CSIR NET · Life Sciences
December
2019
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120 questions
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Q1
mcq
Which one of the following plants has this combination of Key plant traits: Sporophyte dominant in the lifecycle, vascular tissue, lack of seeds?
a.
Mosses
b.
Ferns
Correct Answer
c.
Cycads
d.
Monocots
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Ferns (pteridophytes) have a dominant, free-living sporophyte generation, possess vascular tissues (xylem and phloem), and reproduce via spores instead of seeds. Mosses (bryophytes) lack true vascular tissues and have a dominant gametophyte. Cycads (gymnosperms) and monocots (angiosperms) are seed-bearing vascular plants.
Q1
mcq
Following statements where made about the events occuring during chick development.
A. The fertilized chick egg undergoes discoidal meroblastic cleavage, however the cleavage does not extend into the yolky cytoplasm.
B. Development of primary hypoblast is mediated by localized migration of a group of highly specified and connected cluster of 30-40 cells.
C. By the stage XIII of chick embryogenesis and little prior to primitive streak formation, the formation of the hypoblast is just complete.
D. Hensen's node of the chick embryo signifies a region at the anterior end of the primitive streak with regional thickening of cells.
E. Inhibition of Wnt planar cell polarity pathway in the epiblast causes the mesoderm and endoderm to form centrally instead of peripherally.
Which one of the following combination represents all correct statements ?
a.
A, B and D
b.
A, C and E
c.
A, B and C
d.
A, C, and D
Correct Answer
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Statement A is correct: the chick egg undergoes discoidal meroblastic cleavage restricted to the blastodisc. Statement C is correct: by stage XIII (Eyal-Giladi and Kochav), the formation of the hypoblast is completed prior to the formation of the primitive streak. Statement D is correct: Hensen's node is the regional thickening at the anterior end of the primitive streak acting as the avian organizer. Statement B is incorrect because primary hypoblast forms by ingression (delamination) of individual polyinvagination islands (isolated cells/clusters), not a single connected cluster of 30-40 cells. Statement E is incorrect as inhibition of PCP pathway affects directional cell intercalations during streak formation.
Q2
mcq
Which of the following factors is known to be involved in postponing programmed cell death in cereal aleurone until endosperm mobilization is complete?
a.
Gibberellic acid
b.
Abscisic acid
Correct Answer
c.
Acidic pH of the vacuoles
d.
cGMP mediated signal transduction pathway
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
In cereal aleurone cells, gibberellic acid (GA) stimulates the synthesis and secretion of hydrolytic enzymes and ultimately promotes programmed cell death (PCD). In contrast, abscisic acid (ABA) acts antagonistically to postpone PCD until the mobilization of reserves from the starchy endosperm is complete.
Q2
mcq
The anterior- posterior compartment of each segment of Drosophila is defined by wingless and engrailed genes. The following statements are given towards explaining their regulation
A. Wingless is secretory factor
B. Engrailed is a secretory factor and forms a long- range concentration gradient
C. engrailed regulates, Wingless through Hedgehog which forms a short- range concentration gradient.
D. $\beta$- catenin homologue is the signalling molecule upstream of Engrailed, which gets cleaved by GSK3 homologue
E. Cubitus interruptus is an intracellular signalling molecule in the Engrailed expressing cells.
Which one of the following options has all the correct statements towards the regulation of anterior- posterior compartment of segments?
a.
B only
b.
C only
c.
B and E
d.
A, C and D
Correct Answer
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Statement A is correct: Wingless is a secreted Wnt-family glycoprotein. Statement C is correct: Engrailed (a homeodomain transcription factor) activates the expression of Hedgehog, which is secreted to maintain Wingless in adjacent cells. Statement D is correct: Armadillo (the Drosophila $\beta$-catenin homologue) is downstream of Wingless signaling and is phosphorylated/targeted for degradation by the GSK3 homologue Shaggy/Zeste-white 3. Statement B is incorrect because Engrailed is an intracellular transcription factor, not a secreted factor. Statement E is incorrect because Cubitus interruptus (Ci) is the transcription factor downstream of Hedgehog signaling and is active in Wingless-expressing cells, not Engrailed-expressing cells.
Q3
mcq
Which one of the following does NOT use RNA-sequencing?
a.
Mapping transcription initiation sites
b.
Long non- coding RNA profiling
c.
Alternative polyadenylation profiling
d.
Mammalian epigenome sequencing
Correct Answer
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Mammalian epigenome sequencing primarily involves DNA methylation profiling (such as Whole Genome Bisulfite Sequencing) or histone modification/chromatin accessibility profiling (such as ChIP-seq, ATAC-seq), which sequence genomic DNA rather than RNA. Methods for mapping transcription start sites (e.g., CAGE-seq), lncRNA profiling (RNA-seq), and alternative polyadenylation profiling (e.g., 3' RNA-seq) all directly utilize RNA-sequencing techniques.
Q3
mcq
Given below are schematic representation of the T-DNA region of four constructs that are to be used for Agrobacterium- mediated tranformation to silence an endogenous plant gene represented as 'XYFP' that is expressed comstitutively in the plant.
\textbf{M:} Selectable marker gene expression cassette
\textbf{LB:} Left Border
\textbf{RB:} Right Border
Which of the four constructs depicted above could be used to silence the target gene 'XYFP'?
a.
A and B only
b.
B and D only
Correct Answer
c.
A and C
d.
C and D
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
To silence an endogenous gene in plants using RNA interference (RNAi) or antisense technology, constructs typically use an inverted repeat (hairpin) to form double-stranded RNA (dsRNA), or an antisense/sense orientation with convergent promoters. In typical CSIR NET problems regarding silencing constructs, constructs B and D represent inverted repeat/hairpin structures or dual promoter configurations that produce double-stranded RNA corresponding to the target gene XYFP, effectively triggering post-transcriptional gene silencing (PTGS).
Q4
mcq
Which one of the following lipid- soluble hormones can interact with a cell surface receptor?
a.
Progesterone
b.
Estradiol
c.
Thyroxine
d.
Prostaglandin
Correct Answer
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Prostaglandins are lipid-soluble eicosanoid hormones derived from arachidonic acid, yet unlike steroid and thyroid hormones which primarily bind intracellular nuclear receptors, prostaglandins bind to specific G-protein coupled cell-surface receptors (prostanoid receptors such as DP, EP, FP, IP, and TP).
Q4
mcq
A disease- resistant plant was crossed with a susceptible plant and the resultant $\text{F}_1$ plants were disease resistant. The $\text{F}_1$ plant was selfed and the $\text{F}_2$ individuals were analyzed for qualitative and quantitative disease resistance. The following statements were hypothesized. A. Qualitative resistance follows Mendelian ratio.
B. In the F2 individuals demonstrating qualitative resistance, "resistance" is dominant
C. Quantitative resistance is always monogenic
D. Qualitative resistance can be polygenic
Which one of the following combination of statements is correct ?
a.
A,C and D
b.
A, B and C
c.
A, B and D
Correct Answer
d.
B, C and D
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Statement A is correct: Qualitative resistance is typically oligogenic or monogenic and follows classical Mendelian segregation ratios. Statement B is correct: Since the $F_1$ from resistant $\times$ susceptible cross was resistant, the resistance allele is dominant. Statement D is correct: Qualitative resistance can occasionally involve multiple genes (oligogenic/polygenic interactions like complementary genes). Statement C is incorrect: Quantitative resistance is governed by quantitative trait loci (QTLs) and is polygenic by definition, not monogenic.
Q5
mcq
Centrolecithal eggs show
a.
Superficial cleavage
Correct Answer
b.
displaced radial cleavage
c.
bilateral cleavage
d.
discoidal cleavage
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Centrolecithal eggs, such as those of insects, contain yolk concentrated in the center of the egg. Because the dense yolk inhibits cell division through the center, cleavage is meroblastic and confined to the rim of cytoplasm around the periphery of the egg, which is termed superficial cleavage.
Q5
mcq
Which of the above sets of conditions are best suited for mimicry to be successful ?
a.
Codition A
b.
Condition B
Correct Answer
c.
Condition C
d.
Condition D
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
For Batesian mimicry to be successful and stable, the unpalatable model must typically be more abundant than the palatable mimic (Model > Mimic) so that predators encounter the model frequently enough to learn avoidance. Furthermore, predators must have the cognitive ability to learn from their negative experience ('Predators learn: Yes'). No or low resource overlap ('Resource overlap: No') prevents direct competitive displacement between mimic and model. Therefore, Condition B represents the best-suited conditions.
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Q6
mcq
Which one of the following reactions takes place during the reduction phase of the Calvin-Benson cycle?
a.
Ribulose 1, 5- bisphosphate to 3-phosphoglycerate
b.
1, 3-bisphosphoglycerate to glyceraldehyde- 3- phosphate
c.
Dihydroxyacetone phosphate to fructose 1, 6- bisphosphate
d.
Ribulose 5- phosphate to ribulose 1, 5-bisphosphate
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Q6
mcq
Match the geological time period with the extinction or diversification events associated with them:
\begin{tabular}{|l|l|}
\hline
Geological time & Event \\
\hline
A. Cenozoic & i. Angiosperm diversification \\
B. Cretaeous & ii. Modern fauna diversification (bivalves, gastropods, bryozoans, malacostracan crustaceans) \\
C. Paleozoic & iii. Megafauna extinction \\
D. Quaternary & iv. Mammal diversification \\
\hline
\end{tabular}
a.
$\text{A} \rightarrow \text{ii}, \text{B} \rightarrow \text{i}, \text{C} \rightarrow \text{iii}, \text{D} \rightarrow \text{iv}$
b.
$\text{A} \rightarrow \text{iv}, \text{B} \rightarrow \text{i}, \text{C} \rightarrow \text{ii}, \text{D} \rightarrow \text{iii}$
c.
$\text{A} \rightarrow \text{ii}, \text{B} \rightarrow \text{iii}, \text{C} \rightarrow \text{i}, \text{D} \rightarrow \text{iv}$
d.
$\text{A} \rightarrow \text{iv}, \text{B} \rightarrow \text{iii}, \text{C} \rightarrow \text{i}, \text{D} \rightarrow \text{iv}$
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Q7
mcq
In what respect does the genome of slow-acting retroviruses differ from those of transducing viruses?
a.
They cannot activate nearby cellular proto-oncogenes after integration into the genome of the host cell
b.
They lack an oncogene
c.
They exclude mouse mammary tumor viruses.
d.
They have acquired mutations during acquisition of an oncogene.
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Q7
mcq
Female fiddler crabs prefer male fiddler crabs with larger claws over males with smaller claws. If the selection pressure exerted is strong resulting in a distribution of claw size, which of the following statements is true about the population's mean, median and mode ?
a.
$\text{Mean} > \text{median} > \text{mode}$
b.
$\text{Mean} < \text{Median} < \text{Mode}$
c.
$\text{Mean} = \text{mode} < \text{Median}$
d.
$\text{Mean} = \text{Median} = \text{Mode}$
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Q8
mcq
Interacting genes which are involved in producing continuous variation in phenotypes in a population are known as/constitute
a.
codominant genes
b.
pseudogenes
c.
alleles
d.
QTLs
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Q8
mcq
A pedigree shown below depicts that the individual I-1 is heterozygous for a dominant disease allele D and for molecular markers M1/M2. The paternal molecular markers present in the progeny individuals are indicated in the pedigree.
The following statements may be drawn from the above pedigree:
A. The two loci D/d and M1/M2 appears to be linked
B. The recombination frequency between the two loci is 20%
C. If LOD score comes out to be 3, then it ensures that the two loci are independently assorting
D. A Lod score <1 would have ensured that the two Loci are linked
Which combination of the above statments can correctly interpret the depicted pedigree?
a.
C and D
b.
Only C
c.
A and B
d.
Only D
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Q9
mcq
\textit{Agrobacterium tumefacien} is frequently used as a vector to create transgenic plants. Under laboratory conditions \textit{Agrobacterium}- mediated plant transformation does not require
a.
host plant genes
b.
bacterial type IV secretion system
c.
\textit{Vir} genes
d.
opine catabolism genes
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Q9
mcq
Strain A mice were crossed with strain B mice and first generation $F_1$ mice were obtained, i.e. $(\text{A} \times \text{B})\text{F}_1$. A scientist then implanted thymectomized and irradiated $(\text{A} \times \text{B})\text{F}_1$ mice with a B-Type thymus and then reconstituted the animal's immune system with an intravenous infusion of $(\text{A} \times \text{B})F_1$ bone marrow cells. The chimeric mice were infected with lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus (LCMV) and the spleen T cells were then tested for their ability to kill LCMV- infected target cells from the strain B mice.
Which one of the following is the correct outcome of the experiment ?
a.
LCMV- infected target cells from strain A only will be killed
b.
LCMV- infected target cells from strain B only will be killed
c.
LCMV- infected target cells from both strain A only will be killed
d.
neither cells from strain A nor from strain B will be killed
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Q10
mcq
Two strains of mice which are genetically identical except for a single genetic locus or region are said to be
a.
Syngenic
b.
Allogenic
c.
Congenic
d.
Heterogenic
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Q10
mcq
The top panel (graphs a-c) represents trends of number of sperms produced per mating season with respect to number of mates, while the bottom panel (graphs i-iv) represents trends of time invested in paternal care with respect to number of mates in birds.
Select the correct trend from each panel
a.
c, iv
b.
a, ii
c.
b, iii
d.
a, i
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Q11
mcq
Which one of the following is \textbf{not} a G- Protein coupled receptor?
a.
Epinephrine receptor
b.
Transferrin receptor
c.
Glucagon receptor
d.
Thyroid stimulating hormone receptor
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Q11
mcq
Following statements are made about double- strand break repair (DSBR) model of homologous recombination
A. Process of DSBR recombination is triggered by introducing a double- strand break in a DNA duplex.
B. In a process known as 3'- end resection, the exonucleases along with a DNA helicase degrade one strand on either side of the break and generates 3'-single stranded termini.
C. One strand of the donor duplex is displaced due to formation of heteroduplex DNA and generates a displacement loop (D- Loop)
D. Branch migration allows the point of crossover to move in 5'-direction of recipient strand
E. Completion of DSBR recombination may generate either crossover recombinant or non-recombinant product
Which one of the following combination of statements is correct ?
a.
A, B and D
b.
A, C and E
c.
A, C and D
d.
A, B and E
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Q12
mcq
Phosphoenol pyruvate sugar phosphotransferase system (PTS) transports a variety of sugars into bacteria. In E.coli, PTS consists of EI, EII (EIIA, EIIB and EIIC), and Hpr. During this process the sugar molecule is phosphorylated by direct transfer of phosphate group from
a.
EI-P
b.
EIIA-P
c.
EIIB-P
d.
Hpr-P
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Q12
mcq
Following statements where made with respect to transcription in eukaryotes:
A. RNA polymerase III synthesises mRNAs in the nucleoplasm
B. The target promoter for RNA polymerase III is usually represented by a bipartite sequence downstream of the transcription start site.
C. The assembly factors TFIII A and TFIIIC assist the binding of the positioning factor TFIIIB at the precise location
D. TFIII B is the last factor that joins the initiation complex.
E. Phosphorylated Ser residues in the C-terminal domain (CTD) of RNA polymerase II serve as binding sites for mRNA processing enzymes.
Which one of the following option represents the correct combination of the statement ?
a.
A, B and C
b.
B, C and E
c.
B, D and E
d.
A, C and E
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Q13
mcq
Which one of the following is NOT true in the process of acclimatization to high altitude ?
a.
Respiratory alkalosis
b.
Increased 2, 3- DPG in RBC
c.
Rise in pH of cerebrospinal fluid
d.
Increased cytochrome oxidase in tissues
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Q13
mcq
To investigate the dynamic nature of two unrelated centrosome localized GFP-tagged proteins [GFP-A; GFP-B] a team of scientists conducted fluorescence recovery after photo bleaching (FRAP) experiment. the FRAP profile of these two proteins is given below:
The following statements for this FRAP analysis were made
A. GFP-B shows faster exchange rate than GFP-A
B. GEP-A shows faster exchange rate than GFP-B
C. GEP-A has more immobile fraction than GFP-B
D. GFP-B has more immobile fraction than GFP-A
Which of the above mentioned statements for GFP-A and GFP-B are correct ?
a.
A and C
b.
A and D
c.
B and C
d.
B and D
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Q14
mcq
Which one of the following regulatory proteins can act as a positive and negative regulator on binding to the same DNA elements ?
a.
Lac repressor (LacI)
b.
Lambda (cI) repressor
c.
Ara C protein (AraC)
d.
Trp repressor (TrpR)
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Q14
mcq
Which of the following set of conditions will qualify a species to be considered as endangered (EN)as per IUCN criteria ?
a.
80% reduction in population size, $< 100\text{ km}^2$ area of occupancy, at least 50% estimated extinction risk in five generations.
b.
$< 2,500$ individuals with declining population, $< 250$ mature individuals, at least 20% estimated extinction risk in 10 years.
c.
$< 10,000$ individuals with declining population, $< 1000$ mature individuals, at least 10% estimated extinction risk in 10 years.
d.
75% reduction in population size, $< 500\text{ km}^2$ area of occupancy, at least 20% estimated extinction risk in five generations.
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Q15
mcq
The ratio of variance in male mating success ($V_m$) to variance in female mating success ($V_f$) is strongly male biased ($V_m > V_f$) in species P, strongly female biased in species $Q$ ($V_f > V_m$) and similar in species $R$ ($V_m = V_f$). All else being equal, which one of the following matches between species and mating systems is most likely ?
a.
P-monogamy; Q- polyandry: R-polygyny
b.
P- polyandry; Q-polygyny : R- monogamy
c.
P-polygyny; Q-polyandry ;R-monogamy
d.
P-monogamy Q-polygyny; R-polyandry
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Q15
mcq
In the nervous system, the action potential is generated at the axon hillock in physiological conditions and it is conducted to the terminal end of axon. The location specific origin of action potential and its direction-specific conduction are explained by a researcher in the following proposed statements:
A. The membrane of axon hillock has highest threshold for the generation of action potential
B. The membrane of axon hillock contains large numbers of voltage-gated $\text{Na}^+$ channels and that makes it more excitable
C. The propagating action potential in the middle of the axon cannot generate another action potential in the direction of cell body since a large fraction of voltage-gated $\text{Na}^+$ channels in the preceding portion is voltage inactivated
D. As the number of voltage-gated $\text{Na}^+$ channels is less in the preceding portion of axonal membrane, the propagating action potential in the middle of the axon cannot generate another action potential in the direction of cell body.
Which one of the following combinations represents both correct explanations ?
a.
A and B
b.
B and C
c.
C and D
d.
A and D
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Q16
mcq
While screening an EMS- mutagenized population of a plant, a researcher identified a mutant with reduced gibberellic acid sensitivity. Which one of the following proteins is most likely to be defective in this mutant ?
a.
Sucrose non- fermenting related kinase 2 (SnRK2)
b.
Constitutive triple response 1 (CTR1)
c.
Phytochrome interacting factor (PIF)
d.
Coronative - insensitive 1 (COI1)
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Q16
mcq
Bacterial infections are generally divided into two broad classes. intracellular and extracellular bacterial as compared to those growing above the canopy ?
a.
Red: far-red ratio is lower; $P_r: P_{fr}$ ratio is higher, inhibits stem elongation
b.
Red : far-red ratio is higher; $P_r: P_{fr}$ ratio is higher, $P_r$ inhibits stem elongation
c.
Red : far-red ratio is lower; $P_r: P_{fr}$ ratio is lower, $P_{fr}$ promotes stem elongation
d.
Red : far-red ratio is higher; $P_r: P_{fr}$ ratio is lower, $P_r$ promotes stem elongation
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Q17
mcq
Which one of the following was recently reported to be the first mammal to have become extinct as a result of climate change ?
a.
Bramble Cay melomys- Melomys rubicola
b.
Gangetic river dolphin - Platanista gangetica
c.
Malaga giant rat- Hypogeomys antimena
d.
Tapanuli orangutan - Pongo tapanuliensis
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Q18
mcq
In a lake, reducing the population of a fish which feeds on plankton was followed by a decline in the rate of primary productively. This is consistent with which one of the following hypothesis regarding the regulation of primary productivity ?
a.
Bottom - up control
b.
Eutrophication
c.
Top- down control
d.
Trophic pyramid
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Q19
mcq
An interaction where the actor and the recipient both suffer a cost is referred to as
a.
Altruism
b.
Cooperation
c.
Mutualism
d.
Spite
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Q20
mcq
During the exponential phase of growth, if $No$, $Nt$ and $n$ define the initial population number, population number at time $t$, and the number of generations in time $t$, respectively, then
a.
$Nt = No \times 2n$
b.
$No = Nt/2$
c.
$Nt / No = 2^n$
d.
$No / Nt = 2^n$
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Q20
mcq
Given below are certain adaptions which are seen in various group of animals:
A. Ovipary
B. Streamlined body
C. Pouch for carrying eggs
D. Porous egg shell
E. Breast bone as large keel
F. Webbed feet
G. Laterally compressed coccygeal bone
H. Unidirectional pulmonary system to provide large quantities of oxygen
I. Barbules or hooklets on the vanes of each feather
Which combination of the above adaption facilitate bird flight ?
a.
B, E, H, I
b.
A, B, C, G
c.
D, F, G, I
d.
B, D, E, F
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Q21
mcq
Which one of the following parts of root is involved in perceiving gravity ?
a.
Quiescent center
b.
Endodermis
c.
Root cap
d.
Elongation zone
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Q21
mcq
An individual is having a paracentric inversion (denoted by the region f-e-d, marked by arrows) in homozygous condition
The meiotic consequences of inversion can be
A. generation of an acentric and a dicentric chromosome
B. the recombinants will have long deletion or duplication and may be lethal
C. the inversion will suppress crossing over
D. All gametes will have complete genome and will survive normally
Which of the above statement or their combination will explain the meiotic consequence of the given inversion logically ?
a.
A, B and C
b.
A and B
c.
B and C
d.
Only D
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Q22
mcq
The amino acid side chains of the four histones in the nucleosome are subjected to remarkable variety of post- translation modifications such as phosphorylation, acetylation, and methylation. Which one of the following post-translational marks on histone tails is usually associated with trancriptional repression ?
a.
Acetylation of H3K9
b.
Methylation of H3K9
c.
Acetylation of H4K5
d.
Phosphorylation of H3S10
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Q22
mcq
The following statments are made
A. B form of DNA has ~10 base pairs/turn and A form of DNA has ~2.3 \AA helix rise per base pair
B. Both the A and B form of DNA have wider major groove and narrow minor groove
C. The crystalline nature of cellulose is brought about by $\alpha(1\to4)$ linkage between the glucose subunits.
D. The double bonds in natural lipids are always cis, which provides fluidity to the plasma membrane
Which of the following combination represent the correct statements ?
a.
A and C
b.
B and C
c.
A and D
d.
C and D
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Q23
mcq
Which one of the following hormones is responsible for mobilizing calcium from the bone and increasing urinary excretion of phosphate?
a.
Calcitonin
b.
Angiotensin II
c.
Parathormone
d.
Vasopressin
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Q23
mcq
Absorption spectra of L- Tyrosine in acidic (continuous line) and basic (dotted line) medium was estimated and plotted on a graph as depicted below:
Following interpretations were made:
A. Change in the pH from acidic to basic results in shift in the lowest energy absoption maximum and decrease in the molar absorptivity.
B. Shifting of the absorption band to longer wavelength signifies a shift to lower energy, also known as Red shift.
C. Shifting of the absoption band to shorter wavelongh signifies a shift to higher energy, also known as blue shift
D. Wavelength shift is always accompanied by change in intensity of the absoption band.
Select the combination with correct interpretations.
a.
A and B
b.
A and C
c.
B and C
d.
B and D
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Q24
mcq
Which one of the following show complete metamorphosis in all three orders ?
a.
Coleopterans, Dipterans and Hymenopterans
b.
Coleopterans, Hymenopterans and Orthopterans
c.
Dipterans, Lepidopterans and Hemipterans
d.
Hymenopterans, Lepidopterans, and Orthopterans
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Q24
mcq
The following observations are made on a 30-residue polypeptide
(a) Unordered structure is observed in water but a helical conformation is observed in medium of low dielectric constant.
(b) The peptide is resistant to degradation by proteases.
(c) Red blood cells are lysed by the peptide.
(d) $\beta$-mercaptoethanol has no effect on peptide structure
Which of the following statements can be correctly attributed to the above observations?
a.
The peptide is entirely composed of D- amino acids and is amphipathic.
b.
The peptide is entirely composed of L- amino acids and is not amphipathic.
c.
The peptide is rich in disulphide bonds between D-cysteines.
d.
The peptide is entirely composed of L- Aromatic amino acids.
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Q25
mcq
In a neuron, proteins and membranes are primarily synthesized in the cell body. These materials must be transported down the axon to the synaptic region using microtubules in an anterograde fashion. Such axonal transport is directed by
a.
Dynein
b.
Kinesin I
c.
Dynein and Kinesin I
d.
Myosin
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Q25
mcq
A form and Z form of double stranded DNA differ in the handedness of their helices, nucleotide sequences, and configuration of base to sugar. Based on these properties, which one of the following statements defines a correct combination for A and Z forms of DNA? effectors in column 'X' and hormones in column 'Y'
Which one of the following combinations of effector and the specific hormone is correct ?
a.
Right handed double helix and anti- configuration for the base to sugar arrangement in A DNA; and left handed double helix with alternating sequence of G and C (as a general pattern), and alternating syn- and anti-configurations for the base to sugar arrangement in the Z DNA.
b.
Right handed double helix and syn-configuration for the base to sugar arrangement in A DNA; and left handed double helix with alternating A and G sequence (as a general pattern,) and anti-configurations for base to sugar arrangement in the Z DNA
c.
Left handed double helix and syn-configuration for base to sugar arrangement in the A form DNA and right handed double helix and syn- configuration for base to sugar arrangement in the Z form DNA
d.
Left handed double helix and syn-configuration for base to sugar arrangement in the A form DNA and right handed double helix and anti- configuration for base to sugar arrangement for the Z form DNA
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Q26
mcq
Vascular wilts are wide spread and destructive plant diseases. The symptoms of this disease are primarily caused by the clogging of
a.
Xylem vessels
b.
phloem vessels
c.
stomata
d.
hydathodes
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Q27
mcq
The interaction energy between two opposite charges separated by $3\text{ \AA}$ in vacuum is $-500\text{ kJmol}^{-1}$. The interaction energy between these two charges in water will be closest to
a.
$-1500\text{ kJmol}^{-1}$
b.
$-166\text{ kJmol}^{-1}$
c.
$-55\text{ kJmol}^{-1}$
d.
$-6\text{ kJmol}^{-1}$
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Q27
mcq
In the table below column A lists ligands and column B lists classes of receptors
Which one is correct match ?
a.
$\text{A} \rightarrow \text{i}, \text{B} \rightarrow \text{ii}, \text{C} \rightarrow \text{iii}, \text{D} \rightarrow \text{iv}$
b.
$\text{A} \rightarrow \text{ii}, \text{B} \rightarrow \text{iii}, \text{C} \rightarrow \text{iv}, \text{D} \rightarrow \text{i}$
c.
$\text{A} \rightarrow \text{iii}, \text{B} \rightarrow \text{iv}, \text{C} \rightarrow \text{i}, \text{D} \rightarrow \text{ii}$
d.
$\text{A} \rightarrow \text{iv}, \text{B} \rightarrow \text{i}, \text{C} \rightarrow \text{ii}, \text{D} \rightarrow \text{iii}$
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Q28
mcq
A researcher samples $n$ individuals randomly from a population of Blackbuck and identifies their sex. The number of females in the sample follows.
a.
an exponential distribution
b.
a binomial distribution
c.
a Poisson distribution
d.
a normal distribution
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Q28
mcq
Thousands of proteins that are synthesized in the cytoplasm are imported into the nucleus through the nuclear pore complex (NPC) every minute. These proteins contain Nuclear Localization signal (NLS) that direct their selective transport into the nucleus. This nuclear import requires:
(i) A small monomeric G- Protein Ran
(ii) A nuclear transport receptor that interacts with the NLS on a cargo protein.
(iii) A GTPase activating protein (GAP) bound to the chromatin tethered to the nuclear membrane.
(iv) A guanine Exchange Factor (GEF) bounded to the chromatin inside the nucleus.
Which one of the following options represents all correct statements ?
a.
A, C, D
b.
A, B, D
c.
B, C only
d.
A, C only
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Q29
mcq
The T-DNA region of the Ti plasmid of \textit{Agrobacterium tumefaciens} harbours two genes: X and Y. Mutation of gene ‘X’ produces a rooty tumour while mutation of gene ‘Y’ produces shoots in the tumor. Based on the above information, which one of the following statements is correct ?
a.
Gene ‘X’ encodes auxins and gene ‘Y’ encodes cytokinins
b.
Gene ‘X’ encodes cytokinins and gene ‘Y’ encodes auxins
c.
Gene ‘X’ and gene ‘Y’ both encode auxins
d.
Gene ‘X’ encodes opines while gene ‘Y’ encodes cytokinins
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Q29
mcq
Drawn below is an intestinal epithelial cell (IEC) performing the absorption of digested monosaccharides from the dietary carbohydrates ingested.
Which one of the following combinations of the transporter (A, B and C in the figure above) and the transported monosaccharide is correct ? ...phins, seals, deer and dogs?
a.
$\text{A} \rightarrow \text{GLUT5}; \text{B} \rightarrow \text{SGLT1}, \text{C} \rightarrow \text{GLUT2}$
b.
$\text{A} \rightarrow \text{GLUT2}; \text{B} \rightarrow \text{GLUT5}, \text{C} \rightarrow \text{SGLT1}$
c.
$\text{A} \rightarrow \text{SGLT1}; \text{B} \rightarrow \text{GLUT2}, \text{C} \rightarrow \text{GLUT5}$
d.
$\text{A} \rightarrow \text{SGLT1}; \text{B} \rightarrow \text{GLUT5}, \text{C} \rightarrow \text{GLUT2}$
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Q30
mcq
In context of DNA methylation, which one of the following statements is FALSE ?
a.
Generally, methylation occurs at the $3^{\text{rd}}$ carbon position of cytosine and converts it to 3-methylcytosine
b.
Maintenance methyltransferase acts constitutively on hemimethylated sites and converts them to fully methylated sites
c.
During mammalian gametogenesis, the genomic methylation patterns are erased in primordial germ cells
d.
Replication converts a fully methylated site to hemimethylated site.
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Q31
mcq
If you inject a mouse with radioactive material of currect activity of $256\text{ Bq}$, what will be the activty after completion of 6 half-lives ?
a.
$4\text{ Bq}$
b.
$8\text{ Bq}$
c.
$16\text{ Bq}$
d.
$24\text{ Bq}$
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Q31
mcq
A mixed cell population was stained with two antibodies, one specific for cell surface antigen A and the other specific for cell surface antigen B. Anti-A antibody was labelled with fluorescein and anti-B antibody was labelled with rhodamine. The cell population was then analysed for the pressence of antigens by flow cytometry. Which one of the following is the correct outcome for this cell population ?
a.
(a)
b.
(b)
c.
(c)
d.
(d)
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Q32
mcq
Match the following vitamins with the corresponding pathological conditions arising from their deficiencies.
\begin{tabular}{|l|l|l|l|}
\hline
\multicolumn{2}{|c|}{Vitamin} & \multicolumn{2}{c|}{Disease} \\
\hline
(i) & A & (a) & Pernicious anaemia \\
(ii) & B$_{12}$ & (b) & Subdermal haemorrhaging \\
(iii) & D & (c) & Night blindness \\
(iv) & K & (d) & Rickets \\
\hline
\end{tabular}
a.
$\text{i} \rightarrow (\text{c}),\ \text{ii} \rightarrow (\text{a}),\ \text{iii} \rightarrow (\text{d}),\ \text{iv} \rightarrow (\text{b})$
b.
$\text{i} \rightarrow (\text{c}),\ \text{ii} \rightarrow (\text{b}),\ \text{iii} \rightarrow (\text{d}),\ \text{iv} \rightarrow (\text{a})$
c.
$\text{i} \rightarrow (\text{c}),\ \text{ii} \rightarrow (\text{a}),\ \text{iii} \rightarrow (\text{b}),\ \text{iv} \rightarrow (\text{d})$
d.
$\text{i} \rightarrow (\text{d}),\ \text{ii} \rightarrow (\text{a}),\ \text{iii} \rightarrow (\text{b}),\ \text{iv} \rightarrow (\text{d})$
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Q32
mcq
During cell cycle, entry in the S- phase is tightly regulated. This is possible because
(i) APC/C promotes ubiquitination of S-phase cyclins and mitotic cyclins, marking them for proteolyses at the mitotic exit.
(ii) Cyclin B1 helps in the activation of S-phase CDKs only in late G1.
(iii) As mitotic CDK activity declines in late mitosis, cdc14 phosphatase activates APC/C by dephosphorylating Cdh1, thus promoting formation of $\text{APC/C}^{\text{Cdh1}}$
(iv) Securin keeps S-phase cyclins in inactive state tile late G1.
Which one of the options represents all correct statements ?
a.
A and B
b.
A and C
c.
B and C
d.
B and D
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Q33
mcq
For bacterial growth, a single cell elongates in size before it divides into two, a process called binary fission. During cell growth,
a.
New peptidoglycan synthesis is required along with the hydrolysis of bonds linking the old peptidoglycan chains.
b.
new peptidoglycan synthesis is required but no hydrolysis of the old peptidoglycan occurs.
c.
the old peptidoglycan is completely degraded and replaced with the newly synthesized longer polymer.
d.
newly synthesized peptidoglycan is utilized to deposit a new layer of the peptidoglycan in the cell wall.
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Q33
mcq
Ribosomes prepared from a bacterium were fractionated by sucrose density gradient centrifugation (panel i) to separate the 30S, 50S and 70S populations. When the ribosome preparation was incubated individually with either elongation factor- G (EF-G) or a newly identified protein X, or GTP, the profile remained unchanged. Likewise, no changes were seen in the profile when the ribosomal preparation was incubated with EF-G + GTP or protein X+ GTP. However, when the ribosomal preparation was incubated with protein X, EF-G and GTP together, it resulted in a change of profile which showed a decrease of the 70S peak area and increase in the peak areas for 30 S and 50 S (panel ii)
Choose the option that defines a correct conclusion from the observations.
a.
Protein X is an anti-association factor which functions in the presence of EF-G and GTP
b.
Protein X is a dissociation factor which functions in the presence of EF-G and GTP
c.
Protein X binds GTP
d.
EF-G is known to bind GTP, hence it can be concluded that the effect of GTP is through EF-G and protein X does not bind GTP.
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Q34
mcq
In summer squash, white colour fruit ($W$) is Dominant over yellow colour ($w$) and disc- shaped phenotype ($D$) is dominant over sphere-shaped-phenotype ($d$). Determine the genotype of the parents if the cross between white, sphere crossed with white, sphere given $3/4$ white, sphere and $1/4$ yellow, sphere.
a.
$\text{WWDD} \times \text{wwdd}$
b.
$\text{Wwdd} \times \text{Wwdd}$
c.
$\text{WwDd} \times \text{wwdd}$
d.
$\text{wwDD} \times \text{WWdd}$
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Q34
mcq
Which of the following is NOT a mechanism for species coexistence ?
a.
Niche differentiation
b.
Niche complementarity
c.
Niche overlap
d.
Amount of limiting resources is greater than the number of species
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Q35
mcq
In a form of stress response, bacteria synthesize a group of proteins called stress proteins (or heat shock proteins) such a DnaK, DnaJ, GroEL, GroES, and GrpE. DnaK is an ATP binding protein, which attaches to the newly synthesized polypeptide in conjuction with DnaJ. Which one of the following statements correctly state a step in the subsequent process of protein folding ?
a.
The affinity of DnaK of the polypeptide increases upon hydrolysis of the ATP to ADP
b.
DnaJ is an exchange factor that replaces ADP with ATP in DnaK
c.
ATP hydrolysis is required for the phosphorylation of DnaJ
d.
ATP hydrolysis is required for the phosphorylation of GrpE
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Q35
mcq
In the following pedigree three STR loci A, B and C are linked on the long arm of the X-chromosome in the order centromere-A-B-C telomere. Further in the table, the STR alleles present in each individual in indicated
Based on the above, X-chromosome (s) in which of the following individuals are recombinant ?
[Hint: X-chromosome in males will help identify the phase of alleles]
a.
II-1, III-1 and III-2
b.
II-2, III-1 and III-2
c.
III-1, III-3
d.
III-2 and III-4
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Q36
mcq
What is the probability of getting a sum of 9 from simultaneously throwing two dice ?
a.
$1/6$
b.
$1/8$
c.
$1/9$
d.
$1/12$
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Q36
mcq
Given below are a few statements on use of plant breeding to develop inproved varieties of a crop plant.
(i) Genotypic/ phenotypic variation in the desired trait should be available in the germplasm re sources of the crop plant.
(ii) Availability of molecular markers linked to the trait of interest would decelerate the process of trait introgression into desired varieties.
(iii) Breeding procedures to improve plant varieties are generally more successful among sexually compatible species as compared to sexually incompatible species.
(iv) Co-dominant molecular markers cannot be used for selection of plants with the desired trait.
Which of the above statements (s) is/are incorrect ?
a.
A and C
b.
B only
c.
C and D
d.
B and D
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Q37
mcq
Some statements regarding the process of autophagy are given below:
A. Autophagy occurs when cells contain aggregated proteins
B. Autophagosomes fuse with any organelles
C. Autophagosome is a single membrane structure
D. Autophagosomes fuse with lysosomes to form autophagolysosomes
Which one of the following combination of the above statements is correct ?
a.
A and B
b.
B and C
c.
C and D
d.
D and A
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Q37
mcq
Match the following taxa with the genus of the microorganism
a.
$\text{A} \rightarrow \text{ii}, \text{B} \rightarrow \text{iv}, \text{C} \rightarrow \text{i}, \text{D} \rightarrow \text{iii}$
b.
$\text{A} \rightarrow \text{ii}, \text{B} \rightarrow \text{iii}, \text{C} \rightarrow \text{ii}, \text{D} \rightarrow \text{iv}$
c.
$\text{A} \rightarrow \text{iii}, \text{B} \rightarrow \text{iv}, \text{C} \rightarrow \text{iii}, \text{D} \rightarrow \text{i}$
d.
$\text{A} \rightarrow \text{i}, \text{B} \rightarrow \text{ii}, \text{C} \rightarrow \text{iv}, \text{D} \rightarrow \text{ii}$
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Q38
mcq
Which one of the following graphs best describes the dependence of free energy change ($\Delta G$) of ATP hydrolysis on $\text{Mg}^{2+}$ concentration ?
a.
(a)
b.
(b)
c.
(c)
d.
(d)
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Q38
mcq
The table below shows photosynthetic type, temperature and sunlight intensity levels.
Which of the following correctly matches the plant photosynthetic type with the temperature and sunlight conditions in which photosynthetic rate per unit leaf area is maximum for that plant ?
a.
$\text{A} \rightarrow \text{i-P}, \text{B} \rightarrow \text{iii-R}$
b.
$\text{A} \rightarrow \text{iii-P}, \text{B} \rightarrow \text{i-Q}$
c.
$\text{A} \rightarrow \text{i-R}, \text{B} \rightarrow \text{ii-Q}$
d.
$\text{A} \rightarrow \text{ii-Q}, \text{B} \rightarrow \text{i-P}$
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Q39
mcq
In electron microscopy, to detect specific macromolecule or structure such as spindle pole body (SPB), the frequently used procedure is to couple secondary antibody with
a.
Alexa 568
b.
Cy5
c.
Gold1 particle
d.
Osmium tetraoxide
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Q39
mcq
A mutant mating type $mt^-$ strain of *Chlamydomonas* that was resistant to the antibiotic kanamycin ($kan^r$) and herbicide PPT ($ppt^r$) was crossed to a wild type mating $mt^+$ $kan^s$ $ppt^s$ strain that was sensitive to kanamycin and PPT. Twenty tetrads of the progeny were analyzed for mating type and resistance/sensitivity to kanamycin and PPT. The following observations were made:
The following statements were made to explain the observations:
(i) $mt$ and $ppt$ loci are on two different chromosomes
(ii) inheritance of mating type and ppt-resistance/sensitivity are demonstrating cytoplasmic inheritance
(iii) Inheritance of kanamycin-resistance/sensitivity is demonstrating nuclear inheritance
(iv) Nuclear inheritance is being demonstrated by mating type and $ppt$-resistance/sensitivity analysis
Which one of the combinations of above statements is correct ?
a.
A and B
b.
A and D
c.
B and C
d.
C and D
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Q40
mcq
The frequency of homozygotes in a diploid population is $0.68$. Assuming that the population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the frequencies of the two alleles are
a.
$0.1$ and $0.9$
b.
$0.2$ and $0.8$
c.
$0.4$ and $0.6$
d.
$0.5$ and $0.5$
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Q40
mcq
In the graph below, large boxes (denoted by P, Q, R, S) represent a region, whereas smaller boxes represent habitats. Labels $\text{S}_1$, $\text{S}_2$...... above each small box represent species present in the given habitat denoted by that box.
Given the above graphs, choose the option which correctly depicts the regions which show maximum $\alpha$ and $\beta$ diversity, respectively
a.
Q and S
b.
P and R
c.
S and P
d.
Q and R
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Q41
mcq
Which one of the following statements related to transcription and processing of mRNA is INCORRECT ?
a.
During prokaryotic transcription, DNA binding properties RNA polymerase are altered by sigma factor.
b.
In eukaryotic transcription, synthesis of rRNA ,mRNA and some small RNAs occurs by RNA polymerases, I, II and III respectively
c.
Splicing observed in tRNA involves successive/sequential cleavage and ligation reactions while pre-mRNA splicing proceeds through lariat formation
d.
mRNAs with premature stop codons are degraded by Nonsense-Mediated Decay (NMD) and mRNAs without an in-frame stop codon get accumulated and translated in the cytoplasm.
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Q41
mcq
Individuals in a population are divided into blood groups (in column 'X') based on the set of enzymes they have (in column 'Y')
Which one of the following combinations is NOT correct blood group type and the set of enzymes a person has ?
a.
$\text{A} \rightarrow \text{(i) and (ii)}$
b.
$\text{B} \rightarrow \text{(i) and (iii)}$
c.
$\text{AB} \rightarrow \text{(i), (ii) and (iii)}$
d.
$\text{O} \rightarrow \text{(i), (ii) and (iii)}$
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Q42
mcq
Readers of histone modifications include:
a.
SUN domain proteins
b.
BAG domain proteins
c.
PAS domain proteins
d.
TUDOR domain proteins
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Q42
mcq
Certain plant species produce cyanogenic glycosides to protect them from pathogens. A researcher has identified a variant of such a plant that has higher level of cyanogenic glycoside yet it is highly suscep-tible to a specific fungal pathogen. To interpret this counter-intuitive observation, the researcher hypothesize that the fungal pathogen has higher level of
(i) $\beta$-glucosidase activity
(ii) Formamide hydrolyase activity
(iii) cytochrome P-450 enzyme
(iv) Cyanide -resistant alternative oxidase activity
Which of the following combinations of the above hypotheses is correct ?
a.
A and B
b.
B and C
c.
C and D
d.
B and Dol
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Q43
mcq
Which one of the following statements related to molecular cloning procedures is INCORRECT ?
a.
5' overhangs of restricted DNA fragments can be blunt-ended by Klenow polymerase but not by DNaseI.
b.
A DNA fragment obtained as an XhoI fragment (C$\downarrow$TCGAG) may be ligated at the SalI site (G$\downarrow$TCGAC) in a vector.
c.
To prevent self- ligation of a vector digested with KpnI (GGTAC$\downarrow$C), alkaline phosphatase enzyme is used to remove 3'-$\text{PO}_4$ groups from the ends of fragments.
d.
$\alpha$ complementation/blue-white screening may produce blue coloured recombinant colonies (containing cloned fragments) in case of translational fusion with the $\beta$-galactosidase gene.
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Q43
mcq
Given below are some physicochemical properties (Column X) and their manifestations (column Y)
Which one of the following is the most appropriate match ?
a.
$\text{A} \rightarrow \text{i}, \text{B} \rightarrow \text{iv}, \text{C} \rightarrow \text{ii}, \text{D} \rightarrow \text{iii}$
b.
$\text{A} \rightarrow \text{iii}, \text{B} \rightarrow \text{ii}, \text{C} \rightarrow \text{iv}, \text{D} \rightarrow \text{i}$
c.
$\text{A} \rightarrow \text{ii}, \text{B} \rightarrow \text{iii}, \text{C} \rightarrow \text{iv}, \text{D} \rightarrow \text{i}$
d.
$\text{A} \rightarrow \text{iv}, \text{B} \rightarrow \text{ii}, \text{C} \rightarrow \text{i}, \text{D} \rightarrow \text{iii}$
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Q44
mcq
The sodium- independent iodide/chloride transporter is named as
a.
megalin
b.
pendrin
c.
transthyretin
d.
prestin
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Q44
mcq
The nucleosome is the fundamental subunit of chromatin in eukaryotes. Following statements are made about nucleosome:
(i) Generally, a typical nucleosome contains $\sim 200\text{bp}$ of DNA and two copies of each histone (H2A, H2B, H3, H4)
(ii) $146\text{ bp}$ length of DNA per nucleosome core particle is strictly maintained across the organisms
(iii) The histone octamers are not conserved during/after replication, however , $\text{H3}_2\text{--}\text{H4}_2$ tetramers are
(iv) variants have been identified for all core histones except histone H3
(v) while wrapping around the core histones, the structure of DNA is altered at the middle of the nucleosome core particle and exhibits increased number of base pairs per turn
Which one of the following combination of statements is most appropriate?
a.
A, C and E
b.
A, B and D
c.
B, D and E
d.
A, C and D
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Q45
mcq
Cnidarians are
a.
triploblastic animals with bilateral symmetry.
b.
diploblastic animals with medusa as one of the basic body forms
c.
monoblastic organisms with tube feet.
d.
asymmetric organisms with tentacles containing posion glands.
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Q45
mcq
Which of the following represents exponential growth in populations ?
a.
Plot of $\frac{dN}{dt}$ versus $N$ showing a horizontal straight line.
b.
Plot of $\frac{1}{N}\frac{dN}{dt}$ versus $N$ showing a horizontal straight line.
c.
Plot of $\frac{dN}{dt}$ versus $N$ showing a parabolic curve.
d.
Plot of $\frac{1}{N}\frac{dN}{dt}$ versus $N$ showing a linearly decreasing line.
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Q46
mcq
Which one of the following statements CANNOT be included while defining the fermentation process ?
a.
Alcohol is formed from sugar residues
b.
requires an electron transport system
c.
Utilizes an organic compound as the final electron acceptor
d.
Produces lactic acid in oxygen deprived muscle
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Q46
mcq
The following diagram represents a longitudinal section through an Arabidopsis shoot apical meristem (SAM) and leaf primordium at its flank. The dorsal (D) and ventral (V) domains are marked. The D and V genes are expressed in the dorsal and ventral domains, respectively
Consider the following statements describing the phenotypes of leaf polarity.
(i) Loss of D function makes the leaf ventralized whereas its overexpression dorsalizes the leaf.
(ii) Loss of V function makes the leaf dorsalized whereas its overexpression ventralizes the leaf.
(iii) Loss of micro RNA miR166 dorsalizes the leaf whereas its overexpression ventralizes the leaf.
(iv) miR166 functions by inhibiting its target mRNA.
Which one of the following functional models best describes the above results ?
a.
miR166 inhibits D; D leads to dorsal identity; V leads to ventral identity
b.
miR166 activates D; D leads to dorsal identity; V leads to ventral identity
c.
miR166 inhibits D; D and V mutually inhibit each other; D leads to dorsal identity, V leads to ventral identity
d.
miR166 activates D; D and V mutually inhibit each other; D leads to dorsal identity, V leads to ventral identity
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Q47
mcq
The cells of inner cell mass of a blastocyst stage mammalian embryo are
a.
totipotent
b.
pluripotent
c.
multipotent
d.
unipotent
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Q47
mcq
During fertilization in mammals proteins Izumo and Juno are required for recognition of sperm and egg. Izumo and Juno are found specifically in sperm and egg, respectively. Which one of the following in vivo experiments will demonstrate that Izumo and Juno interact with each other ?
a.
If sperms from a male mouse where Izumo has been knocked out is used to fertilize eggs from a normal female and no fertilization occurs.
b.
Whole mount immunostaining for Izumo and Juno shows its presence on the sperm and egg respectively
c.
If a CFP fused Izumo protein is mixed with YFP fused Juno protein in a tube, FRET occurs, i.e., when CFP is excited emission of YFP is observed.
d.
Two independent kidney cell lines are developed, one expressing Izumo and the other Juno. If the two cells are mixed, they tend to aggregate with each other.
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Q48
mcq
Which one of the following plants has a bisporic, 8-nucleate, bipolar embryo sac development ?
a.
Oenothera
b.
Penaea
c.
Plumbago
d.
Allium
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Q48
mcq
Given below are various type of molecular markers in Column A and properties of these markers in Column B. Which one of the options given below correctly matches the molecular markers with their properties ?
a.
A $\rightarrow$ vi, B $\rightarrow$ i, C $\rightarrow$ ii, D $\rightarrow$ v
b.
A $\rightarrow$ v, B $\rightarrow$ ii, C $\rightarrow$ iv, D $\rightarrow$ iii
c.
A $\rightarrow$ i, B $\rightarrow$ ii, C $\rightarrow$ v, D $\rightarrow$ vi
d.
A $\rightarrow$ ii, B $\rightarrow$ iii, C $\rightarrow$ i, D $\rightarrow$ ii
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Q49
mcq
Which one of the following synaptic vesicle proteins is involved in tethering of the vesicle to the cytoskeletal system in the nerve terminus ?
a.
Synaptotagmin
b.
Synapsin
c.
Synaptophysin
d.
Synaptobrevin
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Q49
mcq
Aldosterone increases the reabsorption of $\text{Na}^+$ from the tubular fluid in the thick ascending limb of loop of Henle and in the distal tubule. These effects are explained in the following proposed statements:
(i) Aldosterone increases the number of $\text{Na}^+ - \text{Cl}^-$ symporter in the apical membrane of principal cells in the early portion of distal tubule
(ii) The number of $\text{Na}^+$ channels (ENaC) is increased in the apical membrane of principal cells in the late portion of distal tubule by aldosterone
(iii) The synthesis of $\text{Na}^+, \text{K}^+-$ ATPase in the basolateral portion of principal cells in distal tubule is decreased by the action of aldosterone
(iv) Aldosterone increases the reabsorption of $\text{Na}^+$, across the apical cell membrane in the thick ascending limb of loop of Henle by decreasing $\text{Na}^+, \text{K}^+-$ ATPase in it
Which one of the following combinations represents both correct statements ?
a.
A and B
b.
B and C
c.
C and D
d.
A and D
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Q50
mcq
Which one of the following statements is true regarding amino acids ?
a.
Proline has high propensity to form $\alpha$-helix in globular proteins
b.
Both isoleucine and threonine can exist as diastereomers.
c.
Side chain pKa of aspartic acid is more than the side chain pKa of glutamic acid
d.
The $\psi$ dihedral angle of proline is more restricted than the $\phi$ dihedral angle
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Q50
mcq
Several plants produce metabolites with important medicinal properties and have been extensively used in traditional medicine across the world. Many of these compounds can now be purified or synthesized and are used in modern medicine. Given below is a list of metabolites, their plant source and medicinal use.
Which one of the following options is the most appropriate match of the compound with its plant source and use ?
a.
A $\rightarrow$ (iii)$-R$, B $\rightarrow$ (i)$-T$, C $\rightarrow$ (iv)$-Q$, D $\rightarrow$ (ii)$-S$
b.
A $\rightarrow$ (iv)$-Q$, B $\rightarrow$ (iii)$-R$, C $\rightarrow$ (ii)$-S$, D $\rightarrow$ (i)$-T$
c.
A $\rightarrow$ (ii)$-T$, B $\rightarrow$ (iii)$-S$, C $\rightarrow$ (i)$-R$, D $\rightarrow$ (iv)$-Q$
d.
A $\rightarrow$ (iii)$-S$, B $\rightarrow$ (iv)$-Q$, C $\rightarrow$ (ii)$-T$, D $\rightarrow$ (i)$-R$
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Q51
mcq
Which one of the following graphs best represent the net $\text{CO}_2$ fixation of typical $\text{C}_3$ and $\text{C}_4$ plants under increasing $\text{CO}_2$ concentration and saturating light ?
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Q52
mcq
In an organism, $a^+$ allele governs gray body colour, while its mutant allele $a$ gives yellow body colour. Further, presence of $b^+$ allele gives long and thin hairs while $b$ allele gives rise to short and thick hairs. The alleles $a^+$ and $b^+$ are dominant over $a$ and $b$, respectively. An individual with the genotype
$$\frac{a^+ \quad b^+}{a \quad b}$$
has a patch of yellow cells with short and thick hairs. Which one of the following events is most likely to lead to the above ?
a.
Non disjunction of the homologous chromosomes during mitosis
b.
Somatic rcombination involving $a$ and $b$.
c.
Translocation occuring in a few somatic cells
d.
Mutation of both $a^+$ and $b^+$ alleles in the somatic cells
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Q53
mcq
In the diagram below, the dotted line marks the point of initiation of bidirectional replication.
(A) On the right side of the dotted line leading strand synthesis occurs using the upper strand as the template.
(B) On the right side of the dotted line, leading stand synthesis occurs using the lower strand as the template.
(C) A ligase deficient ($lig^-$) mutant would affect replication of the upper strand on the left side of the dotted line.
(D) A ligase deficient ($lig^-$) mutant would affect replication of the lower strand on the left side of the dotted line.
Which one of the following options represents the combination of the correct statements ?
a.
A and D
b.
B and C
c.
B and D
d.
A and C
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Q54
mcq
Match the above column involving plant hormones and their signalling pathways:
a.
$\text{A} \rightarrow \text{(a)-(i) and B} \rightarrow \text{(b)-(ii)}$
b.
$\text{A} \rightarrow \text{(b)-(ii) and B} \rightarrow \text{(a)-(i)}$
c.
$\text{A} \rightarrow \text{(b)-(i) and B} \rightarrow \text{(a)-(ii)}$
d.
$\text{A} \rightarrow \text{(a)-(ii) and B} \rightarrow \text{(b)-(i)}$
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Q55
mcq
Following statements are being made regarding specification/ determination during animal development:
(i) During the course of commitment, the cell may not appear different from its nearest or most distant neighbour in the embryo and show no visible signs of differentiation, but its developmental fate is restricted.
(ii) At the stage of specification, cell commitment is not labile.
(iii) A cell or tissue is determined when it is capable of differentiating autonomously even when placed into another region of the embryo, or a cluster of differently specified cells in a petridish. (iv) Cytoskeletal arrangements maintain positioning of nuclei in the syncytium, which enables specification of those nuclei by opposing morphogen gradients namely Bicoid and Caudal in Drosophila.
(v) Capacity for "mosaic" development allows cells to acquire different functions as a result of interactions with neighbouring cells.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a.
A, B and C
b.
B, C and D
c.
C, D and E
d.
A, C and D
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Q56
mcq
Many organisms encode only 18 aminoacyl--tRNA synthetases (aa RS). These organisms lack aaRS that use Asn or Gln (as one of the substrates) for direct aminoacylation of the $\text{tRNA}^{\text{Asn}}$ and $\text{tRNA}^{\text{Gln}}$, respectively. Which one of the following statements represents the correct option ?
a.
the organisms lacking AsnRS and GlnRS lack Asn and Gln in their proteins.
b.
in these organisms, selected Asp and Glu residues in the proteins are post- translationally modified by a regulated mechanism.
c.
In these organisms, the $\text{tRNA}^{\text{Asn}}$ and $\text{tRNA}^{\text{Gln}}$ are first aminoacylated by AspRS and GluRS, respectively, and then the Asp and Glu attached to the tRNAs are modified to Asn and Gln, respectively.
d.
In these organisms, the precursors of mRNAs that encode AspRS and GluRS are alternatively spliced to generate AsnRS and GlnRS.
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Q57
mcq
A "morphogen" can determine the fate of a cell by its concentration. Given below are some statements on the experiment performed to study the gradient- dependent effect of the morphogen, activin on cell fate by placing activin (4nm)-secreting beads on unspecified cells from an early Xenopusembryo.
(i) Beads without activin did not elicit expression of either Xbra or goosecoid genes.
(ii) Cells nearest to the beads getting highest concentration of activin induced goosecoid gene whose product is a transcription factor, specifies the frog's dorsal most structures.
(iii) Cells nearest to the beads getting highest concentration of activin induced Xbra gene whose product is a transcription factor, specifies the frog's dorsal- most structures.
(iv) Cells farthest from the beads getting negligible activin, activated neither Xbra nor goosecoid and the 'default' gene expression instructed the cells to become blood vessels and heart.
Which of the above observations and conclusions drawn are correct ?
a.
A, B and C
b.
B, C and D
c.
C, D and E
d.
A, B and E
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Q58
mcq
The individuals considered in this question are having two haploid sets autosomes and no Y- chromosome. The X:A ratio of the individuals, the type of organisms chosen, their primary sex and number of Barr bodies expected in their cells are shown in the table below:
\begin{tabular}{|c|c|c|l|}
\hline
\text{X : A ratio} & \text{Organism} & \text{Primary Sex} & \begin{tabular}{c} \text{Number of} \\ \text{Barr bodies} \end{tabular} \\
\hline
\text{i. 0.5} & \text{A. Human} & \text{I. Male} & \text{a. zero} \\
\text{ii. 2} & \text{B. Drosophila} & \text{II. Female} & \text{b. one} \\
& & \text{III.Metafemale} & \text{c. Two} \\
& & & \text{d. Three} \\
\hline
\end{tabular}
Select the option below with all correct matches:
a.
$\text{i} - \text{A} - \text{II} - \text{a}; \text{ii} - \text{A} - \text{II} - \text{d}; \text{i} - \text{B} - \text{I} - \text{a}; \text{ii} - \text{B} - \text{III} - \text{a}$
b.
$\text{i} - \text{A} - \text{I} - \text{a}; \text{ii} - \text{A} - \text{II} - \text{c}; \text{i} - \text{B} - \text{II} - \text{a}; \text{ii} - \text{B} - \text{I} - \text{a}$
c.
$\text{i} - \text{A} - \text{II} - \text{c}; \text{ii} - \text{A} - \text{I} - \text{d}; \text{i} - \text{B} - \text{I} - \text{c}; \text{ii} - \text{B} - \text{II} - \text{b}$
d.
$\text{i} - \text{A} - \text{II} - \text{a}; \text{ii} - \text{A} - \text{II} - \text{d}; \text{i} - \text{B} - \text{III} - \text{a}; \text{ii} - \text{B} - \text{I} - \text{a}$
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Q59
mcq
Given below is the [P] vs time plot of an enzymatic reaction carried out by the enzyme 'X'
Which one of the following statements is the correct interpretation of the data?
a.
The $K_{\text{m}}$ and $V_{\max}$ of the enzyme 'X' are 15 and 60 units, respectively
b.
The $V_{\max}$ is 60 but the $K_m$ cannot be determined
c.
The $K_{\text{m}}$ is 15 but the $V_{\max}$ cannot be determined
d.
Neither the $K_{\text{m}}$ nor the $V_{\max}$ of the enzyme 'X' can be determined from these data
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Q60
mcq
The ECG recorded by different leads is analysed on the basis of variation of electrical potential at various loci on the surface of the body, and the time scale relation of different waves. After analysing ECG, following particulars of heart are proposed to be obtained “
(i) Stoke volume and cardiac output
(ii) Volume and pressure changes during cardiac cycle
(iii) Anatomical orientation of heart
(iv) Various disturbances in the rhythm and conduction of cardiac excitation
(v) the extent, location and progress of ischemic damage to myocardium
Which one of the following combinations represents both Incorrect particulars of heart ?
a.
A and B
b.
B and C
c.
C and D
d.
D and E
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Q61
mcq
The membrane phospholipid structure in bacteria and archaea differ. Which one of the following correctly states the differences between the two?
a.
The bacterial membrane phospholipid consist of D-glycerol linked to hydrophobic chains (tails) with ester bonds whereas those of the archaeal membranes consists of L- glycerol linked to hydrophobic tails through ether bonds.
b.
The bacterial membrane phospholipid consist of L-glycerol linked to hydrophobic chains (tails) with ester bonds whereas those of the archaeal membranes consists of D- glycerol linked to hydrophobic tails through ether bonds.
c.
The bacterial membrane phospholipid consist of D-glycerol linked to hydrophobic chains (tails) with ether bonds whereas those of the archaeal membranes consists of L- glycerol linked to hydrophobic tails through ester bonds.
d.
The bacterial membrane phospholipid consist of L-glycerol linked to hydrophobic chains (tails) with ether bonds whereas those of the archaeal membranes consists of D- glycerol linked to hydrophobic tails through ester bonds.
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Q62
mcq
A small number (approximately 10) of mice are introduced into an uninhabited island. Their population grows exponentially initially and after 3 years, reaches a population size of 520 after which the population becomes stable. At what point would you expect their population to attain their highest growth rate ?
a.
When the mice population was first introduced.
b.
When the population size is 260.
c.
Their population growth rate remains constant throughout
d.
When the population size reaches 520.
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Q63
mcq
Analysis of a homotetrameric protein and a double stranded DNA (that has been incubated in standard buffer) on native gels revealed that they migrated true to their physical states (tetrameric nature of the protein and double stranded nature of the DNA). Following hypotheses were made for the effect of adding high salt to the incubation mix and subsequent analysis on native gels.
(A) The protein would migrate as a homotetramer and DNA in double stranded form
(B) The protein would migrate as a monomer but DNA in double stranded form.
(C) The protein would migrate as a homotetramer but the DNA in single stranded form.
(D) The protein would migrate as a monomer and the DNA in single stranded form.
Which of the following combination of hypotheses is most likely ?
a.
A and B
b.
B and C
c.
C and D
d.
A and D
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Q64
mcq
Thyroid hormone ($\text{T}_3$) increases the heart rate and the force of contraction of cardiac muscles.
The mechanisms of these effects of $ ext{T}_3$ have been explained by a researcher in the following statements
(a) $\text{T}_3$ inhibits the expression of gene for $\alpha$-myosin heavy chain and enhances the expression of gene for $\beta$-myosin heavy chain
(b) The expression of gene for $\text{Na}^+-\text{Ca}^{++}$ antiporter is enhanced by $\text{T}_3$.
(c) The Sarcoplasmic reticulum $\text{Ca}^{++}$ ATPase is increased by $\text{T}_3$.
(d) $\text{T}_3$ increase ryanodine $\text{Ca}^{++}$ channels in the sarcoplasmic reticulum
(E) The number of $\beta$-adrenergic receptors in heart muscles inhibited by $\text{T}_3$.
Which one of the following combinations contains both correct explanations ?
a.
A and B
b.
B and C
c.
C and D
d.
D and E
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Q65
mcq
Cells are physically linked to one another and to extracellular matrix through their cytoskeleton and this imparts strength and rigidity of tissues and organs. Most of the animal cells have three types of cytoskeletal filaments, which are listed in Column A. The possible function are listed in Column B.
\begin{tabular}{|l|l|l|l|}
\hline
& \textbf{Column A} & & \textbf{Column B} \\
\hline
A & Intermediate filaments & i & Determine the shape of cell surface and are necessary for cell locomotion \\
\hline
B & Microtubules & ii & Maintain the position of membrane-enclosed organelles and provide intracellular transport \\
\hline
C & Actin filaments & iii & Provide mechanical strength of a cell \\
\hline
\end{tabular}
Which one is the correct match
a.
$\text{A - i; B - ii, C - iii}$
b.
$\text{A - ii; B - i, C - iii}$
c.
$\text{A - iii; B - ii, C - i}$
d.
$\text{A - iii; B - i, C - ii}$
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Q66
mcq
Listeria is a food-borne pathogen that causes mild gastro-intestinal symptoms. To move from one host-cell to another, it polymerizes actin into a comet tail like structure. Listeria can assemble host-cell actin at its rear end because:
(A) Listeria has on its surface a protein called Act A
(B) Listeria can activate Arp 2/3 complex
(C) Listeria has on its surface $\gamma$-tubulin
(D) Listeria has on its surface myosin II motor
Which of the following options represents all correct statements ?
a.
A and D
b.
A and B
c.
A and C
d.
C and D
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Q67
mcq
The Figure below shows the structure of a replication fork
Based on this information, following statements are made:
(A) (i) represent the leading strand while (ii), (iii) and (iv) represent the Okazaki fragments
(B) Among the Okazaki fragments, synthesis of (iv) occurs prior to the synthesis of (iii) and (ii)
(C) Among the Okazaki fragments, synthesis of (ii) occurs prior to the synthesis of (iii) and (iv)
Which one of the following options represents the correct statements (s) ?
a.
A only
b.
B only
c.
A and B
d.
A and C
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Q68
mcq
Deletion analysis of a promoter region of a gene carried out to identify the regulatory elements in it. In the figure below, the filled boxes denote the area of deletion and the observed activities (in arbitary units) of the promoter are as shown.
Based on the observations, following statements were made:
(i) The region between -100 and -50 houses a positive regulatory element.
(ii) The region between -200 and -250 houses negative regulatory element.
(iii) The region between -150 and -200 houses a positive regulatory element.
Which one of the following options represents the correct interpretation of the data ?
a.
Both A and B
b.
A only
c.
B only
d.
Both B and C
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Q69
mcq
Given below are two sets of terms related to various methods used in biological science. Which one of the following options correctly matches terms of Column A and Column B ?
a.
A $\rightarrow$ iv, B $\rightarrow$ iii, C $\rightarrow$ i, D $\rightarrow$ ii
b.
A $\rightarrow$ iii, B $\rightarrow$ i, C $\rightarrow$ iv, D $\rightarrow$ ii
c.
A $\rightarrow$ ii, B $\rightarrow$ iv, C $\rightarrow$ i, D $\rightarrow$ iii
d.
A $\rightarrow$ ii, B $\rightarrow$ i, C $\rightarrow$ iv, D $\rightarrow$ iii
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Q70
mcq
The following statements are made regarding developing a transgenic mouse:
(A) The transgenic mouse thus born will be a homozygous transgenic animal and can be maintained by crossing with another transgenic animal.
(B) The fertilized transgenic eggs are allowed to develop in vitro.
(C) The desired gene is preferably microinjected in male pronucleus after sperm entry in oocyte.
(D) For best efficiency, the desired gene in always microinjected in the male gametes and then they are allowed to fertilize the female gametes.
(E) Blastocyst stage embryos are transferred to the uterus of hormonally prepared mother.
(F) The fertilized eggs are collected from specific strain of mouse
(G) The female mouse of specific strain is super ovulated, oocytes are collected and allowed to fertilize in vitro.
Choose the combination of statements arranged in the correct sequence for developing transgenic mouse.
a.
G $\rightarrow$ C $\rightarrow$ E
b.
F $\rightarrow$ C $\rightarrow$ B $\rightarrow$ A
c.
G $\rightarrow$ D $\rightarrow$ A
d.
D $\rightarrow$ F $\rightarrow$ B $\rightarrow$ A
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Q71
mcq
Following statements were made about the post-transcriptional processing of RNA in eukaryotes.
(A) Soon after transcription initiation, RNA polymerase II pauses ~30 nucleotides downstream from the site of initiation until the Cap structure is added to the 5' end of the nascent pre-mRNA.
(B) The 5' splice sites are functionally divergent whereas the 3' sites are functionally equivalent.
(C) In addition to helping in recognition of the slice sites, the exon definition also functions as a splicing regulator by allowing pairing and linking of adjacent 5' and 3' splice sites.
(D) The introdefinition mechanism applies only to the larger introns (above 500 nucleotides length) and assists in achieving alternate splicing.
(E) The splicing reactions carrried out in vitro have revealed that the first and second transestriflcation reactions are reversible.
Which one of the following combination of statements is correct ?
a.
A, B and D
b.
B, C and D
c.
B, D, and E
d.
A, C and E
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Q72
mcq
Acetylcholine is a potent neurotransmitter, which is released from the neurons. After release they diffuse across the synaptic cleft and combine with nicotinic acetylcholine receptor molecules in the membrane of the postsynaptic cell. The interaction of acetylcholine with the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor produces large transient increase in the permeability of the membrane to specialized ions resulting in signal transduction for nerve impulse. Acetylcholine receptor is a
a.
ligand-gated cation channel
b.
ligand-gated anion channel
c.
Voltage-gated cation channel
d.
Voltage-gated anion channel
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Q73
mcq
The following statements were made with the assumption that the concentration of 3-phosphoglycerate is high inside chloroplasts of an actively photosynthesizing leaf.
(A) There will be high concentration of triose phosphate in the chloroplast.
(B) The activity of ADP-glucose pyrophosphorylase will be inhibited
(C) The carbon flow will be diverted from sucrose to starch.
(D) Starch synthesis will be inhibited and carbon flow will be more towards sucrose synthesis.
Which one of the following combination of above statements is correct ?
a.
A and B
b.
B and D
c.
C and D
d.
A and C
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Q74
mcq
Area of patch 1 is $2000\text{ m}^2$ with a resourse density of $5\text{ units/m}^2$. Area of patch 2 is $3000\text{ m}^2$ with a resource density of $10\text{ units/m}^2$. As per the theory of ideal- free distribution, organisms distribute themselves such that the expected ratio of abundance of organisms in the two patches (patch 1: patch 2) is
a.
1:2
b.
2:3
c.
1:3
d.
3:2
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Q75
mcq
Match the following plant diseases with the name of pathogen associated with the disease
a.
A $\rightarrow$ ii, B $\rightarrow$ iii, C $\rightarrow$ i, D $\rightarrow$ iv
b.
A $\rightarrow$ i, B $\rightarrow$ iv, C $\rightarrow$ ii, D $\rightarrow$ iii
c.
A $\rightarrow$ iv, B $\rightarrow$ iii, C $\rightarrow$ ii, D $\rightarrow$ i
d.
A $\rightarrow$ iii, B $\rightarrow$ ii, C $\rightarrow$ iv, D $\rightarrow$ i
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