii. Between right ventricle and pulmonary artery iii. Between right atrium and right ventricle
a.
a-iii, b-i, c-ii
b.
a-i, b-iii, c-ii
c.
a-i, b-ii, c-iii
d.
a-ii, b-i, c-iii
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Q90 mcq
Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below: Column I a. Tidal volume b. Inspiratory reserve volume c. Expiratory reserve volume d. Residual volume Column II i. 2500–3000 mL ii. 1100–1200 mL iii. 500–550 mL iv. 1000–1100 mL
a.
a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
b.
a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
c.
a-i, b-iv, c-ii, d-iii
d.
a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
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Q91 mcq
Casparian strips occur in
a.
Epidermis
b.
Pericycle
c.
Cortex
d.
Endodermis
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Q92 mcq
Plants having little or no secondary growth are
a.
Grasses
b.
Deciduous angiosperms
c.
Conifers
d.
Cycads
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Q93 mcq
Pneumatophores occur in
a.
Halophytes
b.
Free-floating hydrophytes
c.
Carnivorous plants
d.
Submerged hydrophytes
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Q94 mcq
Sweet potato is a modified
a.
Stem
b.
Adventitious root
c.
Tap root
d.
Rhizome
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Q95 mcq
Secondary xylem and phloem in dicot stem are produced by
a.
Apical meristems
b.
Vascular cambium
c.
Phellogen
d.
Axillary meristems
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Q96 mcq
Which of the following statements is correct?
a.
Ovules are not enclosed by ovary wall in gymnosperms.
b.
Selaginella is heterosporous, while Salvinia is homosporous.
c.
Horsetails are gymnosperms.
d.
Stems are usually unbranched in both Cycas and Cedrus.
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Q97 mcq
Select the wrong statement:
a.
Cell wall is present in members of Fungi and Plantae.
b.
Mushrooms belong to Basidiomycetes.
c.
Pseudopodia are locomotory and feeding structures in Sporozoans.
d.
Mitochondria are the powerhouse of the cell in all kingdoms except Monera.
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Q98 mcq
Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below: Column I a. Herbarium b. Key c. Museum d. Catalogue Column II i. A place having a collection of preserved plants and animals ii. A list that enumerates methodically all the species found in an area with brief description aiding identification iii. A place where dried and pressed plant specimens mounted on sheets are kept iv. A booklet containing a list of characters and their alternates helpful in identification of various taxa
a.
a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
b.
a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
c.
a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i
d.
a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
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Q99 mcq
Winged pollen grains are present in
a.
Mustard
b.
Cycas
c.
Mango
d.
Pinus
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Q100 mcq
After karyogamy followed by meiosis, spores are produced exogenously in
a.
Neurospora
b.
Alternaria
c.
Agaricus
d.
Saccharomyces
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Q101 mcq
Which one is wrongly matched?
a.
Uniflagellate gametes – Polysiphonia
b.
Biflagellate zoospores – Brown algae
c.
Gemma cups – Marchantia
d.
Unicellular organism – Chlorella
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Q102 mcq
Which of the following elements is responsible for maintaining turgor in cells?
a.
Magnesium
b.
Sodium
c.
Potassium
d.
Calcium
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Q103 mcq
Oxygen is not produced during photosynthesis by
a.
Green sulphur bacteria
b.
Nostoc
c.
Cycas
d.
Chara
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Q103 mcq
Oxygen is not produced during photosynthesis by
a.
Green sulphur bacteria
b.
Nostoc
c.
Cycas
d.
Chara
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Q104 mcq
Double fertilization is
a.
Fusion of two male gametes of a pollen tube with two different eggs
b.
Fusion of one male gamete with two polar nuclei
c.
Fusion of two male gametes with one egg
d.
Syngamy and triple fusion
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Q104 mcq
Double fertilization is
a.
Fusion of two male gametes of a pollen tube with two different eggs
b.
Fusion of one male gamete with two polar nuclei
c.
Fusion of two male gametes with one egg
d.
Syngamy and triple fusion
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Q105 mcq
Which one of the following plants shows a very close relationship with a species of moth, where none of the two can complete its life cycle without the other?
a.
Hydrilla
b.
Yucca
c.
Banana
d.
Viola
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Q105 mcq
Which one of the following plants shows a very close relationship with a species of moth, where none of the two can complete its life cycle without the other?
a.
Hydrilla
b.
Yucca
c.
Banana
d.
Viola
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Q106 mcq
Pollen grains can be stored for several years in liquid nitrogen having a temperature of
a.
–120°C
b.
–80°C
c.
–196°C
d.
–160°C
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Q106 mcq
Pollen grains can be stored for several years in liquid nitrogen having a temperature of
a.
–120°C
b.
–80°C
c.
–196°C
d.
–160°C
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Q107 mcq
What is the role of NAD+ in cellular respiration?
a.
It functions as an enzyme.
b.
It functions as an electron carrier.
c.
It is a nucleotide source for ATP synthesis.
d.
It is the final electron acceptor for anaerobic respiration.
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Q107 mcq
What is the role of NAD+ in cellular respiration?
a.
It functions as an enzyme.
b.
It functions as an electron carrier.
c.
It is a nucleotide source for ATP synthesis.
d.
It is the final electron acceptor for anaerobic respiration.
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Q108 mcq
In which of the following forms is iron absorbed by plants?
a.
Ferric
b.
Ferrous
c.
Free element
d.
Both ferric and ferrous
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Q108 mcq
In which of the following forms is iron absorbed by plants?
a.
Ferric
b.
Ferrous
c.
Free element
d.
Both ferric and ferrous
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Q109 mcq
The stage during which separation of the paired homologous chromosomes begins is
a.
Pachytene
b.
Diplotene
c.
Diakinesis
d.
Zygotene
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Q110 mcq
Which of the following is true for nucleolus?
a.
Larger nucleoli are present in dividing cells.
b.
It is a membrane-bound structure.
c.
It takes part in spindle formation.
d.
It is a site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis.
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Q111 mcq
The Golgi complex participates in
a.
Fatty acid breakdown
b.
Formation of secretory vesicles
c.
Respiration in bacteria
d.
Activation of amino acid
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Q112 mcq
Which of the following is not a product of light reaction of photosynthesis?
a.
ATP
b.
NADH
c.
NADPH
d.
Oxygen
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Q113 mcq
Stomatal movement is not affected by
a.
Temperature
b.
Light
c.
O2 concentration
d.
CO2 concentration
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Q114 mcq
Which among the following is not a prokaryote?
a.
Saccharomyces
b.
Mycobacterium
c.
Nostoc
d.
Oscillatoria
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Q115 mcq
The two functional groups characteristic of sugars are
a.
hydroxyl and methyl
b.
carbonyl and methyl
c.
carbonyl and phosphate
d.
carbonyl and hydroxyl
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Q116 mcq
Stomata in grass leaf are
a.
Dumb-bell shaped
b.
Kidney shaped
c.
Rectangular
d.
Barrel shaped
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Q117 mcq
Select the correct match:
a.
Alec Jeffreys – Streptococcus pneumoniae
b.
Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase – TMV
c.
Matthew Meselson and F. Stahl – Pisum sativum
d.
Francois Jacob and Jacques Monod – Lac operon
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Q118 mcq
The experimental proof for semiconservative replication of DNA was first shown in a
a.
Fungus
b.
Bacterium
c.
Plant
d.
Virus
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Q119 mcq
Offsets are produced by
a.
Meiotic divisions
b.
Mitotic divisions
c.
Parthenocarpy
d.
Parthenogenesis
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Q120 mcq
Which of the following flowers only once in its life-time?
a.
Bamboo species
b.
Jackfruit
c.
Mango
d.
Papaya
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Q121 mcq
Which of the following has proved helpful in preserving pollen as fossils?
a.
Pollenkitt
b.
Cellulosic intine
c.
Oil content
d.
Sporopollenin
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Q122 mcq
Which of the following pairs is wrongly matched?
a.
Starch synthesis in pea : Multiple alleles
b.
ABO blood grouping : Co-dominance
c.
XO type sex determination : Grasshopper
d.
T.H. Morgan : Linkage
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Q123 mcq
Select the correct statement:
a.
Franklin Stahl coined the term linkage.
b.
Punnett square was developed by a British scientist.
c.
Spliceosomes take part in translation.
d.
Transduction was discovered by S. Altman.
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Q124 mcq
The correct order of steps in Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is
a.
Extension, Denaturation, Annealing
b.
Annealing, Extension, Denaturation
c.
Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
d.
Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
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Q125 mcq
In India, the organisation responsible for assessing the safety of introducing genetically modified organisms for public use is
a.
Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)
b.
Council for Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR)
c.
Research Committee on Genetic Manipulation (RCGM)
d.
Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC)
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Q125 mcq
In India, the organisation responsible for assessing the safety of introducing genetically modified organisms for public use is
a.
Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)
b.
Council for Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR)
c.
Research Committee on Genetic Manipulation (RCGM)
d.
Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC)
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Q126 mcq
Which of the following is commonly used as a vector for introducing a DNA fragment in human lymphocytes?
a.
Retrovirus
b.
Ti plasmid
c.
λ phage
d.
pBR 322
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Q126 mcq
Which of the following is commonly used as a vector for introducing a DNA fragment in human lymphocytes?
a.
Retrovirus
b.
Ti plasmid
c.
\u03bb phage
d.
pBR 322
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Q127 mcq
Use of bioresources by multinational companies and organisations without authorisation from the concerned country and its people is called
a.
Bio-infringement
b.
Biopiracy
c.
Biodegradation
d.
Bioexploitation
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Q127 mcq
Use of bioresources by multinational companies and organisations without authorisation from the concerned country and its people is called
a.
Bio-infringement
b.
Biopiracy
c.
Biodegradation
d.
Bioexploitation
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Q128 mcq
A ‘new’ variety of rice was patented by a foreign company, though such varieties have been present in India for a long time. This is related to
a.
Co-667
b.
Sharbati Sonora
c.
Lerma Rojo
d.
Basmati
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Q128 mcq
A 'new' variety of rice was patented by a foreign company, though such varieties had been present in India for a long time. This is related to
a.
Co-667
b.
Sharbati Sonora
c.
Lerma Rojo
d.
Basmati
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Q129 mcq
Select the correct match:
a.
Ribozyme – Nucleic acid
b.
F2 recessive parent – Dihybrid cross
c.
T.H. Morgan – Transduction
d.
G. Mendel – Transformation
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Q130 mcq
Niche is
a.
all the biological factors in the organism's environment
b.
the physical space where an organism lives
c.
the range of temperature that the organism needs to live
d.
the functional role played by the organism where it lives
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Q131 mcq
Which of the following is a secondary pollutant?
a.
CO
b.
CO2
c.
SO2
d.
O3
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Q132 mcq
Natality refers to
a.
Death rate
b.
Birth rate
c.
Number of individuals leaving the habitat
d.
Number of individuals entering a habitat
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Q133 mcq
World Ozone Day is celebrated on
a.
5th June
b.
21st April
c.
16th September
d.
22nd April
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Q134 mcq
What type of ecological pyramid would be obtained with the following data? Secondary consumer: 120 g Primary consumer: 60 g Primary producer: 10 g
a.
Inverted pyramid of biomass
b.
Pyramid of energy
c.
Upright pyramid of numbers
d.
Upright pyramid of biomass
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Q135 mcq
In stratosphere, which of the following elements acts as a catalyst in degradation of ozone and release of molecular oxygen?
a.
Carbon
b.
Cl
c.
Fe
d.
Oxygen
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