CSIR NET · Life Sciences
December
2018
·
116 questions
·
First 10 Solutions Free
Questions 1–10 have full step-by-step solutions visible.
Sign in to unlock all 116 →
Q21
mcq
Which one of the following statements is true ?
a.
The specific rotation of enantiomers will be identical.
b.
The rate constant of a first order reaction has only time but no concentration units.
c.
The value of $\text{pH} + \text{pOH}$ depends on temperature.
Correct Answer
d.
The bond disassociation energy (kJ/mol) of $-\text{C}-\text{C}-$ will be greater than $-\text{C} \equiv \text{C}-$
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Option C is correct because the autoionization of water is an endothermic process; therefore, the ion product of water, $K_w$, increases with increasing temperature. Since $\text{pH} + \text{pOH} = \text{p}K_w = -\log_{10}(K_w)$, this sum changes (decreases) as temperature rises.
Option A is false because enantiomers have specific rotations of equal magnitude but opposite signs.
Option B is false because the rate constant of a first-order reaction has the dimension of $\text{time}^{-1}$ (it has a unit of inverse time).
Option D is false because a triple bond ($-\text{C}\equiv\text{C}-$) is significantly stronger and has a higher bond dissociation energy than a single bond ($-\text{C}-\text{C}-$).
*(Note: In CSIR official keys, this question was marked as benefit-to-all or accepted multiple options due to wording ambiguity around B and C, but C is factually the most accurate chemical statement).*
Q22
mcq
Which one of the following statements on protein conformation is NOT true?
a.
Dihedral angles of side-chains in amino acids are depicted in the Ramachandran plot.
Correct Answer
b.
Infrared spectroscopy can be used to deduce hydrogen bonding in peptides.
c.
Three dimensional structures of protein composed of $\sim 100$ amino acids can be obtained by nuclear magnetic resonance spectroscopy.
d.
Globular proteins have $\alpha$-helical and $\beta$-sheet components.
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Option A is NOT true because the classical Ramachandran plot depicts the backbone dihedral (torsion) angles $\phi$ (phi) and $\psi$ (psi), not the side-chain dihedral angles (which are denoted by $\chi$).
Options B, C, and D are all true: infrared spectroscopy assesses hydrogen bonding through amide vibrational bands, NMR can solve solution structures of proteins around 100 amino acids (~10-15 kDa), and globular proteins typically contain mixtures of $\alpha$-helices and $\beta$-sheets.
Q23
mcq
Choose the correct answer from the following statements on biosynthesis.
a.
In the biosynthesis of palmitate, all the carbon atoms are derived from activated malonate.
b.
The amino acids Met, Thr, Lys, Ile, Val and Leu are biosynthesized from oxaloacetate and pyruvate in most bacteria.
Correct Answer
c.
Alanine is a major precursor for the biosynthesis of porphyrin.
d.
Tryptophan is converted to L-DOPA in the biosynthesis of epinephrine.
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Option B is correct: the aspartate family of amino acids (Lysine, Methionine, Threonine, and Isoleucine) is derived from oxaloacetate, while Valine and Leucine (along with Alanine) are synthesized from pyruvate in bacteria.
Option A is incorrect because the initial two carbons of palmitate are derived directly from acetyl-CoA (the primer), while the remaining 14 carbons come from malonyl-CoA.
Option C is incorrect because glycine (along with succinyl-CoA) is the major precursor for porphyrin biosynthesis.
Option D is incorrect because L-tyrosine (not tryptophan) is hydroxylated to L-DOPA during catecholamine (epinephrine) synthesis.
Q24
mcq
Which one of the following statements on nucleic acids is NOT true?
a.
The conformation of ribose in DNA is $\alpha$- $2'$-deoxy-D-ribofuranose
Correct Answer
b.
Hydrolysis of RNA takes place under alkaline conditions unlike DNA, as the $2'$-hydroxyl in RNA acts as a nucleophile in an intramolecular displacement.
c.
DNA can occur in different three-dimensional forms.
d.
In DNA, deamination of cytosine to uracil can occur in a non-enzymatic manner.
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Option A is NOT true because the sugar in DNA is in the $\beta$-furanose form, specifically $\beta$-2'-deoxy-D-ribofuranose, where the base is linked via a $\beta$-N-glycosidic bond, not an $\alpha$-conformation.
Options B, C, and D are all true statements: the $2'$-OH of RNA facilitates base-catalyzed hydrolysis via a $2',3'$-cyclic monophosphate intermediate, DNA can adopt different conformations (such as A-, B-, and Z-DNA), and spontaneous hydrolytic deamination of cytosine to uracil is a common non-enzymatic DNA lesion.
Q25
mcq
If one of the two fatty acyl chains is removed from the phosphoglyceride by hydrolysis in solution, such phospholipids will form:
a.
liposomes
b.
micelles
Correct Answer
c.
phospholipid bilayer
d.
symmetric phospholipid bilayer
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Option B is correct. Removing one of the two fatty acyl chains from a phosphoglyceride generates a lysophospholipid. Lysophospholipids have an inverted cone-shaped geometry (a relatively large hydrophilic headgroup compared to a single hydrocarbon tail), which favors the formation of spherical micelles rather than planar bilayers or liposomes (which are favored by cylindrical, two-tailed phospholipids).
Q26
mcq
In metazoan cell cycle, metaphase to anaphase transition is regulated by the activity of:-
a.
Cdk1/cyclinB
b.
APC/C
Correct Answer
c.
Cdc25
d.
Wee1
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Option B is correct. The metaphase-to-anaphase transition is triggered by the Anaphase-Promoting Complex/Cyclosome (APC/C), an E3 ubiquitin ligase. Once activated by Cdc20, APC/C targets securin and cyclin B for proteasomal degradation. The destruction of securin releases separase, which cleaves cohesin rings holding sister chromatids together, initiating anaphase.
Options A, C, and D are involved in entry into mitosis rather than the metaphase-to-anaphase transition.
Q27
mcq
Which one of the following statements is true about human chromosomes?
a.
The chromosomes that have highest gene density generally localize towards the centre of the nucleus.
Correct Answer
b.
The chromosomes that have highest gene density generally localize near the nuclear periphery to facilitate rapid transport of the nascent transcripts.
c.
The centromeres of different chromosomes tend to cluster together at the centre of the nucleus.
d.
Chromosomal positioning in the nucleus is absolutely random.
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Option A is correct. In the mammalian interphase nucleus, chromosomes occupy distinct non-random territories. Gene-dense, transcriptionally active chromosomes (such as chromosome 19) are preferentially located toward the nuclear interior/center, whereas gene-poor, heterochromatic chromosomes (such as chromosome 18) are typically found near the nuclear periphery, associated with the nuclear lamina.
Options B, C, and D are incorrect.
Q28
mcq
Which one of the following activities is NOT involved in protein folding in the endoplasmic reticulum?
a.
Peptidyl prolyl isomerase
b.
Protein disulphide isomerase
c.
Protein glycosylation
d.
Protein ubiquitination
Correct Answer
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Option D is correct. Protein ubiquitination occurs in the cytosol, where misfolded proteins retrotranslocated from the ER during ER-associated degradation (ERAD) are polyubiquitinated and degraded by the 26S proteasome. Ubiquitination is an event of protein degradation, not an activity that catalyzes protein folding within the ER lumen.
Options A, B, and C are all classic lumenal activities involved in folding: peptidyl prolyl cis-trans isomerases (PPIases) accelerate proline isomerization, protein disulfide isomerases (PDIs) catalyze disulfide bond formation/rearrangement, and N-linked glycosylation aids chaperone binding (e.g., calnexin/calreticulin cycle).
Q29
mcq
Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
a.
Together with proteins, rRNA provides a site for polypeptide synthesis.
b.
All DNA molecules are unbranched polymers of nucleotides.
c.
DNA is synthesized in a 5'- 3' direction while RNA synthesis occurs in a 3'- 5' direction.
Correct Answer
d.
A tRNA anticodon may pair with more than one codon.
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Both DNA and RNA synthesis occur strictly in the 5' to 3' direction because polymerases add incoming ribonucleotides or deoxyribonucleotides to the free 3'-OH group of the growing nucleic acid chain. Therefore, the statement that RNA synthesis occurs in a 3'-5' direction is incorrect.
Q30
mcq
What would be the tripeptide produced by translation of the transcript produced by the following DNA sequence?
3'-AAGTACTCT-5'
a.
Arg-Phe-Trp
b.
Arg-Leu-Gly
c.
Thr-Lys-Ser
d.
Phe-Met-Arg
Correct Answer
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Given the template DNA strand 3'-AAG-TAC-TCT-5', transcription produces an mRNA strand with complementary bases in the 5' to 3' direction: 5'-UUC-AUG-AGA-3'. Translating these codons: UUC codes for Phenylalanine (Phe), AUG codes for Methionine (Met), and AGA codes for Arginine (Arg). Hence, the resulting tripeptide is Phe-Met-Arg.
🎉 10 Free Sample Solutions Completed
Unlock All 116 Questions & Solutions
Sign up free in seconds to unlock step-by-step AI answers for the remaining 106 questions.
Q31
mcq
Which one of the following statements is generally true about RNA polymerase II?
a.
It is dedicated to transcribing RNA from a single transcription unit, generally a large transcript which is then processed to yield three types of ribosomal RNA.
b.
It transcribes varieties of small non-coding RNAs which are expressed in all cell types.
c.
It generally synthesizes various types of mRNAs and small non-coding RNAs.
d.
It is exclusively involved in synthesis of rRNA and tRNA.
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q32
mcq
Viruses adopt different strategies to suppress immune response of the host. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
a.
Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) destroys CD4$^+$ T cells.
b.
Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV) produces a homolog of human IL-10.
c.
Human influenza virus directly infects CD8$^+$ T cells.
d.
Human Cytomegalo Virus (CMV) establishes latent infection in bone marrow stem cells.
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q33
mcq
Which one of the following inactivates the serine/threonine protein kinase mTOR, related to cell growth in mammalian system?
a.
Rifamycin
b.
Rapamycin
c.
Erythromycin
d.
Chloramphenicol
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q34
mcq
Match the following tumor cell origin with their nomenclature.
\begin{tabular}{|l|l|}
\hline
TUMOR CELL ORIGIN & NOMENCLATURE \\
\hline
A. Muscle cell & a. Carcinoma \\
B. Germ cell & b. Sarcoma \\
C. Epithelial cell & c. Leukemia \\
D. White blood cell & d. Teratocarcinoma \\
\hline
\end{tabular}
a.
A-a, B-c, C-d, D-b
b.
A-d, B-a, C-b, D-c
c.
A-c, B-b, C-d, D-a
d.
A-b, B-d, C-a, D-c
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q35
mcq
Many cytotoxic T lymphocytes initiate killing of target cells via delivery of molecules that could induce target-cell damage directly. Which one of the following is the most appropriate ?
a.
Interferon $\gamma$
b.
Peroxynitrite
c.
Lysozyme
d.
Granzyme
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q36
mcq
Membrane-bound, Golgi-derived structures containing proteolytic enzymes in sperms of sea urchins are called
a.
cortical granules
b.
micromeres
c.
acrosomal vesicles
d.
macromeres
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q37
mcq
In case of Hydra, the major head inducer of the hypostome organizer is a set of Wnt proteins acting through the canonical $\beta$-catenin pathway. What would be the result, if a transgenic Hydra is made to globally mis-express the downstream Wnt effector $\beta$-catenin?
a.
Ectopic buds will be formed all along the body axis and even on the top of the newly formed buds.
b.
Ectopic tentacles form at all levels. .
c.
Both ectopic tentacles and buds would be formed along the body axis.
d.
There would be no change observed.
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q38
mcq
Both TGF-$\beta$ and Sonic hedgehog signals play important roles in both neurulation and cell-fate patterning of the neural tube. Which one of the following statements is true.
a.
High levels of BMP specify the cells to become epidermis.
b.
Very low levels of BMP specify the cells to become epidermis.
c.
High levels of BMP specify the cells to become neural Plate.
d.
Intermediate levels of BMP do not effect the formation of neural crest cells.
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q39
mcq
In which stage of Arabidopsis embryogenesis is hypophysis first observed ?
a.
Octant
b.
Dermatogen
c.
Globular
d.
Transition
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q40
mcq
Which one of the following mineral deficiency will first be visible in younger leaves?
a.
Calcium
b.
Nitrogen
c.
Zinc
d.
Molybdenum
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q41
mcq
The $\text{CO}_2$ compensation point for $\text{C}_3$ plants is greater than $\text{C}_4$ plants because in $\text{C}_3$ plants
a.
dark respiration is higher
b.
dark respiration is lower
c.
photorespiration is present
d.
photorespiration is absent
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q42
mcq
Which one of the following best describes the function of Casparian bands during the translocation of nutrients and water across the root ?
a.
Block apoplastic nutrient transport
b.
Block synplastic nutrient transport
c.
Act as a nutrient carrier
d.
Help in creating passage cells
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q43
mcq
Which one of the following components is expected to be most abundant in the phloem sap of a Plant?
a.
Proteins
b.
Organic acids
c.
Sugars
d.
Phosphates
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q44
mcq
Which one of the following is NOT secreted by capillary endothelium?
a.
Prostacyclin
b.
Guanosine
c.
Endothelin
d.
Nitric oxide
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q45
mcq
The “Mayer waves” in the blood pressure originate due to
a.
Systole and diastole of ventricle
b.
inspiration and expiration
c.
reflex oscillation of neural pressure control mechanisms
d.
Bainbridge reflex
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q46
mcq
The maturation of red blood cells does not depend on
a.
folic acid
b.
vitamin $\text{B}_{12}$
c.
pyridoxine
d.
tocopherol
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q46
mcq
Which one of the following is NOT a function of angiotensin II?
a.
Facilitates the release of norepinephrine from post-ganglionic sympathetic neurons
b.
Increases the sensitivity of baroreflex by acting on brain
c.
Produces arteriolar contraction
d.
Increases the secretion of vasopressin
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q48
mcq
The pedigree below represents the inheritance of an autosomal recessive trait.
What is the probability that individual ‘6’ is a heterozygote ?
a.
$\frac{1}{4}$
b.
$\frac{1}{2}$
c.
$\frac{2}{3}$
d.
$\frac{1}{3}$
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q49
mcq
The allele $l$ in Drosophila is recessive, sex-linked and lethal when homozygous or hemizygous. If a female of the genotype $Ll$ is crossed with a male, what is the ratio of females : males in the progeny?
a.
$3\text{♀} : 1\text{♂}$
b.
$2\text{♀} : 1\text{♂}$
c.
$1\text{♀} : 1\text{♂}$
d.
$1\text{♀} : 2\text{♂}$
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q50
mcq
Deamination of bases is a common chemical event that produces spontaneous mutation. Which one of the following bases will be formed by deamination of 5-methylcytosine ?
a.
Uracil
b.
Thymine
c.
Cytosine
d.
Guanine
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q51
mcq
In a population of 2000 individuals of a plant species, genetic difference at a single locus leads to different flower colours. The alleles are incompletely dominant. The population has 100 individuals with the genotype $rr$ (white flowers), 800 individuals with the genotype $Rr$ (pink flower) and the remaining have genotype $RR$ (red flowers). What is the frequency of the $r$ allele in the population ?
a.
0.25
b.
0.50
c.
0.75
d.
1.00
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q52
mcq
Which of the following plastid coding region(s) have been recommended as a core barcode by Plant Working Group of the consortium for the Barcode of Life?
a.
CO1 and $rbcL$
b.
$rbcL$ and $matK$
c.
CO1 and $matK$
d.
$rbcL$ only
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q53
mcq
Given below are some statements related to lower eumetazoans. Select the INCORRECT statement.
a.
Ctenophores are diploblastic with radial symmetry.
b.
Placozoans, with weakly differentiated tissue layers, are not diploblasts.
c.
Cnidarians are diploblastic with typically two stages in their life cycle.
d.
Hydrozoans, a Cnidarian class, often have colonial polyps in their life cycle.
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q54
mcq
Based on the type of excretion of nitrogenous waste, animals can be categorized as ammonotelic, ureotelic and uricotelic. Given below are combinations of groups of organisms and type of excretion.Select the correct combination.
a.
Poriferans, adult amphibians, cartilaginous fishes are ammonotelic.
b.
Ascaris, cockroaches, prawn are uricotelic.
c.
Paramecium, amphibian tadpoles, crocodiles are mainly ammonotelic.
d.
Humans, sharks and aquatic anurans are ureotelic.
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q55
mcq
Basal angiosperms are NOT represented by the members of:
a.
Chloranthales
b.
Nymphaeales
c.
Austrobaileyales
d.
Amborellales
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q56
mcq
Which of the following is the correct increasing order for the daily net primary productivity (NPP) per unit leaf area in different ecosystems?
a.
Deserts < Temperate forests < Tropical forests
b.
Deserts < Tropical forests < Temperate forests
c.
Temperate forests < Tropical forests < Deserts
d.
Tropical forests < Temperate forests < Deserts
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q57
mcq
The equilibrium model of island biogeography proposed by MacArthur and Wilson assumes that the number of species on an island represents a balance between
a.
resource consumption rate and predation rate.
b.
birth rate and death rate.
c.
colonization rate and extinction rate.
d.
speciation rate and hybridization rate.
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q58
mcq
A population grows according to the logistic growth equation, $\frac{dN}{dt} = rN\left(1 - \frac{N}{K}\right)$ where $\frac{dN}{dt}$ is the rate of population growth, $r$ is the intrinsic rate of increase, $N$ is population size and $K$ is the carrying capacity of the environment. According to this equation, population growth rate is maximum at
a.
$\frac{K}{4}$
b.
$\frac{K}{2}$
c.
$K$
d.
$2K$
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q59
mcq
What is the significance of upwelling zone for marine ecosystems ?
a.
It is responsible for uniformity of temperature in ocean to support the marine life.
b.
It brings nutrients from deeper zones to relatively nutrient poor ocean surface thus increasing marine productivity.
c.
It is responsible for uniform oxygenation of marine waters thus increasing marine productivity.
d.
It helps in circulating decomposers from the bottom of ocean to surface for proper decomposition of dead material on the surface.
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q60
mcq
Given below in Column A are schematic representations of three types of pairwise species interactions and the name of some interactions are in Column B.
Select the best match for interaction between column A and B in each schematic figure.
a.
A - (iii), B - (ii), C - (iv)
b.
A - (iv), B - (ii), C - (iii)
c.
A - (ii), B - (iv), C - (i)
d.
A - (iii), B - (i), C - (ii)
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q61
mcq
Consider a single locus with 2 alleles which are at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. If the frequency of one of the homozygous genotypes is 0.64, what is the frequency of heterozygotes in the population ?
a.
0.16
b.
0.20
c.
0.32
d.
0.36
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q62
mcq
Competition for mates and variance in fitness is higher among females than among males in which of the following animal mating systems ?
a.
Monogamy
b.
Polygyny
c.
Polyandry
d.
Sequential monogamy
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q63
mcq
Which one of the following will have the least impact on allele frequencies in small populations?
a.
Inbreeding
b.
Random mating
c.
Genetic drift
d.
Outbreeding
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q64
mcq
Given below is a marker profile for two parental lines ($\text{P}_1$ and $\text{P}_2$) and their derived $\text{F}_1$ progeny :
The marker that is represented in the above figure is most likely to be
a.
RFLP or SSR
b.
SSR only
c.
SSR or RAPD
d.
RAPD only
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q65
mcq
DNA vaccines offer several advantages over other existing vaccine approaches. Which one of the following statements related to DNA vaccine is NOT correct?
a.
The immune response is directed to the antigen encoded by the DNA and able to induce both humoral and cell-mediated immunity.
b.
DNA vaccine can induce prolonged expression of the antigen, enhancing the induction of immunological memory.
c.
DNA vaccine could remain stable and potent for long time without refrigeration, eliminating the challenges of storage and transportation.
d.
DNA vaccine construct can be engineered to carry several antigens to infect host and replicate in neuronal cells.
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q66
mcq
The following cassette was designed to create estrogen receptor knock-out mice:
SoH: site of homology; GoI: gene of interest
What would ensure that proper recombination has taken place?
a.
Cells survive when cultured in presence of only G418
b.
Cells survive when cultured in presence of G418 followed by ganciclovir
c.
Cells die when cultured in presence of G418
d.
Cells survive when cultured with G418 and die when cultured with ganciclovir
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q67
mcq
Detergents at low concentration generally do not denature proteins and are thus used for extracting proteins in their folded and active form. For isolation of 'Porins', an $E. coli$ membrane protein, which one of the following purification approaches will be most appropriate?
a.
Use of low concentration of non-ionic detergent without salt.
b.
Use of low concentration of ionic detergent.
c.
Use of salt solution containing non ionic detergent.
d.
Use of salt solution containing ionic detergent.
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q68
mcq
Choose the correct answer from the statements indicated below:
a.
Chi square test is parametric.
b.
Non-parametric test assumes normal distribution.
c.
Results can be significantly affected by outliers in a parametric test.
d.
Non-parametric test is more powerful as compared to parametric test.
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q69
mcq
Which one of the following statements regarding restriction/modifying enzymes used in recombinant DNA technology is correct?
a.
Endonucleases remove nucleotides, one at a time, from the ends of a sequence.
b.
Type II class of restriction enzymes do not recognise palindromic sequences.
c.
Mung bean nuclease acts on double stranded DNA or RNA termini.
d.
Type II class of restriction enzymes can generate either "sticky" (staggered) or "blunt" ends.
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q70
mcq
Which one of the following is used as a source of excitation in a confocal microscope?
a.
Lasers
b.
Electron beam
c.
Mercury lamp
d.
Masers
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q71
mcq
Following are statements on $\beta$-turns:
A. All the 20 coded amino acids have equal propensity to form $\beta$-turns.
B. Pro cannot occur in $\beta$-turns.
C. Pro-Gly sequence strongly favours $\beta$-turns.
D. In Asn-Gly $\beta$-turns, Asn can have positive $\phi\psi$ values.
Choose the combination with all correct statements
a.
B, D
b.
A, C
c.
A, D
d.
C, D
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q72
mcq
DNA melting temperature ($\text{T}_\text{m}$) was found to be $47^\circ\text{C}$ and enthalpy measured at $\text{T}_\text{m}$ was $0.032\text{ kJ}$. The entropy change would be:
a.
$1 \times 10^{-3} kJ$
b.
$1 \times 10^{-4} kJ$
c.
$3 \times 10^{-2} kJ$
d.
$6 \times 10^{-2} kJ$
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q73
mcq
Match the following bonds with their approximate energies:
\begin{tabular}{|l|l|l|l|}
\hline
(a) & Hydrogen bond & (i) & 0.5 kcal \\
\hline
(b) & van der Waals forces & (ii) & 40 kcal \\
\hline
(c) & Covalent bond & (iii) & 80 kcal \\
\hline
(d) & Ionic bond & (iv) & 3 kcal \\
\hline
\end{tabular}
a.
(a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
b.
(a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)
c.
(a) - (i), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii)
d.
(a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii)
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q74
mcq
The following are some statements regarding glycolysis:
A. Glycolysis is not regulated by pyruvate kinase.
B. Lactate can be an end product of glycolysis.
C. Glycolysis cannot function anaerobically.
D. In erythrocytes, the second site in glycolysis for ATP generation can be bypassed.
From the above, choose the combination with both INCORRECT statements:
a.
A and B
b.
B and D
c.
C and D
d.
A and C
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q75
mcq
For a reversible non-competitive inhibition of an enzyme, choose the plot that you would use to determine $\text{K}_\text{m}$:
a.
Plot (a)
b.
Plot (b)
c.
Plot (c)
d.
Plot (d)
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q76
mcq
An investigator expresses a GFP-fused protein that localizes to the outer membrane of Golgi apparatus. Upon visualising GFP-signal in the fluorescence microscope, it was noted that GFP is pericentrosomal in its localization (Fig A). Treatment of such GFP expressing cells with a newly identified drug disrupted the Golgi into small vesicles (Fig B).
Following is a list of potential targets of the drug:
A. Dynein complex
B. Myosin
C. Microtubules
D. Dicer
Choose the combination with all correct targets:
a.
A, B and D only
b.
B and D only
c.
A and C only
d.
A only
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q77
mcq
Following observation was made when a mammalian cell in one phase of cell cycle was fused with a cell in another phase of cell cycle:
A. Fusion of a cell in $\text{G}_1$ phase with $\text{S}$ phase caused the $\text{G}_1$ nucleus to enter $\text{S}$ phase
B. Upon fusion of a $\text{G}_2$ cell with an $\text{S}$ phase cell, $\text{G}_2$ cell does not enter $\text{S}$ Phase
C. Upon fusion of a $\text{G}_1$ cell with $\text{G}_2$ cell, $\text{G}_1$ nucleus enters $\text{G}_2$ Phase.
D. Fusion of an $\text{S}$ phase cell with a $\text{M}$ phase causes the $\text{S}$ phase cell to immediately enter mitosis.
Choose the combination with all correct statements.
a.
A, B, C
b.
A, C, D
c.
B, C, D
d.
A, B, D
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q78
mcq
In an experiment, intact chromatin was isolated and digested with micrococcal nuclease in independent tubes for 30 min, 1 h, 2 h, and 4 h. Further, the DNA was purified from each tube, separated on agarose gel and Southern hybridization was performed with rRNA gene probe and a centromeric DNA probe. Which one of the following patterns of signal intensity from both of the probes is likely to be obtained following Southern hybridization?
a.
With increasing time, compared to centromeric probe, a rapid increase in signal intensity of rRNA gene probe was observed.
b.
With increasing time, compared to centromeric probe, a rapid decrease in signal intensity of rRNA gene probe was observed.
c.
Irrespective of incubation period, both probes produced identical band intensities.
d.
Treatment with micrococcal nuclease would instantly degrade the DNA, hence, no hybridization signal would be obtained in any of the samples.
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q79
mcq
Which one of the following proteins is most likely to be found in the inter-membrane space of mitochondria? A protein containing
a.
an N-terminal matrix targeting sequence followed by hydrophobic stop-transfer anchor sequence
b.
an N-terminal matrix targeting sequence followed by a cleavable hydrophobic sequence that blocks complete translocation
c.
a protein with multiple internal sequences that are recognized by Tim22 complex
d.
a protein with an outer membrane localization sequence followed by a matrix targeting signal
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q80
mcq
A single protofilament of microtubule grows at the speed of $2\ \mu\text{m/min}$. Considering that there is no catastrophe in the microtubule nucleation and the size of the tubulin unit is of the order of $5\text{ nm}$, how many tubulin units are added to the growing microtubule per minute?
a.
400
b.
1600
c.
3200
d.
5200
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q81
mcq
mRNA of a gene was depleted in human cells using siRNA that arrest cells in the $\text{G}_2$ phase of the cell cycle. In order to test whether the $\text{G}_2$ arrest is due to an off-target or an on-target effect of siRNA mediated mRNA depletion, an investigator can:
A. re-introduce an ectopic copy of the gene coding for the wild-type mRNA and protein.
B. re-introduce an ectopic copy of the gene that is different in its mRNA sequence at the siRNA target site but encodes for the same protein.
C. re-introduce an ectopic copy of the gene that codes for different mRNA and protein.
D. utilize few more siRNAs targeting different regions of the mRNA in question.
Choose the combination with correct statements
a.
A, B, C only
b.
C and D only
c.
B and D only
d.
B, C, D only
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q82
mcq
Presence of selenocysteine in proteins in \textit{E.coli} is a consequence of:
a.
post-translational modification of cysteine present in special structural regions of the proteins by SelB and SelC.
b.
post-translational modification of serine present in special structural regions of the proteins by SelB and SelC.
c.
aminoacylation of a special tRNA ($\text{tRNA}^{\text{Secys}}$) by serine tRNA synthetase with serine followed by further modification of the attached serine to selenocysteine followed by its transport to the ribosome by SelB
d.
aminoacylation of a special tRNA ($\text{tRNA}^{\text{Secys}}$) by serine tRNA synthetase with selenocysteine followed by its transport to ribosome by SelB.
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q83
mcq
A DNA segment was cloned into the active site region of \textit{lacZ} gene and the recombinant plasmid introduced into \textit{lacZ}$^-$ strain of \textit{E.coli} and plated on a medium containing X-gal. The colonies showed blue color. Which one of the following statements is correct?
a.
The nature of the cloned DNA segment need not be special as cloning of any DNA in \textit{lacZ} will result in disruption of its reading frame and production of blue colour on X-gal plates.
b.
The cloned DNA segment could be a Group I intron whose removal from the precursor \textit{lacZ} transcript in \textit{E.coli} results in production of mature \textit{lacZ} mRNA which can then produce active LacZ protein.
c.
The cloned sequence is likely to be \textit{lacY} sequence which is naturally a part of \textit{lac} operon in \textit{E. coli}.
d.
The cloned sequence is likely to be an anti-terminator sequence which allows full length transcription of \textit{lacZ}.
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q89
mcq
Bacterial chemotaxis response is mediated by histidine-kinase-associated receptors that activate a two-component signalling pathway which enables chemotaxis receptors to control the flagellar motors. When bacteria move towards attractant, they produce smooth swimming by rotating flagella counter-clockwise, whereas when bacteria move away from repellent, they produce increased tumbling by rotating flagella clockwise. Which of the following characteristics regarding chemotaxis receptor is NOT true?
a.
The receptors are dimeric transmembrane proteins that bind specific attractants and repellents on the outside of the plasma membrane.
b.
The cytoplasmic tail of the receptor is stably associated with a histidine kinase CheA via an adapter Protein CheW.
c.
The receptor and its associated proteins are all clustered at one end of the cell.
d.
The binding of an attractant increases the activity of the receptor whereas binding of a repellent decreases the activity.
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q90
mcq
Following are a list of extracellular matrix proteins (Column A) along with their functional characteristics (Column B):
\begin{tabular}{|l|l|}
\hline
Column A & Column B \\
\hline
A. Connexin & (i) The chief endothelial cell proteins that are \\
& recognized by the white blood cell integrins \\
& and member of immunoglobulin (Ig) superfamily. \\
\hline
B. Plasmodesmata & (ii) Cell surface carbohydrate binding proteins that \\
& mediate a variety of transient cell-cell adhesion \\
& interactions in the bloodstream. \\
\hline
C. ICAM & (iii) Four-pass transmembrane protein which is \\
& the major constituent of gap junctions in \\
& forming a continuous aqueous channel. \\
\hline
D. Selectin & (iv) It is the only class of intercellular junctions \\
& in plants that directly connect the cytoplasm \\
& of adjacent cells. \\
\hline
\end{tabular}
Which one of the following is the correct match?
a.
A-i; B-iv; C-iii; D-ii
b.
A-ii; B-iii; C-iv; D-i
c.
A-iii; B-iv; C-i; D-ii
d.
A-iv; B-i; C-ii; D-iii
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q91
mcq
A western blot analysis after treating cancer cells with a prospective anti-cancer drug is shown below:
The following assumptions were made:
A. The drug may have arrested the growth of cells at the $\text{G}_1$ phase.
B. The drug targeted the JAK-STAT signalling pathway.
C. The drug led to apoptosis of the cells.
D. Drug-induced apoptosis was through the extrinsic or mitochondrial-independent pathway.
Which one of the following combination is correct?
a.
Only B and D
b.
A, B and C
c.
Only A and B
d.
B, C and D
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q92
mcq
Which one of the following statements regarding clonal selection hypothesis is NOT CORRECT?
a.
Mature B lymphocytes bear Ig receptors on their cell surface and all receptors on a single B cell have variable specificity for antigen.
b.
On antigen stimulation, B cell matures, migrates to lymphoid organs and replicates. Its clonal descendents bear the same receptor as parental B cell and secrete antibodies with identical specificity.
c.
After immune response, more B cells bearing receptors will remain in the host and act as memory cells for mounting enhanced secondary response.
d.
B cells with receptors for self antigens are deleted during embryonic development.
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q93
mcq
Susceptible individuals were infected with pathogen A and pathogen B separately. Pathogen A has a very short incubation period and disease symptoms are already underway by the time memory cells are activated. Pathogen B on the other hand has a long incubation period which allows the memory cells to be activated and respond. Which one of the following will be the most appropriate vaccination strategy against both pathogens A and B?
a.
Repeated vaccination against both A and B for maintaining high levels of neutralizing antibodies.
b.
Repeated vaccination against A and a single injection of pathogen B vaccine for maintaining high levels of neutralizing antibodies.
c.
Single injection of pathogen A vaccine and repeated vaccination against pathogen B for maintaining high levels of neutralizing antibodies.
d.
Single injection of both pathogens A and B vaccine so that memory cells can respond by producing high levels of serum antibodies.
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q94
mcq
Human sperms are allowed to fertilize ova having non-functional ovastacin. The following possibilities may be of significance in the fusion of these gametes:
A. The sperms will not fertilize ova.
B. The sperms will bind and penetrate the zona pellucida but will not be able to fuse with ovum membrane.
C. ZP2 will not be clipped by cortical granule Protease.
D. CD9 protein of egg membrane microvilli will not be able to interact with sperm membrane proteins in the absence of ovastacin.
E. Polyspermy may occur frequently.
Which combination of statements represent the outcome of the above event?
a.
A and B
b.
C and E
c.
C and D
d.
B and C
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q95
mcq
Temporal expression of N-cadherin is extremely important during early development of the mammalian embryos. Accordingly, which one of the following statements about N-cadherin is true?
a.
Injection of N-cadherin antibodies just prior to condensation of mesenchymal cells will aid cartilage formation.
b.
Presence of N-cadherin just prior to condensation will facilitate nodule formation and development of the limb skeleton.
c.
The border between the nervous system and skin will form properly only if epidermal cells are experimentally made to express N-cadherin
d.
Expression of N-cadherin is redundant during separation of neural and epidermal precursor cells.
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q96
mcq
The zygote of C. elegans exhibits rotational cleavage. When the first two blastomeres formed (P1 and AB) are experimentally separated, the following outcomes may be possible:
A. The P1 cell in isolation generates all the cells it would normally make, showing autonomous specification.
B. The P1 cell in isolation generates all the cells it would normally make, showing conditional specification.
C. The AB cell in isolation generates a small fraction of cell types it would normally make, showing conditional specification.
D. The AB cell in isolation generates a small fraction of cell types it would normally make, showing autonomous specification. Which one of the above combination of statements is true?
a.
A and C
b.
B and C
c.
B and D
d.
A and D
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q97
mcq
Given below are some of the statements regarding regeneration:
A. The type of regeneration characteristic of mammalian liver is considered as Compensatory regeneration.
B. Regrowth of hair shaft from follicular cells exemplifies stem cell mediated regeneration.
C. Regeneration occurring through the repatterning of existing tissues with little new growth is known as morphallaxis.
D. Adult structures undergoing dedifferentiation forming a blastema, that then redifferentiates to form the lost structure, is called epimorphosis.
Choose the most appropriate combination of correct statements:
a.
D only
b.
C and D only
c.
A, B and C only
d.
A, B, C and D
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q98
mcq
Following are certain statements regarding apomixis in Plants:
A. Apomixis cannot be used to maintain hybrid vigor over many generations in plants.
B. In sporophytic apomixis maternal genotype is maintained.
C. There is an event of meiosis during gametophytic apomixis and it also referred as apomeiosis.
D. In diplospory, meiosis of the megaspore mother cell is aborted, resulting in two unreduced spores, out of which one forms the female gametophyte.
Which one of the following combinations is correct ?
a.
A and B
b.
A and C
c.
B and C
d.
B and D
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q99
mcq
The following assumptions were derived from the below experiment:
The following assumptions were derived from the above experiment :
A. Medium A contained bFGF and PDGF.
B. Medium B contained retinoic acid.
C. Cells cultured in Medium B were determined to become functional neurons prior to addition of the medium.
Which one of the following combinations represents correct statements?
a.
A and B only
b.
A, B and C
c.
B and C only
d.
A and C only
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q100
mcq
Following statements were made with respect to symbiotic association of rhizobia with legumes:
A. nodD is a regulatory gene.
B. Nod factors are lipochitin oligosaccharides.
C. Nod factors predominantly have $\alpha-1 \rightarrow 4$ linked N-acetyl-D-glucosamine backbone.
D. Receptors for Nod factors are protein kinases with extracellular sugar-binding Lys M domain.
Which one of the following combinations represents all correct statements?
a.
A, B and C
b.
A, C and D
c.
B, C and D
d.
A, B and D
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q101
mcq
A quadratic check of gene combinations and disease reaction types in a host-pathogen system where the gene-for-gene concept operates is represented below :
\begin{tabular}{|l|l|l|}
\hline
\begin{tabular}[t]{@{}l@{}}Virulence or avirulence genes\\ in the pathogen\end{tabular} & \multicolumn{2}{l|}{Resistance or susceptibility genes in the plant} \\
\hline
& R (resistant) dominant & r (susceptible) recessive \\
\hline
A (avirulent) dominant & AR & Ar \\
\hline
a (virulent) recessive & aR & ar \\
\hline
\end{tabular}
The following statements were made about the above genotypes :
A. AR genotype had incompatible (resistant) reactions.
B. Ar genotype had compatible (susceptible) reactions.
C. ar genotype had compatible (susceptible) reactions.
D. aR genotype had incompatible (resistant) reactions.
Choose the combination with all correct statements.
a.
A, B and D
b.
A, B and C
c.
B, C and D
d.
A, C and D
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q102
mcq
Following observations were recorded while studying physiological parameters of sorghum and wheat under similar conditions:
A. Sorghum RUBISCO exhibits relatively higher affinity for $\text{CO}_2$ compared to that of wheat.
B. Light saturation of net photosynthetic flux is relatively lower for sorghum compared to that of wheat.
C. Warburg effect is difficult to record for sorghum and could be said as "not measurable" whereas it could be easily recorded for wheat.
D. Temperature optimum for net photosynthesis is lower for sorghum compared to that of wheat.
E. $^{13}\text{C}/^{12}\text{C}$ ratio of assimilate is relatively higher for sorghum compared to that of wheat.
Which one of the following combination of the above observation is correct?
a.
Only A, B and C
b.
Only B, C and E
c.
Only A, B and D
d.
Only A, C and E
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q103
mcq
Following are certain statements regarding respiratory metabolism in plants:
A. Respiratory quotient during partial breakdown of carbohydrate (alcoholic fermentation) will be infinity.
B. Respiratory quotient indirectly provides information about (i) nature of the substrate used for respiration and (ii) the relative rate of competing respiratory processes.
C. Breakdown of organic acids in mature fruit will exhibit a respiratory quotient value of more than one since organic acids are relatively oxygen-rich compared to other common substrates.
D. Anabolic metabolism can influence respiratory quotient by removing reduction equivalents for respiration leading to decrease in oxygen uptake.
Which one of the following combination of the above statement is correct?
a.
Only A
b.
Only B and C
c.
Only D
d.
A, B, C and D
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q104
mcq
Sieve elements of phloem conduct sugars and other organic materials throughout the plant. The following statements were made about characteristics of sieve elements in seed plants:
A. Angiosperms contain sieve plate pores.
B. There are no sieve plates in gymnosperms.
C. P-protein is present in all eudicots and many monocots.
D. There is no P-protein in angiosperms.
Which of the following combination is correct ?
a.
B, C and D
b.
A, B and C
c.
A, B and D
d.
A, C and D
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q105
mcq
The plant hormones, auxins and cytokinins, and their interactions play an important role in regulating apical dominance. The following figure represents an experiment related to the study of gene interactions that influence axillary bud outgrowth or dormancy. Q, Z and M represent genes involved in phytohormone pathway.
Based on the above figure, the following statements were made:
A. 'X' is an auxin that maintains expression of 'Q' and 'Z' and represses 'M'.
B. 'Y' is a cytokinin that promotes axillary bud growth and is induced by 'M'.
C. Decapitation (removal of apex) activates 'X'.
D. 'X' is a cytokinin that represses 'M'.
Which one of the following options represents correct statement(s)?
a.
A and C only
b.
B and D only
c.
A and B only
d.
C only
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q106
mcq
The conduction velocity of action potential in a myelinated nerve fibre was much greater than that of an unmyelinated fibre of the same diameter. The following statements were proposed to explain this observation:
A. The speed of conduction in a nerve fibre is determined by the plasma membrane resistance and axial resistance of axonal cytoplasm.
B. The electrical properties of myelinated and unmyelinated nerve fibres are not similar.
C. The myelin sheath decreases the effective membrane resistance.
D. The magnitude of an electrotonic potential decreases more with distance along the axon in myelinated nerve fibres than that of unmyelinated fibres.
E. The voltage-gated $\text{Na}^+$ channels are highly concentrated at the nodes of Ranvier.
Choose one of the following combinations with both INCORRECT statements :
a.
A and B
b.
B and C
c.
C and D
d.
D and E
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q107
mcq
A four year old boy was brought to hospital for weak bones inspite of sufficient intake of calcium in his diet. The attending doctor examined the functioning of the following organs:
A. Liver
B. Kidney
C. Lung
D. Pancreas
Which one of the following options represents a combination of probable malfunctioning organs :
a.
A and B
b.
B and C
c.
C and D
d.
A and D
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q108
mcq
The oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve illustrates the relationship between $\text{pO}_2$ in blood and the number of $\text{O}_2$ molecules bound to haemoglobin. The 'S' shape of the curve has been explained in the following proposed statements :
A. The quaternary structure of haemoglobin determines its affinity to $\text{O}_2$.
B. In deoxyhaemoglobin, the globin units are tightly bound in a T-configuration.
C. The interactions between globin subunits are altered when $\text{O}_2$ binds with deoxyhaemoglobin.
D. The affinity to $\text{O}_2$ in T-configuration of haemoglobin is increased.
E. In the relaxed configuration of haemoglobin, the affinity to $\text{O}_2$ is reduced.
Choose one of the following combinations with both INCORRECT statements.
a.
A and B
b.
B and C
c.
C and D
d.
D and E
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q109
mcq
The changes in left atrial, left ventricular and aortic pressure in a cardiac cycle are shown below in the figure:
Given below are the events of cardiac cycle (column A) associated with marked points (A, B, C, D) in the figure (column B).
| Column A | Column B |
| :--- | :--- |
| a. Aortic valve opens | (i) D |
| b. Mitral valve closes | (ii) B |
| c. Mitral valve opens | (iii) A |
| d. Aortic valve closes | (iv) C |
Choose the option that matches the events with marked points in the figure
a.
a- (ii), b -(iii), c- (i). d- (iv)
b.
a - (i), b- (iv), c - (ii), d - (iii)
c.
a- (iv), b - (i), c- (iii), d - (ii)
d.
a- (iii), b- (ii), c - (iv), d- (i)
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q110
mcq
A person recovered from a moderate degree of haemorrhagic shock. The participating physiological mechanisrms in this recovery process are proposed in the following statements.
A. The decrease in arterial pressure after haemorrhage causes inhibition of sympathetic-vasoconstrictor system.
B. After haemorrhage, the angiotensin II level in blood is increased which causes increased re-absorption of $\text{Na}^+$ in renal tubules.
C. The increased secretion of vasopressin after haemorrhage increases water retention by the kidneys.
D. After haemorrhage, the reduced secretion of epinephrine and nor-epinephrine from adrenal medulla induces decreased peripheral resistance.
E. In haemorrhage, the central nervous system ischemic response elicits sympathetic inhibition.
Choose one of the following combinations with both the correct statements.
a.
A and B
b.
B and C
c.
C and D
d.
D and E
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q111
mcq
A healthy individual was immersed in water up to neck in an upright posture for $3\text{ h}$. The plasma concentration of atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP), renin and aldosterone were measured for $5\text{ h}$ at $1\text{ h}$ intervals including the immersion period. The results are graphically presented below.
The results of this experimental condition (EC) are explained in the following proposed statements which may be correct or incorrect.
A. ANP secretion is proportional to the degree of stretch of atria.
B. The decreased plasma renin concentration in EC is due to increase in sympathetic activity.
C. The decreased aldosterone level in EC is the effect of Plasma renin level.
D. The effect of gravity on the circulation is counteracted in EC.
E. The central venous pressure is decreased in EC.
Choose-one of the following combinations with all correct statements.
a.
A, B, C
b.
A, C, D
c.
C, D, E
d.
B, C, D
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q112
mcq
Several mutants (1-4) are isolated, all of which require compound E for growth. The compounds A to D in the biosynthetic pathway to E are known, but their order in the pathway is not known. Each compound is tested for its ability to support the growth of each mutant (1-4). In the following table, a plus sign indicates growth and a minus sign indicates no growth.
$$\begin{array}{|c|c|c|c|c|c|}\hline \text{Mutant} & \multicolumn{5}{|c|}{\text{Medium supplemented with compound}} \\ \cline{2-6} & \text{A} & \text{B} & \text{C} & \text{D} & \text{E} \\ \hline 1 & - & - & - & + & + \\ \hline 2 & - & + & + & + & + \\ \hline 3 & - & - & + & + & + \\ \hline 4 & - & - & - & - & + \\ \hline \end{array}$$
What is the order of the compounds (A to E) in the pathway?
a.
$\text{E} \rightarrow \text{D} \rightarrow \text{C} \rightarrow \text{B} \rightarrow \text{A}$
b.
$\text{A} \rightarrow \text{C} \rightarrow \text{D} \rightarrow \text{B} \rightarrow \text{E}$
c.
$\text{E} \rightarrow \text{B} \rightarrow \text{D} \rightarrow \text{C} \rightarrow \text{A}$
d.
$\text{A} \rightarrow \text{B} \rightarrow \text{C} \rightarrow \text{D} \rightarrow \text{E}$
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q113
mcq
Following is the picture of an inversion heterozygote undergoing a single crossing over event
The following statements are given towards explaining the consequences at the end of meiosis:
A. The resultant two chromosomes will have deletions and duplications.
B. A dicentric and an acentric chromosome will be formed.
C. The inversion does not allow crossing over to occur, so even if a crossing over is initiated, it will fail to occur.
D. The crossing over is considered suppressed by inversion as the acentric chromosome will not segregate normally.
E. All the gametes formed with cross-over chromatids at the end of meiosis will be non-viable as they carry large deletion or duplication.
F. The gametes having non-crossover (parental) chromatid will survive.
Which combination of statements is correct ?
a.
B and E
b.
A and C
c.
B, D and F
d.
A, E and F
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q114
mcq
Polymorphic DNA sequences are used for molecular identification. Short tandem repeats (STRs) and Single Nucleotide Polymorphism (SNPs) are used as polymorphic markers. The table below summarizes the status of autosomal SNP, autosomal STR, mitochondrial SNP, Y-linked STR for four individuals related to each other, representing parents and their two children.
Based on the above data, identify the individuals representing the two parents.
a.
Individuals A and D
b.
Individuals A and C
c.
Individuals B and C
d.
Individuals C and D
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q115
mcq
An autosomal recessive condition affects 1 newborn in 10,000 in a random mating population without any disruptive acting force. What is the approximate expected frequency of carriers in this population?
a.
1 in 1000 newborns
b.
1 in 500 newborns
c.
1 in 100 newborns
d.
1 in 50 newborns
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q116
mcq
Angelman syndrome (AS) and Prader-Willi Syndrome (PWS) have very distinct symptoms. Factors responsible for the occurrence of these syndromes are given below.
A. Microdeletion of 15q11-13 in paternal chromosome.
B. Uniparental disomy of maternal chromosome 15.
C. Lack of functional maternal copy of ubiquitin ligase E3A.
D. Lack of SNURF-SNRPN transcript, which is produced only from paternal chromosome.
E. Deficiencies of small nucleolar RNAs, which are encoded from the introns of SNURF-SNRPN transcript from paternal chromosome.
Which of the following combination of answers is correct for Angelman and Prader-Willi Syndromes?
a.
PWS-A,C,D; AS-B,E
b.
PWS -B only; AS - A, C, D E
c.
PWS -A, B, D E; AS - C only
d.
PWS-A,B;AS-C,D,E
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q117
mcq
Using interrupted mating, Four $Hfr$ strains were analysed for the sequence in which they transmitted a number of different genes to a $\text{F}^-$ strain. Each $Hfr$ strain was found to transmit its genes in a unique order as summarized in the table [Only the first five genes were scored].
Which one of the following correctly represents the gene sequence in the original strain from which the $Hfr$ strains were derived as well as the place of integration and polarity of the F plasmid ?
a.
(a)
b.
(b)
c.
(c)
d.
(d)
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q118
mcq
Given below is a list of bacteria either functioning as methanogens or methanotrophs:
A. *Methanobacterium sp*
B. *Methanococcus sp*
C. *Methylomonas sp*
D. *Methylosinus sp*
Which of the following options classifies the above list correctly ?
a.
Methanogen - A; Methanotrophs - B, C, D
b.
Methonogens - A, B, C; Methanotroph -D
c.
Methanogens - A, B; Methanotrophs -C, D
d.
Methonogens - A, D; Methanotrophs -B, C
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q119
mcq
The table given below provides a list of groups of Arthropods (A-D) and some features (i-v).
\begin{tabular}{|l|l|}
\hline
A. Onychophorans & (i) includes insects \\
\hline
B. Trilobites & (ii) have cephalothorax and often pincer like appendage \\
\hline
C. Hexapods & (iii) marine arthropods that disappeared in the Permian extinction \\
\hline
D. Chelicerates & (iv) are considered related to arthropods but have unjointed appendages \\
\hline
& (v) only arthropod group without antennae \\
\hline
\end{tabular}
Which one of the following options represents the correct match between the arthropod groups with these features?
a.
A-(iv); B-(iii); C-(i); D-(v)
b.
A-(i); B-(iii); C-(iv); D-(ii)
c.
A-(iii); B-(iv); C-(ii); D-(i)
d.
A-(iv); B-(iii); C-(v); D-(ii)
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q120
mcq
In the following table, a list of threat categories and animals of India is given in an alphabetical order:
\begin{tabular}{|l|l|}
\hline
Animals & Threat category \\
\hline
i. Bengal Florican & A. Critically endangered \\
\hline
ii. Ganga River Dolphin & B. Endangered \\
\hline
iii. Indian Rhinoceros & C. Vulnerable \\
\hline
iv. Indian Vulture & \\
\hline
\end{tabular}
Which of the following options show correct combination of animals and their threat category as per Red Data list of IUCN?
Note: *Red data list of threatened species is periodically updated, student are advised to correlate the same*
a.
i-A, ii-A, iii-B, iv-C
b.
i-A, ii-B, iii-C, iv-A
c.
i-B, ii-C, iii-B, iv-A
d.
i-C, ii-A, iii-B, iv-B
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q121
mcq
Following table shows presence (+) and absence (-) of selected distinguishing characters of different plant taxa:
\begin{tabular}{|l|c|c|c|c|}
\hline
& \multicolumn{4}{|c|}{Characters} \\
\cline{2-5}
Taxon & Xylem and Phoem & Wood & Flowers & Seeds \\
\hline
A & + & - & - & - \\
\hline
B & + & + & + & + \\
\hline
C & - & - & - & - \\
\hline
D & + & + & - & + \\
\hline
\end{tabular}
Based on the above, which of the following shows correct identity of taxa A, B, C and D?
a.
A-Hornworts; B-Oaks; C-Ferns; D - Pines
b.
A-Ferns; B-Oaks; C-Hornworts; D- Pines
c.
A-Hornworts; B-Pines; C-Ferns; D - Oaks
d.
A-Ferns; B-Pines; C-Hornworts; D - Oaks
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q122
mcq
Following table shows an alphabetical list of certain domesticated crops and places of origin :
\begin{tabular}{|l|l|}
\hline
Crop & Place of origin \\
\hline
i. Barley & A. China \\
\hline
ii. Maize & B. Fertile Crescent \\
\hline
iii. Mung Bean & C. India \\
\hline
iv. Rice & D. Southern Mexico \\
\hline
v. Wheat & \\
\hline
\end{tabular}
Based on the above, which one of the following options represent the correct match between crops and their place of origin?
a.
i - C, ii - D, iii - A, iv - B, v - B
b.
i - B, D, ii - B, iii - A, C, iv - A, v - B
c.
i - C, ii - D, iii - C, iv - B, v - C
d.
i - B, ii - D, iii - C, iv - A, C, v - B
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q123
mcq
A list of floral formulae and plant families are given in the following table:
\begin{tabular}{|l|l|}
\hline
\textbf{FLORAL FORMULA} & \textbf{FAMILY} \\
\hline
(i) $\oplus \text{ \female \male } \text{K}(5) \text{ C}(5) \text{ A}(5) \ \underline{\text{G}}(2)$ & A. Brassicaceae \\
\hline
(ii) $\oplus \text{ \female \male } \overparen{\text{P}(3+3)} \text{ A}(3+3) \ \underline{\text{G}}(3)$ & B. Fabaceae \\
\hline
(iii) $\oplus \text{ \female \male } \text{K}2+2 \text{ C}4 \text{ A}2+4 \ \underline{\text{G}}(2)$ & C. Liliaceae \\
\hline
(iv) $+ \text{K}(5) \text{ C}(2), 3 \text{ A}10 \ \underline{\text{G}}1$ & D. Solanaceae \\
\hline
\end{tabular}
Which of the following options most appropriately matches given plant families with their representative floral formulae?
a.
i-D; ii-B; iii-A; iv-C
b.
i-D ii-C; iii-A; iv-B
c.
i-D; ii-C; iii-B; iv-A
d.
i-A; ii-C; iii-B; iv-D
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q124
mcq
Grassland plots with varying number of grass species were cultivated for 10 years. At the end of the experiment, total plant cover was measured. Soil nitrogen was also measured to assess its utilization by plants. The relationships are shown in the following plots :
Which one of the following inferences can be drawn from the above experiment?
a.
Grasses in plots with lower species richness enriched soil nitrogen, thereby increasing the plant cover.
b.
Plots with greater species richness showed greater stability and more efficient soil nitrogen utilization.
c.
Plots with greater species richness utilized nitrogen more efficiently but would not show increased net primary production.
d.
No correlation can be drawn between species richness, community productivity and nitrogen utilization.
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q125
mcq
Complete the following sentence with the most appropriate option.
Global analysis of a large number of plant species traits showed that with increase in leaf lifespan,
a.
specific leaf area increases whereas leaf nitrogen and net photosynthesis rate decrease.
b.
specific leaf area, leaf nitrogen and net photosynthesis rate increase.
c.
specific leaf area, leaf nitrogen and net photosynthesis rate decrease.
d.
specific leaf area decreases whereas leaf nitrogen and net photosynthesis rate increase.
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q126
mcq
Forest fragments in an agricultural landscape can be viewed as islands of habitat in an ocean of non-habitat. MacArthur and Wilson's island biogeography model can be used to predict patterns of species richness in these forest fragments which are represented in the graphs below.
Which one of the following combinations of the graphs correctly represents predictions from the model?
a.
A and C
b.
A and D
c.
B and C
d.
B and D
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q127
mcq
In order to estimate population size of a fish species in a lake, a researcher captures $100$ fish from the lake and marks them with coloured tags. A week later, the researcher returns to the lake and catches $150$ fish of the same species and finds that $25$ of them are previously tagged ones. Assuming no immigration or emigration occurred, the total population size of the fish species in the lake will be:
a.
$17$
b.
$38$
c.
$600$
d.
$860$
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q128
mcq
Given below is a graphical representation of plant life histories based on Grime's model in which stress, disturbance and competition are the important factors.
Which of the following options correctly represents A, B and C, respectively in the figure above?
a.
perennial herbs, trees and shrubs, annual plants.
b.
annual plants, perennial herbs, trees and shrubs.
c.
annual plants, trees and shrubs, perennial herbs.
d.
trees and shrubs, perennial herbs, annual plants.
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q129
mcq
Following table shows attributes of selected species A, B, C and D :
Based on the above information, which of the following is most likely to become invasive if climate matches between its site of origin and site of colonization? A. Prior exposure to predator cues is necessary for the development of escape response.
B. Prior exposure to predator cues positively influences the development of escape response.
C. The presence of older experienced individuals is necessary for the development of escape response.
D. The presence of older experienced individuals positively influences the development of escape response.
E. An individual with prior exposure and with older and experienced individuals showed the strongest escape response.
Which one of the following combination of statements represents the correct inference from the experiment?
a.
Species A and D
b.
Species A only
c.
Species D only
d.
Species B and C
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q134
mcq
Beak shape in birds has evolved in response to their diet, the table listing bird species and food type is given below.
\begin{tabular}{|l|l|}
\hline
BIRD SPECIES & FOODTYPE \\
\hline
i. Barn swallow & A. Fruits \\
\hline
ii. Great hornbill & B. Insects \\
\hline
iii. House sparrow & C. Nectar \\
\hline
iv. Purple sunbird & D. Seeds \\
\hline
\end{tabular}
Match the bird species shown above to their main food resource.
a.
i - D, ii - A, iii - C, iv - B
b.
i - B, ii - D, iii - A, iv - C
c.
i - C, ii - B, iii - D, iv - A
d.
i - B, ii - A, iii - D, iv - C
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q135
mcq
Given below are four statements related to Agrobacterium-mediated transfer of T-DNA into plant cells:
A. Production of single-stranded T-DNA by VirD1 and VirD2 proteins.
B. Interaction of VirE2 with VIP1 and VirE3.
C. Use of VirB/VirD4 type IV secretion system.
D. Activation of VirA-VirG complex.
The correct sequence of events (from earliest to latest) is:
a.
A - B - D - C
b.
B - C - A - D
c.
C - A - B - D
d.
D - A - C - B
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q136
mcq
Construction of knockout mice may be performed using the Cre-LoxP system. Eventually, the Cre recombinase of the bacteriophage Pl mediates site-specific recombination at a 34 bp sequence, lox P. From the following statements choose the INCORRECT event:
a.
The alteration of the chromosomal copy of the target gene requires a guide RNA.
b.
The loxP containing mice should not express Cre recombinase prior to mating.
c.
The Cre recombinase can be expressed by an inducible Promoter
d.
Induction of the promoter results in the expression of Cre, recombination at loxP sites and excision of the sequence in between.
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q137
mcq
Monoclonal antibodies can be modified for better research and therapeutic applications. Several such approaches are mentioned below (Column A) along with their possible applications (Column B).
\begin{tabular}{|l|l|}
\hline
Column A & Column B \\
\hline
i. Binding sites of the original mouse mAb are placed onto the Fc regions of human antibodies & a. Abzymes \\
\hline
ii. Antibodies are modified by conjugation to toxins designed to kill cells to which the antibody will bind & b. Reduce side effect of xenogenic antibodies in immunotherapy \\
\hline
iii. Generation of mAb that specifically bind and stabilize the transition state of a chemical reaction & c. Immunotoxins \\
\hline
\end{tabular}
Which one of the following options represents a correct combination of terms in Column A and Column B ?
a.
i-a; ii-b; iii-c
b.
i-b; ii-a; iii-c
c.
i-c; ii-b; iii-a
d.
i-b; ii-c; iii-a
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q138
mcq
Given below is a table comprising various terms associated with plant tissue culture in Column A and Column B.
$$\begin{array}{|l|l|}
\hline
\text{Column A} & \text{Column B} \\
\hline
\text{A. Auxin} & \text{i. Embryogenesis} \\
\hline
\text{B. Protoplast culture} & \text{ii. 6-Furfurylaminopurine} \\
\hline
\text{C. Cytokinin} & \text{iii. Pectinase and Cellulase} \\
\hline
\text{D. Microspore culture} & \text{iv. Indole-3-acetic acid} \\
\hline
\end{array}$$
Which one of the following options represents the most appropriate match between all the terms of Column A and Column B?
a.
A-ii; B-i; C-iv; D-iii
b.
A-iv; B-iii; C-ii; D-i
c.
A-ii; B-iv; C-i; D-iii
d.
A-iv; B-i; C-ii; D-iii
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q139
mcq
In an attempt to increase the yield of a commercially important enzyme from natural isolate, several strategies were adopted as follows:
A. Genome was selectively modified to increase yield.
B. Reappraisal of culture requirements of the modified organism to increase yield.
C. Induced mutants were screened and selected for organism synthesizing improved levels of the enzyme.
D. Organism was genetically modified, so that it produces a factor that enhances stability of the enzyme.
Which one of the following options represents strategies that are appropriate for the purpose?
a.
A, B, C and D
b.
B and C only
c.
A, C and D only
d.
A and B only
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q140
mcq
Given below are names of techniques (Column A) and their characteristic features/applications (Column B):
$$\begin{array}{|l|l|}
\hline
\text{Column A} & \text{Column B} \\
\hline
\text{A. Hybridoma technology} & \text{i. Separation of proteins according to charge} \\
\hline
\text{B. MALDI-TOF} & \text{ii. Identification of protein complexes in cells} \\
\hline
\text{C. Ion-exchange chromatography} & \text{iii. Production of identical antibodies} \\
\hline
\text{D. Co-immunoprecipitation} & \text{iv. Determination of molecular weight of proteins and / or peptides} \\
\hline
\end{array}$$
Which one of the following represents a correct match between Column A and Column B:
a.
A - (ii) ; B - (iii) ; C - (iv) ; D - (i)
b.
A - (iii) ; B - (iv) ; C - (i) ; D - (ii)
c.
A - (iv) ; B - (i) ; C - (ii) ; D - (iii)
d.
A - (ii) ; B - (iv) ; C - (i) ; D - (iii)
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q141
mcq
Three proteins, Blm 1, Blm 2, Blm 3 were shown to be involved in repair of DNA double strand breaks. A chromatin immune precipitation experiment was performed for the three proteins. The pattern of results obtained is shown below:
Based on the above figure, choose the option that correctly interprets the data.
a.
B1m 1, Blm 2, Blm 3 bind to DNA break sites
b.
Blm 1 binds to the break site; Blm 3 binds to the break site and beyond
c.
Blm 2 remains bound to DNA after the break is induced
d.
Blm 3 binds to DNA irrespective of the break
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q142
mcq
The most important property of any microscope is its resolution (D). Which one of the following wavelengths (nm) would be used to achieve the best resolution using a light microscope with lenses having numerical aperture (NA) of 1.4?
a.
450
b.
480
c.
560
d.
700
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q143
mcq
Detailed NMR spectra of a 20-residue peptide were recorded using a 600 MHz instrument. If the peptide adopts an $\alpha$-helical conformation, which one of the following statements is correct?
a.
Prominent $\text{NH}_i - \text{NH}_{i+1}$ NOE peaks would be observed along with $^3\text{J}_{\text{NH - HA}}$ coupling constants $\sim 8.5\text{ Hz}$
b.
Prominent $\text{C}_\alpha\text{H}_i - \text{NH}_{i+1}$ NOE peaks would be observed along with $^3\text{J}_{\text{NH - HA}}$ coupling constants $\sim 4.8\text{ Hz}$
c.
Prominent $\text{C}_\alpha\text{H}_i - \text{C}_\alpha\text{H}_{i+1}$ NOE peaks with $^3\text{J}_{\text{NH - HA}}$ coupling constant $\sim 8.5\text{ Hz}$
d.
Prominent $\text{NH}_i - \text{NH}_{i+1}$ NOE peaks along with $^3\text{J}_{\text{NH - HA}}$ coupling constant $\sim 4.8\text{ Hz}$
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q144
mcq
Given below are names of statistical distribution (Column I) and their characteristic features (Column II)
\begin{tabular}{|l|l|}
\hline
Column I & Column II \\
\hline
A. Binomial distribution & (i) Each observation represents one of \\
& two outcomes (success or failure) \\
\hline
B. Poisson distribution & (ii) Probability distribution that is \\
& symmetric about the mean \\
\hline
C. Normal distribution & (iii) Probability of a given number of events \\
& happening in a fixed interval of time \\
\hline
\end{tabular}
Which one of the following represents a correct match between columns I and II ?
a.
A - ii, b - i, C - iii
b.
A - i, b - ii, C - iii
c.
A - i, b - iii, C - ii
d.
A - iii, b - ii, C - i
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q145
mcq
Highly purified peptides P1, P2 and P3 were subjected to MALDI mass spectral analysis. The following observations were made:
P1 : Showed a m/z of 16 more than the expected value.
P2: Showed a m/z of 80 more than the expected value MS/MS spectra of the peptide resulted in a precursor ion with m/z 98 less than the expected m/z.
P3: Showed a m/z that was double the expected value.
[\textbf{Note:} $z = +1$ for all the mass spectra.]
Which one of the options given below comprises all correct interpretations?
a.
P1: Cys is oxidized; P2: has undergone oxidation at multiple Met residues; P3: is a non-covalent dimer.
b.
P1: Met is oxidized; P2: is phosphorylated; P3: is a covalent dimer.
c.
P1: Met is oxidized; P2: multiple Cys are oxidized; P3 is a covalent dimer.
d.
P1: Cys is oxidized; P2: phosphorylated and oxidized at Met; P3: is a non covalent dimer.
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.