Suresh said, βI did it yesterday.β Which one of the following options is the correct form of this sentence in indirect speech?
a.
Suresh said that I did it yesterday.
b.
Suresh says I did it yesterday.
c.
Suresh says that he did it the day before.
d.
Suresh said that he had done it the day before.
Correct Answer
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Q2mcq
To continue the sequence of tiles shown, the tile indicated by the question mark should be
a.
b.
c.
Correct Answer
d.
No explanation saved for this question yet.
Q3mcq
Consider an art gallery whose walkways are shown as lines in the diagram. A black dot represents a junction of two walkways. A guard may be placed at a junction to watch over the walkways that join at that junction. The minimum number of guards needed to watch all the walkways is ________.
a.
2
b.
3
Correct Answer
c.
4
d.
5
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Q4mcq
The 2 nd of June is a Thursday in a certain year. Which day of the week is the 3 rd of July in that year?
a.
Thursday
b.
Friday
c.
Saturday
d.
Sunday
Correct Answer
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Q5mcq
A coin with heads facing up is shown as and a coin with tails facing up is shown as. Six coins are placed in the Starting Arrangement, as shown in the figure below. A βstepβ is defined as interchanging a pair of adjacent coins without flipping them. The minimum number of steps needed to go from the Starting Arrangement to the Final Arrangement, as shown in the figure, is ________.
a.
3
b.
6
c.
9
Correct Answer
d.
12
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Q6mcq
Exacerbate: Mitigate:: ___________ Choose the option with the correct pair of words to fill the blank.
a.
Aggravate: Alleviate
Correct Answer
b.
Alleviate: Precipitate
c.
Aggravate: Precipitate
d.
Emancipate: Exonerate
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Q7mcq
A paper shown in Panel I is folded along the dashed lines (- - -) to construct a cube. The shaded regions shown in Panel I appear on the outer surface of the cube. Referring to cubes shown in Panel II, which one of the options is correct?
a.
Only (i) can correspond to the unfolded cube in Panel I.
b.
Only (ii) can correspond to the unfolded cube in Panel I.
Correct Answer
c.
Both (i) and (ii) can correspond to the unfolded cube in Panel I.
d.
Neither (i) nor (ii) can correspond to the unfolded cube in Panel I.
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Q8mcq
In a population, patients who have high cholesterol also have high blood-pressure (BP). Some patients with high BP also have diabetes. There are no patients who have both high cholesterol and diabetes. Furthermore, 1. the total number of patients with at least one of these conditions is 75, 2. the number of patients with high cholesterol is 10, 3. the number of patients with high BP is 45, and 4. the number of patients with only high BP and no other conditions is 20. Then the number of patients who have both diabetes and high BP is _______
a.
0
b.
15
Correct Answer
c.
20
d.
10
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Q9mcq
Four people P, Q, R, and S, of different ages, make the following observations. P β I am younger than S. Q β I am neither the youngest nor the oldest. R β P is older than me. Based on these observations, the youngest person is ______.
a.
P
b.
Q
c.
R
Correct Answer
d.
S
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Q10mcq
Circles $C$ 1, $C$ 2, and $C$ 3, with centers $O$ 1, $O$ 2, and $O$ 3, and radii $r$ 1, $r$ 2, and $r$ 3, respectively, touch each other as shown in the following figure. Given $r$ 1 = 2 cm, $r$ 2 = 1 cm and the angle $β O$ 1 $O$ 3 $O$ 2 is 90Β°, $r$ 3 = _____ cm.
a.
1 (-3 + $\sqrt{17}$) 2
Correct Answer
b.
1 (3 + $\sqrt{17}$) 2
c.
1 (-2 + $\sqrt{17}$) 2
d.
1 (-3 + $2\sqrt{17}$) 2
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10 mM aqueous HCl is added dropwise to 10 mL of 1 mM aqueous NaOH. The qualitative plot of conductivity $(y)$ against the number of drops of HCl $(x)$ is
a.
$y$
$x$
b.
$y$
$x$
c.
$y$
$x$
d.
$y$
$x$
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Cl CH 3 For the reaction A $\to$ products, the half-life is independent of the initial concentration of A. The order of the reaction is ________________ (in integer).
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Among the following, the number of molecules possessing one or more lone pairs on the central atom is ________________ (in integer). BeCl 2 SnCl 2 BF 3 NH 3 SF 4 PF 5 and SF 6
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Match the coordination complexes given in Column I with their most appropriate properties in Column II. (Given: Atomic number of Mn-25; Co-27; Cu-29):
Column I
Coordination Complexes
E. [CuCl 5 ] 3β
F. [Co(NH 3) 3 Cl 3 ]
G. [Co(NH 3) 4 Cl 2 ]
H. [Mn(H 2 O) 6 ] 2+
a.
E-IV, F-III, G-II, H-I
b.
E-II, F-IV, G-I, H-III
c.
E-IV, F-I, G-II, H-III
d.
E-I, F-III, G-IV, H-II
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A 25 amino acid Ξ±-helical protein is spanning the thickness of a mammalian cell membrane. Using the average dimensional parameters of a typical $-helix,$ the thickness of the membrane will be ______ Γ (rounded off to one decimal place).
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Chymotrypsin cleaves polypeptides preferentially on the carbonyl side of aromatic, and some other bulky nonpolar residues. Trypsin cleaves on the carbonyl side of positively charged residues. Digestion of a polypeptide having the composition- Ala 2, Gly, Lys 2, Phe, Thr, Trp, Val, independently by these two proteases yielded peptide fragments as shown in the figure below. Which one of the following is the correct primary structure of the polypeptide?
a.
Ala-Ala-Trp-Gly-Lys-Lys-Thr-Phe-Val
b.
Thr-Phe-Val-Lys-Ala-Ala-Trp-Gly-Lys
c.
Val-Lys-Ala-Ala-Trp- Gly-Lys-Thr-Phe
d.
Thr-Phe-Ala-Ala-Trp-Val-Lys-Gly-Lys
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The following diagram represents energy states of different protein folding steps, which includes- 1. Folded 2. Transition 3. Molten globule 4. Unfolded Find the correct match of folding steps (1 to 4) with the energy state (P to S) in the diagram.
a.
1-S, 2-R, 3-Q, 4-P
b.
1-S, 2-R, 3-P, 4-Q
c.
1-R, 2-Q, 3-S, 4-P
d.
1-P, 2-Q, 3-R, 4-S
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For a simple enzyme that follows Michaelis-Menten kinetics, kinetic data was collected in the absence (dotted line, -I), or presence (solid line, +I) of an uncompetitive inhibitor (I). Which one of the following Eadie-Hofstee plots best describes the expected result? $(v o$ = $initial velocity,$ [S] = free substrate concentration)
a.
b.
c.
d.
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To a 10 $\times$ 10 -9 $M$ solution of a receptor, its specific ligand was added, and incubated. At equilibrium, the concentration of the free ligand was 5 $\times$ 10 -9 $M,$ and the concentration of the receptor-ligand complex was 6 $\times$ 10 -9 $M.$ The dissociation constant for the receptor-ligand interaction is $_________\times$ 10 -9 $M$ (rounded off to two decimal places).
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Assuming that there are 5 $\times$ 10 13 cells in the human body, and that ATP is turning over at a rate of 10 9 ATP molecules per minute in each cell, then the human body is utilizing ________ watts (rounded off to two decimal places). [Assume that hydrolysis of ATP yields 12 kcal per mole. 1 watt = 1 joule/sec, 1 calorie = 4.18 joules, Avogadroβs number = 6.023 $\times$ 10 23 ]
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A solution shows a transmittance of 20% when taken in a cuvette of 2.5 cm path length. If the molar absorption coefficient of the solution is 12000 $dm$ 3 $/mol. cm,$ the concentration of the solution is ______ $\times$ 10 5 $mol/dm$ 3 (rounded off to two decimal places).
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Which one of the following plant organs typically exhibits all the four features listed below? (i) Starch-enriched endodermis (ii) Conjoint, collateral and open vascular bundle (iii) Endarch xylem (iv) Presence of medullary rays
a.
Dicot root
b.
Monocot root
c.
Dicot leaf
d.
Dicot stem
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Correctly match the following molecules/methods in Group-I with their major uses in Group-II.
Group-I Group-II (P) CRISPR-Cas9 (1) Global gene expression analysis (Q) DNA Microarray (2) Molecular marker (R) Vir genes (3) Targeted gene editing (S) RAPD (4) Agrobacterium-mediated plant
transformation
a.
P-1; Q-3; R-2; S-4
b.
P-3; Q-1; R-4; S-2
c.
P-3; Q-1; R-2; S-4
d.
P-1; Q-3; R-4; S-2
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If an endosperm cell of a typical diploid angiosperm species has 15 chromosomes, then the number of chromosomes in a microspore mother cell of this species under normal circumstances would be___________ (in integer).
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Which one of the following class(es) of genes, when deleted, would result in sepal formation in all the floral whorls of Arabidopsis, as per the rules of the typical ABC model of floral organ patterning?
a.
Class A only
b.
Class A and class B
c.
Class B and class C
d.
Class B only
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Correctly match the following molecular assemblies in Group-I with their functions in Group-II.
Group-I Group-II (P) Photosystem I (1) Utilizes proton gradient for ATP
synthesis (Q) Photosystem II (2) Transfers electron from reduced
plastoquinone to oxidized
plastocyanin (R) Cytochrome b 6 f complex (3) Drives transfer of electron from
plastocyanin to ferredoxin (S) CF 0 - CF 1 complex (4) Oxidises H 2 O and reduces
plastoquinone
a.
P-3; Q-4; R-1; S-2
b.
P-3; Q-4; R-2; S-1
c.
P-2; Q-4; R-3; S-1
d.
P-4; Q-1; R-2; S-3
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Correctly match the following plant diseases in Group-I with their causal organisms in Group-II.
Group-I Group-II (P) Red rot of sugarcane (1) Albugo candida (Q) Tikka disease of groundnut (2) Cercospora personata (R) Late blight of potato (3) Plasmodiophora brassicae (S) White rust of mustard (4) Phytophthora infestans
(5) Colletotrichum falcatum
a.
P-1; Q-2; R-4; S-3
b.
P-5; Q-1; R-4; S-2
c.
P-5; Q-2; R-4; S-1
d.
P-5; Q-3; R-1; S-2
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Two genes X and Y are involved in root development in such a way that all the following three homozygous mutants show rootless phenotype. (i) Gain-of-function mutant of X (ii) Loss-of-function mutant of Y (iii) Double mutant of gain-of-function of X and loss-of-function of Y Which one of the following genetic pathways best describes these observations?
a.
X suppresses Y and Y promotes root development
b.
X promotes Y and Y promotes root development
c.
X suppresses Y and Y supresses root development
d.
X promotes Y and Y supresses root development
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Two completely linked genes A and B regulate plant height and flower colour, respectively, wherein the recessive mutant aa is dwarf bearing red flowers and the recessive mutant bb is tall bearing white flowers. If an F1 individual of the aaBB $\times$ AAbb cross is crossed to the mutant aabb, then the probability of an individual in the next generation bearing white flower would be ___________ (Round off to two decimal places).
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An enzyme following Michaelis-Menten kinetics, catalyses a reaction with an initial velocity (V 0) of 2 Β΅M s - 1 at the substrate concentration of 10 Β΅M. If the turnover number (k cat) of the enzyme for the given substrate is 500 s - 1 and the enzyme concentration in the reaction is 0.01 Β΅M, then the value of the Michaelis-Menten constant (K m) would be___________ $\times$ 10 - 6 M (in integer).
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In Escherichia coli, the minimum number of crossovers required between F - genome and the linear DNA transmitted by Hfr to form a viable recombinant is _____. (Answer in integer)
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The decimal reduction time of Escherichia coli at a particular temperature is one minute. Assuming no bacterial growth and constant death rate, the time required for one million bacteria to get reduced to one viable bacterium is _____minutes. (Answer in integer)
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Which one of the following options correctly matches the microbial names in Column I with their corresponding sources of epithet in Column II? Column I Column II (P) Klebsiella pneumoniae (i) causes stupor in mice (Q) Penicillium chrysogenum (ii) forms pus (R) Salmonella typhimurium (iii) the disease it causes (S) Streptococcus pyogenes (iv) produces a yellow pigment
a.
P-i; Q-ii; R-iii; S-iv
b.
Q-i; R-ii; S-iii; P-iv
c.
R-i; S-ii; P-iii; Q-iv
d.
S-i; Q-ii; P-iii; R-iv
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Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r]. Assertion [a]: Silver and copper display bacteriocidal or antiseptic activity. Reason [r]: Silver and copper effectively demonstrate oligodynamic action.
a.
Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason of [a].
b.
Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the correct reason of [a].
c.
Both [a] and [r] are false.
d.
[a] is true but [r] is false.
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When tryptophan level is low in Escherichia coli, the expression of tryptophan biosynthesis genes is turned on through an antiterminator stem-loop formation between
a.
regions 1 and 2 of the leader sequence (trpL) of mRNA.
b.
regions 2 and 3 of the leader sequence (trpL) of mRNA.
c.
regions 2 and 4 of the leader sequence (trpL) of mRNA.
d.
regions 3 and 4 of the leader sequence (trpL) of mRNA.
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The effect of mutations in a gene at their transcriptional and translational levels were analyzed using Northern (N) and Western (W) blot techniques, respectively. The following figure shows the schematic representation of mRNA and protein expression profiles of the wild-type and its four different mutants. Which one of the following mutants contains mutation in the upstream regulatory region of the gene?
a.
Mutant-1
b.
Mutant-2
c.
Mutant-3
d.
Mutant-4
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A researcher sets up ten large outdoor tanks, each containing the same amount of algae and the same number of guppies (herbivorous fish). In five of these tanks, she also adds gourami fish, which are predators of guppies. Tanks were covered in mesh so no new species could enter. After 2 months, the researcher counted the number of guppies and gouramies, and measured the amount of algae. She found that the amount of algae was much higher in the tanks with gourami fish compared to those without gourami fish. Which one of the following processes best explains the differences in amounts of algae between these tanks?
a.
Competition-colonisation trade-off
b.
Competitive exclusion principle
c.
Interference competition
d.
Trophic cascade
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Immunoglobulins are classified into the following isotypes: IgG, IgM, IgA, IgD, IgE. What region of the immunoglobulin is used to determine this classification?
a.
The constant region of the heavy chain only
b.
The constant region of the light chain only
c.
The variable region of both the heavy and light chains
d.
The constant region of both the heavy and light chains
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Females of many insect species mate with multiple different males. Which of the following is/are an adaptive explanation(s) for multiple mating in insects?
a.
Females obtain more resources by mating with multiple males
b.
Multiple mating increases the genetic variation among the offspring
c.
Multiple mating increases the probability of fertilization
d.
Multiple mating increases relatedness among the offspring
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Assume that in the oxidative branch of the pentose phosphate pathway, each glucose-6-phosphate molecule generates the following products: 2 molecules of NADPH, 1 molecule of CO 2 and 1 molecule of ribulose-5-phosphate. If 30 molecules of glucose-6-phosphate enter this pathway, and you randomly draw one molecule from the products of the pathway, the probability that this molecule is NADPH is __________ (round off to one decimal place).
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Muscle performance is positively correlated with Darwinian fitness. The graph below describes the relationship between mean environmental temperature and muscle performance for two closely related lizard species, one living in temperate areas (solid line) and another living in tropical areas (dashed line). Current mean environmental temperatures are marked with vertical dotted lines at (i) for the temperate species and (ii) for the tropical species. If mean environmental temperatures at both locations increase at a steady rate over time, which one of the following is most likely to occur in the near future?
a.
Temperate and tropical species will be negatively impacted to the same extent
b.
Temperate species may be positively impacted but tropical species will be negatively impacted
c.
Temperate species will be negatively impacted but tropical species will be positively impacted
d.
Neither temperate nor tropical species will be impacted
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In eukaryotic cells, a mutation reduces the enzymatic activity of pyruvate dehydrogenase by 90%, without affecting expression. Under aerobic conditions, which one of the following metabolic changes is most expected in cells with the mutation compared to cells without?
a.
Mutated cells will accumulate pyruvate and increase lactate production, despite oxygen being available
b.
Mutated cells will have higher metabolic flux through Krebs cycle, resulting in higher NADH yield
c.
This mutation will have no effect on metabolism
d.
Mutated cells will have depleted levels of pyruvate and lactate, despite oxygen being available
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Retes are networks of outgoing arteries and returning veins that create a counter-current pattern. Retes in the flippers of seals that live in temperate areas function as
a.
sensitivity enhancers to increase pain sensitivity in the flippers.
b.
metabolism blockers to prevent excess nutrients from being made in the flippers.
c.
heat blocks to prevent body heat from being lost to the flippers.
d.
pressure enhancers to spike blood pressure in the flippers.
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Researchers measure the activity of an enzyme in the presence of an inhibitor. They observe that $$ V of the enzyme remains unchanged at saturating substrate $$ K increases compared to uninhibited enzyme
max
concentration
m Which type of inhibition is most consistent with these observations?
a.
Competitive inhibition
b.
Non-competitive inhibition
c.
Irreversible inhibition
d.
Substrate inhibition
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Below are the numbers of individuals of migratory green warblers and the frequencies of three genotypes at a single locus for this species. F refers to the allele for faster migration and S to the allele for slower migration.
Number of 35 20 10 65
individuals
Genotype 0.54 0.30 0.16 1
frequencies
FF FS SS Total What are the allele frequencies of F and S? (round off to 2 decimal places)
a.
Allele frequency of F = 0.69 and allele frequency of S = 0.31
b.
Allele frequency of F = 0.59 and allele frequency of S = 0.41
c.
Allele frequency of F = 0.31 and allele frequency of S = 0.69
d.
Allele frequency of F = 0.50 and allele frequency of S = 0.50
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A drug was developed to inhibit histone acetyl transferase in eukaryotic cells. Cells treated with this drug have more compact chromatin and show reduction in transcription of several genes. Which one of the following statements best explains why the drug has this effect?
a.
Histone acetylation increases positive charge on histones, thereby tightening DNA binding and repressing transcription
b.
Histone H1 directly binds the nucleosome core and its acetylation directly causes nucleosome disassembly
c.
Histone acetylation neutralizes positive charge on histones, thereby loosening DNA-histone interactions and promoting transcription
d.
Euchromatin is normally condensed, so reduced acetylation of histones converts it into a transcriptionally active state
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Two species of snakes, Species P and Species Q, have overlapping geographic distributions. Species P mainly eats rodents, whereas Species Q mainly eats invertebrates. Which one or more of the following terms describe(s) the process of speciation for these two species?
a.
Sympatric speciation
b.
Parapatric speciation
c.
Allopatric speciation
d.
Niche differentiation
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In rivers that range in salinity (ppt) from low to high, researchers found that the aquatic snail species P (solid curve) and Q (dashed curve) were distributed according to the pattern illustrated in figure (i) when the species are together. The researchers then conducted a manipulative experiment in similar rivers with the same salinity range, where they removed either species P or Q. Figure (ii) illustrates the number of individuals of species P and Q when they were allowed to live alone. These snails have no other competitors or predators. Which one or more conclusions can be drawn from these two figures?
a.
Fundamental niche of P is larger than fundamental niche of Q
b.
Fundamental niche of Q is larger than realized niche of Q
c.
Fundamental niche of P is larger than realized niche of P
d.
Fundamental and realized niches of P are the same
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In her exploration of the Western Ghats, Dora finds four new species of fungi. Below is the DNA sequence alignment for a single locus from these new species that she calls Yeti, Unicorn, Bigfoot and Godzilla. Using the principle of parsimony and the DNA sequence alignment information below, which one or more of the following tree topologies represent(s) the relationship between these species? Yeti: ATGC Unicorn: ATGT Bigfoot: ATGA Godzilla: ATGT
a.
P
b.
Q
c.
R
d.
S
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Match the bacteria in Column I with their respective characteristic features in Column II.
Column I (P) E. coli (Q) B. subtilis (R) S. aureus (S) L. monocytogenes
a.
P-1; Q-4; R-2; S-3
b.
P-2; Q-1; R-3; S-4
c.
P-2; Q-3; R-1; S-4
d.
P-2; Q-4; R-1; S-3
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Water is flowing at 100 litres/min through a pipe with a diameter of 5 cm. Assume the coefficient of viscosity of water to be 0.001 Pa.s and the density to be 1000 kg/m 3. The Reynolds number for this flow is _______ (Round off to nearest integer)
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Match the toxins in Column I with their respective sources in Column II.
Column I Column II
P. Aflatoxin 1. Fusarium verticilloides
Q. Nisin 2. Enterohemorrhagic E. coli
R. Fumonisin 3. Lactococcus lactis
S. Shiga-like toxin 4. Aspergillus flavus
a.
P-1; Q-2; R-3; S-4
b.
P-4; Q-1; R-2; S-3
c.
P-4; Q-3; R-1; S-2
d.
P-1; Q-3; R-2; S-4
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Hot oil is being cooled in a countercurrent, double-pipe heat exchanger from 410 K to 340 K by chilled water entering at 290 K and exiting the exchanger at 330 K. The Log Mean Temperature Difference (LMTD) for this heat transfer is ________K. (Round off to one decimal place)
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