CSIR NET · Life Sciences
June
2017
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122 questions
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Q21
mcq
The energy-rich fuel molecules produced in the TCA cycle are
a.
2 GTP, 2 NADH and 1 $\text{FADH}_2$
b.
1 GTP, 2 NADH and 2 $\text{FADH}_2$
c.
1 GTP, 3 NADH and 1 $\text{FADH}_2$
Correct Answer
d.
2 GTP and 3 NADH
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
In one round of the citric acid cycle (TCA cycle), the oxidation of one acetyl-CoA molecule produces:
- 3 molecules of $\text{NADH}$ (generated by isocitrate dehydrogenase, $\alpha$-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase, and malate dehydrogenase)
- 1 molecule of $\text{FADH}_2$ (generated by succinate dehydrogenase)
- 1 molecule of $\text{GTP}$ (or $\text{ATP}$, generated by succinyl-CoA synthetase via substrate-level phosphorylation)
Therefore, the correct composition is 1 GTP, 3 NADH, and 1 $\text{FADH}_2$.
Q22
mcq
Denaturation of a highly helical protein having disulfide bridges and two phenylalanines can be monitored as a function of temperature by which one of the following techniques?
a.
Recording circular dichroism spectra at various temperatures
Correct Answer
b.
Monitoring the absorbance at 214 nm at various temperatures
c.
Estimating the–SH content during heat denaturation
d.
Monitoring the ratio of absorbance at 214 nm and 250 nm at various temperatures
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Circular dichroism (CD) spectroscopy in the far-UV region (typically 190–250 nm, with characteristic negative bands at 208 nm and 222 nm for $\alpha$-helices) is the standard and most sensitive method to monitor secondary structure transitions (unfolding/denaturation) as a function of temperature.
Q23
mcq
Glycerol is added to protein solutions to stabilize the preparations by
a.
increasing the viscosity of solution
b.
stabilizing the pH
c.
preferential hydration of proteins
Correct Answer
d.
interacting and neutralising the surface charges on the proteins
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Glycerol acts as an osmolyte and kosmotrope that stabilizes protein structure primarily via preferential exclusion (preferential hydration). Glycerol is thermodynamically excluded from the immediate hydration layer of the protein, increasing the chemical potential of the denatured state (which has a larger surface area) more than that of the native state, thus shifting the equilibrium toward the compact, folded native conformation.
Q24
mcq
Protein stability is represented as
$\text{Folded} \overset{K_{eq}}{\rightleftharpoons} \text{Unfolded}$
Prior to development of sensitive calorimeters, thermodynamic parameters of processes were determined by following equation
$$\ln K_{eq} = \frac{-\Delta H^\circ}{R} \left(\frac{1}{T}\right) + \frac{\Delta S^\circ}{R}$$
$\Delta H^\circ$ and $\Delta S^\circ$ are standard changes in enthalpy and entropy, respectively.
Which one of the following statements is correct for estimating $\Delta G$, $\Delta H$ and $\Delta S$?
a.
Determining the ratio of folded and unfolded protein at $37^\circ\text{C}$
b.
Plotting $\text{K}_{eq}$ as function of $\Delta\text{H}$
c.
Plotting $\text{K}_{eq}$ against $\Delta\text{S}$
d.
Plotting $\text{K}_{eq}$ against temperature
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Q25
mcq
Rotenone is an inhibitor of the electron transport chain. The addition of rotenone to cells results in which of the following?
a.
Generation of mitochondrial reactive oxygen species and block in ATP generation.
Correct Answer
b.
Block in ATP generation but no generation of reactive oxygen species.
c.
Generation of reactive oxygen species but no block in ATP generation.
d.
Permeabilization of the inner membrane to compounds which are usually not able to traverse the membrane.
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Rotenone specifically inhibits Complex I (NADH:ubiquinone oxidoreductase) of the mitochondrial electron transport chain by blocking electron transfer from iron-sulfur clusters to ubiquinone. This blockage arrests electron flow through the chain, preventing proton pumping and thereby blocking ATP synthesis via oxidative phosphorylation. Additionally, the accumulation of electrons at early sites in Complex I promotes electron leakage directly to molecular oxygen, generating reactive oxygen species (ROS) such as superoxide ($\text{O}_2^{\bullet-}$).
Q26
mcq
Metachromatic leukodystrophy (MLD) is caused by a deficiency of arylsulfatase A and affects the CNS; MLD is
a.
a lysosomal storage disorder
Correct Answer
b.
a disease due to dysfunctional mitochondria
c.
caused by loss of the myelin sheath
d.
caused by a defect in proteins of the nuclear envelope
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Metachromatic leukodystrophy (MLD) is a lysosomal storage disease caused by a deficiency of the lysosomal enzyme arylsulfatase A (ARSA). This deficiency leads to the toxic accumulation of sulfatides (galactosyl sulfatide) within lysosomes, primarily in oligodendrocytes and Schwann cells, causing progressive demyelination of the central and peripheral nervous systems.
Q27
mcq
Which one of the following statements is NOT true?
a.
beta-oxidation of long chain fatty acids occurs in mitochondria
b.
Fatty acid biosynthesis occurs in peroxisomes
Correct Answer
c.
Peroxisomes utilize $\text{H}_2\text{O}_2$ to oxidize a variety of substrates
d.
Peroxisomes import their repertoire of proteins using sorting signals
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Fatty acid de novo biosynthesis occurs mainly in the cytosol (and elongation occurs in the endoplasmic reticulum and mitochondria), not in peroxisomes. In contrast, peroxisomes carry out $\beta$-oxidation of very long-chain fatty acids (VLCFA), use catalase and peroxidases to metabolize $\text{H}_2\text{O}_2$, and import their matrix and membrane proteins post-translationally via peroxisomal targeting signals (PTS1 and PTS2).
Q28
mcq
Which one of the following pairs is NOT matched correctly?
a.
Glycocalyx - adherence
b.
Fimbriae - motility
Correct Answer
c.
Pili - conjugation
d.
Peptidoglycan - cell wall
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Fimbriae are thin, hair-like protein appendages found on the surface of bacteria used primarily for attachment/adherence to surfaces and host tissues, not motility (swimming motility is mediated by flagella, and twitching motility is mediated by type IV pili). Therefore, 'Fimbriae - motility' is incorrectly matched.
Q29
mcq
In eukaryotes, precursors, of micro RNAs (miRNAs) and small interfering RNAs (siRNAs) are usually synthesized by
a.
RNA Pol I and III, respectively
b.
RNA Pol III and I, respectively
c.
Only RNA Pol I
d.
Only RNA Pol II
Correct Answer
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
In eukaryotes, primary transcripts of both microRNAs (pri-miRNAs) and precursors of small interfering RNAs (siRNAs) are predominantly transcribed by RNA Polymerase II (RNA Pol II), carrying characteristic 5' caps and 3' poly(A) tails.
Q30
mcq
Aminoacyl tRNAs are escorted to the ribosome by the elongation factor
a.
EF-Ts
b.
EF-G
c.
EF-Tu
Correct Answer
d.
eEF-2
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
EF-Tu (elongation factor thermo unstable) in prokaryotes complexes with GTP to bind and deliver aminoacyl-tRNA to the A-site of the ribosome. EF-Ts serves as a guanine nucleotide exchange factor for EF-Tu, and EF-G is involved in translocation. (In eukaryotes, the equivalent factor is eEF-1A).
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Q31
mcq
Scientists usually find difficulty in identifying the exact transcription termination site in eukaryotes because
a.
immediately following termination of transcription, the 3' end is polyadenlyated
b.
the 3' end it generated by cleavage prior to actual termination of transcription
c.
poly A binding proteins present at 3' end of transcript hides the termination site
d.
3' end of transcript is complexed with 5' end for initiation of translation
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Q32
mcq
In eukaryotic replication, priming of DNA synthesis and removal of RNA primer is catalyzed by
a.
DNA Pol $\alpha$ and PCNA, respectively
b.
DNA Pol $\alpha$ and FEN1, respectively
c.
DNA Pol $\delta$ and FEN1, respectively
d.
DNA Pol $\varepsilon$ and PCNA, respectively
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Q33
mcq
Which one of the following is NOT a bacterial disease ?
a.
Tuberculosis
b.
Typhoid
c.
Tetanus
d.
Small pox
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Q34
mcq
The second messenger, which opens calcium ion pores in endoplasmic reticulum and plasma membrane is
a.
Diacylglycerol
b.
cAMP
c.
Phosphatidyl inositol biphosphate
d.
Inositol triphosphate
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Q35
mcq
Following are list of some proteins
A. BCL-2
B. BCL-XL
C. AI
D. BAX
Which of the proteins(s) is/are NOT anti apoptotic?
a.
D only
b.
C only
c.
A and B only
d.
B and D only
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Q36
mcq
Which one of the following cells generally does NOT secrete $\text{IFN-}\gamma$ ?
a.
$\text{CD8}^+\text{T}$ cells
b.
TH1 Cells
c.
NK cells
d.
TH2 cells
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Q37
mcq
Inward movement of an expanding outer layer spreading over the internal surface during gastrulation is termed as
a.
invagination
b.
ingression
c.
involution
d.
delamination
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Q38
mcq
The ability of cells to achieve their respective fates by interacting with other cells is known as
a.
autonomous specification
b.
conditional specification
c.
induction
d.
competence
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Q39
mcq
The dorsal-most vegetal cells of the amphibian embryo that is capable of inducing the organizer is called as Nieuwkoop centre and is marked by the presence of
a.
Chordin
b.
$\beta$-catenin
c.
Goosecoid
d.
Nanos
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Q40
mcq
Which kind of cleavage is shown in mammals?
a.
Holoblastic rotational
b.
Meroblastic rotational
c.
Holoblastic radial
d.
Meroblastic radial
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Q41
mcq
During embryo germination in a grass family an absorptive organ that forms interface between the embryo and the starchy endosperm tissue is called
a.
Coleorhiza
b.
Coleoptile
c.
Scutellum
d.
Mesocotyl
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Q42
mcq
The following statements are made regarding secondary metabolites of plants.
1. All secondary metabolites are constitutively produced in all cells of a plant during its entire life.
2. They serve as signals to help the plant survive adverse conditions.
3. They may be volatile compounds.
4. They contribute to flower colour.
Which one of the following options represents a combination of correct statements ?
a.
1, 2 and 3
b.
2, 3 and 4
c.
1, 3 and 4
d.
1, 2 and 4
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Q43
mcq
For which one of the plant hormone biosynthetic pathways, 1-aminocyclopropane-1-carboxylic acid is an intermediate?
a.
Abscisic acid
b.
Brassinosteroid
c.
Ethylene
d.
Gibberellic acid
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Q44
mcq
In a study, it was found that $\text{K}^+$ ion concentration in root cells of a pea plant was $\sim 75$ times greater than that of the nutrient medium in which the plant was grown. This indicated that $\text{K}^+$ ions were absorbed from the medium
a.
because the plant was grown continuously in the dark
b.
by an active, energy-dependent process
c.
by simple diffusion
d.
through plasmodesmatal connections between the epidermis and the medium
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Q45
mcq
Filtration slits are formed by
a.
podocytes
b.
endothelial cells of capillary
c.
mesangial cells
d.
Lacis cells
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Q46
mcq
Which one of the following vitamins is NOT absorbed in the small intestine by $\text{Na}^+$ co-transporters?
a.
Thiamine
b.
Riboflavin
c.
Folic acid
d.
Ascorbic acid
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Q47
mcq
Which one of the following is NOT formed after post-translational processing of pre-proglucagon?
a.
Glicentin
b.
$\beta$-lipotropin
c.
Major proglucagon fragment
d.
Oxyntomodulin
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Q48
mcq
Which one of the following is the most powerful buffer system of blood?
a.
Bicarbonate
b.
Phosphate
c.
Proteins
d.
Haemoglobin
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Q49
mcq
In \textit{Drosophila melanogaster} males, homologous chromosomes pair and segregate during meiosis but crossing over does not occur. At which stage of meiosis does segregation of 2 alleles of a gene take place in these individuals?
a.
Zygotene
b.
Diakinesis
c.
Anaphase I
d.
Anaphase II
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Q50
mcq
A recessive inherited disease is expressed only in individuals of blood group O and not expressed in blood groups A, B or AB. Alleles controlling the disease and blood group are independently inherited. A normal woman with blood group A and her normal husband with blood group B already had one child with the disease. The woman is pregnant for second time. What is the probability that the second child will also have the disease?
a.
$1/2$
b.
$1/4$
c.
$1/16$
d.
$1/64$
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Q51
mcq
A *lac* culture of *E. coli* was mutagenised. On what media would one spread the mutagenised cells to select for $lac^+$ cells?
a.
Minimal media + lactose.
b.
Rich media + lactose.
c.
Minimal media + glycerol + IPTG + X-Gal
d.
Rich media + IPTG + X-Gal
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Q52
mcq
As per the cladistic taxonomy, Archosaurs are a group of diapsid amniotes which include extinct dinosaurs. The living representatives of group consists of
a.
Anurans and Aves
b.
Aves and Crocodilia
c.
Aves and Agnatha
d.
Osteichthyes and Squamata
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Q53
mcq
If you want to divide a human body into dorsal and ventral sections, what plane will you use?
a.
Coronal
b.
Abdominopelvic
c.
Transverse
d.
Sagittal
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Q54
mcq
Which one of the following bryophyte has multicellular rhizoids and its cells mostly contain numerous chloroplasts?
a.
Anthoceros
b.
Sphagnum
c.
Riccia
d.
Marchantia
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Q55
mcq
Which of the following is NOT true for the Anammox bacteria?
a.
They convert nitrate and ammonium into dinitrogen
b.
They are responsible for 30–50% of the dinitrogen gas produced in the ocean
c.
They belong to the bacterial phylum Planctomycetes
d.
Membranes of these bacteria contain ladderane lipids
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Q56
mcq
To understand prey-predator relationship *Didinium* (Predator) and *Paramecium* (prey) were used. *Paramecium* population was grown with sand sediment as hiding place or refuge. To this population, *Didinium* was introduced only once. What would happen to the prey population in the course of time?
a.
The population will steadily decrease and vanish
b.
The population will initially increase and then stabilize
c.
The population will initially decrease, then increase and stabilize
d.
The population will steadily increase
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Q57
mcq
Which one of the following is NOT correct?
a.
Island ecosystems are less prone to biological invasion because of their distance from mainland
b.
Invasive species have greater phenotypic plasticity compared to native species
c.
Invasive species have high dispersal ability
d.
At a large scale diversity rich ecosystems are generally more prone to invasion
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Q58
mcq
Which one of the following is in the correct decreasing order for the major reservoirs of carbon on Earth?
a.
Terrestrial soils > Terrestrial vegetation > Atmospheric $\text{CO}_2$ > Large lake sediments
b.
Terrestrial soil > Large lake sediments > Terrestrial vegetation > Atmospheric $\text{CO}_2$
c.
Atmospheric $\text{CO}_2$ > Large lake sediments > Terrestrial soils > Terrestrial vegetation
d.
Large lake sediments > Terrestrial soils > Atmospheric $\text{CO}_2$ > Terrestrial vegetation
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Q59
mcq
In an experiment to determine the number of rats in a field, 80 rats were initially captured, marked and released. After one month, 100 rats were captured in the same field, of which 20 were previously marked ones. Based on the above observation, estimated population size of the rats in the field will be
a.
160
b.
200
c.
400
d.
1600
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Q60
mcq
A species of grass grows around a mine area having patches of heavy metal contaminated soil. Some of the populations of the species grew selectively on the soil that was contaminated with heavy metals. Over a period of time, though the tolerant and non-tolerant grass populations were continuously distributed and not separated by geographical barriers, they eventually evolved different flowering time and became different species. What kind of speciation would you call this ?
a.
Allopatric speciation
b.
Sympatric speciation
c.
Parapatric speciation
d.
Bottle-neck effect
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Q61
mcq
What do mayflies, Pacific salmon (Oncorhynchus spp.) and annual grain crops have in common? They are all
a.
semelparous
b.
iteroparous
c.
oviparous
d.
viviparous
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Q62
mcq
The correct order of periods from Palaeozoic to Mesozoic era is
a.
Triassic $\rightarrow$ Jurassic $\rightarrow$ Cretaceous $\rightarrow$ Cambrian $\rightarrow$ Ordovician $\rightarrow$ Silurian $\rightarrow$ Devonian $\rightarrow$ Carboniferous $\rightarrow$ Permian
b.
Palaeocene $\rightarrow$ Eocene $\rightarrow$ Oligocene $\rightarrow$ Miocene $\rightarrow$ Pliocene $\rightarrow$ Pleistocene $\rightarrow$ Holocene
c.
Cambrian $\rightarrow$ Ordovicain $\rightarrow$ Silurian $\rightarrow$ Devonian $\rightarrow$ Carboniferous $\rightarrow$ Permian $\rightarrow$ Triassic $\rightarrow$ Jurassic $\rightarrow$ Cretaceous
d.
Pliocene $\rightarrow$ Eocene $\rightarrow$ Oligocene $\rightarrow$ Silurian $\rightarrow$ Devonian $\rightarrow$ Carboniferous $\rightarrow$ Triassic $\rightarrow$ Jurassic $\rightarrow$ Cretaceous
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Q63
mcq
Flufftails in mainland Asia show high variation in tail colour. However, in the far out Pacific island, the fluff tails show very little variation in tail colour. This variation in tail colour can be explained by all of the following EXCEPT
a.
founder effect
b.
homologous evolution
c.
genetic drift
d.
frequency dependent selection
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Q64
mcq
A $T_0$ transgenic plant containing a transgene for herbicide resistance shows two bands on southern blot analysis using a probe that is internal to the restriction sites used for genomic DNA digestion. However, it segregates in a $3:1$ ratio for herbicide resistance: sensitivity in the $T_1$ progeny obtained by self pollination. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
a.
The $T_0$ plant is a single-copy event
b.
The $T_0$ plant is a double-copy event and the two transgene copies are tightly linked
c.
The $T_0$ plant is a double-copy event the two transgene copies are integrated in two different chromosomes
d.
The $T_0$ plant contains two unlinked copies of the transgene, both of which are truncated versions of the herbicide resistance gene.
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Q65
mcq
Which one of the following statements regarding crop improvement programs using molecular breeding approach is INCORRECT ?
a.
Allelic diversity for traits of interest should be available in the naturally occurring crossable germplasm
b.
The gene/s of interest cannot be derived from a sexually incompatible organism
c.
Availability of markers and linkage maps would facilitate the breeding program
d.
The crop plant should necessarily have an optimized robust system for production of doubled haploids
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Q66
mcq
Membrane potential in mitochonria is critical for oxidative phosphorylation and is monitored by
a.
patch clamping
b.
measuring internal sodium ions after lysing the mitochondria
c.
measuring distribution of labelled ions across the miltochondrial membrane
d.
measuring the consumption of ATP
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Q67
mcq
The pH of a solution is $7.4 \pm 0.02$ where $0.02$ is standard deviation obtained from eight measurements. If more measurements were carried out, the % of samples whose pH would fall between pH $7.38$ and $7.42$ is
a.
99.6
b.
95.4
c.
68.2
d.
99.8
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Q68
mcq
In order to separate red and white blood cells, which of the following methods can be used?
a.
Ion-exchange chromatography and FACS
b.
Hydrophobic chromatography and density gradient centrifugation
c.
Density gradient centrifugation and FACS
d.
Hydrophobic chromatography and FACS
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Q69
mcq
Which one of following modification of proteins is co-translational ?
a.
Palmitoylation
b.
Myristoylation
c.
Farnesylation
d.
Addition of cholesterol
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Q70
mcq
In order to check whether a protein has been phosphorylated during treatment with a drug, you would perform
a.
Southern hybridization
b.
Western blot analysis
c.
ChIP assay
d.
RFLP
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Q71
mcq
From the following statements :
A. In proteins the amino acids that can undergo oxidation are Cys and Met.
B. A tetrasaccharide composed of alternate L and D isomers will not be optically active.
C. The $\Delta G$ (Kcal/mol)) values of $\text{K}_{\text{eq}}$ of $0.1$, $0.01$ and $0.001$ are $1.36$, $2.72$ and $4.09$, respectively. It can be concluded that the relationship between $\Delta G$ and $\text{K}_{\text{eq}}$ is parabolic.
D. The oxidation states of Fe in haemoglobin is $+2$. In cytochrome C, the oxidation states of Fe can be $+2$ or $+3$
E. In DNA, the sugar and bases are planar.
F. High-energy bonds hydrolyze with large negative $\Delta G$.
Choose the combination with ONLY ONE WRONG statement.
a.
A, E, F
b.
B, C, D
c.
C, D, E
d.
A, B, C
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Q72
mcq
Given below are statements related to protein structures
A. The dihedral angles of an amino acid X in Acetyl-X-NMethyl amide in the Ramachandran plot, occur in very small but equal areas in the left and right quadrants. It can be concluded that X is not one of the $20-$coded amino acids.
B. The dihedral angles of a $20-$residue peptide are represented in the Ramachandran plot. It is possible to conclude that the peptide does not have a proline.
C. Two proteins can have a similar fold even if they do not share significant similarity in their primary structure.
D. On denaturation of a protein by urea, the interactions that would be disrupted are ionic bonds and van der Waal's interaction but not disulfide bonds.
Choose the combination with ALL CORRECT answers :
a.
A, B, C
b.
A, C, D
c.
B, C, D
d.
A, B, D
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Q73
mcq
Various modifcations of nucleotides occur in nucleic acids. Which of the following combinations contains at least one modification that does NOT occur in nucleic acids ?
a.
N, N$-$dimethylguanosine, pseudouridine, 2'O$-$methyluridine
b.
$2-$thiouridine, dihydrouridene, N$-$isopentenyladenine
c.
$5-$methyldeoxycytosine, $5-$thiouridine, pseudouridine
d.
dihydrouridine, $4-$thiouridine, 2'O$-$methyluridine
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Q74
mcq
Given below are statements that may or may not be correct
A. Fructose $2$, $6-$biphosphate is an allosteric inhibitor of phosphofructokinase 1
B. The TCA cycle intermediates, succinate and oxaloacetate can both be derived from amino acids.
C. A diet rich in cysteine can compensate for a methionine deficient diet in humans.
D. dTTP for DNA synthesis can be obtained from UTP.
E. In the fatty acid biosynthetic pathway, the carbon atom from $\text{HCO}_3^-$ in the synthesis of malonyl CoA is not incorporated into palmitic acid
Choose the option that represents the combination of all the CORRECT statements.
a.
A, B, C and E
b.
B, D and E
c.
A, D and E
d.
Only B and C
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Q75
mcq
Three electron acceptors 'X', 'Y' and 'Z' have redox potential ($\text{E}_0'$) of $+0.15\text{V}$, $+0.05\text{V}$ and $-0.1\text{V}$, respectively. For a reaction
$$\text{B} + 2\text{H} + 2\text{e}^- \rightarrow \text{BH}_2 \quad \text{E}_0' = +0.05\text{V}$$
Which of these three electron acceptors are appropriate ?
[useful equation; $\Delta\text{G}_0' = -n\text{FE}_0'$]
$\Delta\text{G}_0' =$ free energy change; $n =$ number of electrons; $\text{F} =$ Faraday constant
a.
X and Y
b.
Only X
c.
Y and Z
d.
Only Z
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Q76
mcq
A serine protease was tested for its activity on the following peptide substrates of different lengths and sequences. The obtained kinetic parameters of the protease are shown along with the peptide.
$$\begin{array}{|c|c|c|}
\hline
\text{Peptide substrate} & K_{\text{cat}}(\text{s}^{-1}) & K_m(\text{mM}) \\
\hline
\text{Ac}-X-\overset{\downarrow}{\text{Ala}}-\text{CO}-\text{NH}_2 & 0.01 & 100 \\
\hline
\text{Ac}-Y-X-\overset{\downarrow}{\text{Ala}}-\text{CO}-\text{NH}_2 & 0.10 & 4.0 \\
\hline
\text{Ac}-Z-Y-X-\overset{\downarrow}{\text{Ala}}-\text{CO}-\text{NH}_2 & 8.0 & 4.0 \\
\hline
\text{Ac}-Y-X-\overset{\downarrow}{\text{Val}}-\text{CO}-\text{NH}_2 & 6.0 & 35.0 \\
\hline
\end{array}$$
Arrow denotes site of cleavage.
Based on the above data, the following statements are made :
A. Catalytic efficiency ($K_{\text{cat}}/K_{\text{m}}$) increases with the size of the peptide.
B. Amino acid at the hydrolytic cleavage position of the peptide is critical for binding of the peptide with the protease.
C. Catalytic efficiency decreases from three amino acid peptide to four amino acid peptide.
Which of the following combinations of the above statements is correct?
a.
A and B
b.
A and C
c.
B and C
d.
A, B and C
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Q77
mcq
A membrane associated protein is composed of seven "$\alpha$-helices", with each helix containing 19 hydrophobic residues. While treating the membrane with all kinds of proteases, a major portion of this protein remains intact. Treatment with high salt (till $1.5\text{ M } \text{NaCl}$) and buffer with $\text{pH } 5.0$ failed to dissociate this protein from the membrane. Predict the most appropriate nature and orientation of this protein in the membrane.
a.
Peripheral glycoprotein
b.
Integral protein with seven membrane spanning regions
c.
Peripheral protein with both N and C–terminals remain exposed to outer surface of the cell membrane
d.
Peripheral protein with both N and C–terminal remain exposed to cytosolic surface of the cell membrane
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Q78
mcq
When the cholera toxin (protein of Mr 90,000 Da) gains access to the human intestinal tract, it binds tightly to specific receptors in the plasma membrane of the epithelial cells lining the small intestine, causing membrane bound adenylyl cyclase to undergo prolonged activation resulting in extensive loss of $\text{H}_2\text{O}$ and $\text{Na}^+$. Pretreatment of the epithelial cells with various phospholipases and proteases failed to inhibit the binding of cholera toxin to its receptor and the fluid loss but treatment with exoglycosidase, prior to binding, significantly reduces these effects. Which of the following molecule could be the receptor for this toxin ?
a.
Phosphatidyl choline
b.
Sodium-potassium ATP ase
c.
Ganglioside
d.
Chloride-bicarbonate exchanger
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Q79
mcq
$\alpha$ - bungarotoxin binds to acetylcholine receptor (AChR) protein with high specificity and prevents the ion-channel opening. This interaction can be exploited to purify AChR from membrane using.
a.
Ion-exchange chromatography
b.
Gel filtration chromatography
c.
Affinity chromatography
d.
Density gradient centrifugation
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Q80
mcq
In \textit{Schizosaccharomyces pombe}, the recessive ($cdc\text{ }2^r$) and dominant ($cdc\text{ }2^D$) mutants have opposing phenotypes. While $cdc\text{ }2^D$ produces abnormally small cells, $cdc\text{ }2^r$ produces abnormally long cells. Some possible explanations are given below.
A. $cdc\text{ }2^D$ may lack interaction with WEE1.
B. $cdc\text{ }2^r$ may not interact with CDC13 kinase.
C. $cdc\text{ }2^D$ may not interact with CDC25 phosphatase.
D. $cdc\text{ }2^r$ cells may be deficient in interaction with either CDC25 or WEE1.
Which combination of the above statements is correct ?
a.
A and B only
b.
A, C and D only
c.
B and C only
d.
A, B and C only
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Q81
mcq
The table given below lists organisms (column A) and characteristic features (column B).
Choose the option that correctly matches organisms with their characteristic features.
a.
(a) - (i), (b) - (v), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii), (e) - (iii)
b.
(a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (v), (d) - (ii), (e) - (iii)
c.
(a) - (iv), (b) - (v), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii), (e) - (ii)
d.
(a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (v), (d) - (iv), (e) - (iii)
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Q82
mcq
In Tay-Sachs disease, accumulation of glycolipids occurs especially in nerve cells. These cells are greatly enlarged with swollen lipid-filled endosomes and the children with this disease die at a very early stage. Such condition occurs due to a specific defect in.
a.
specific lysosomal enzyme that catalyzes a step in the breakdown of gangliosides
b.
sorting of an enzyme that adds a phosphate group at 6th position of mannose in all acid hydrolases
c.
one of the Rab proteins involved in recycling of vesicles
d.
v-SNARE molecules which cause abnormal vesicle tethering and docking and affect vesicle fusion with lysosomes
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Q83
mcq
The lambda ($\lambda$) and P22 phages are two related lambdoid bacteriophages. A recombinant lambda phage ($\lambda^{Mut}$) was derived from the wild type lambda phage ($\lambda^{WT}$) by replacing its CI repressor gene and the CI binding sites with those from the P22 phage. Both the $\lambda^{WT}$ and the $\lambda^{Mut}$ were used independently to infect Escherichia coli strain over-producing $\lambda^{WT}$ CI repressor. Following outcomes were surmised.
A. Infection with $\lambda^{WT}$ will lyse the *E. coli* used
B. Infection with $\lambda^{WT}$ will invariably establish lysogeny in the *E. coli* used.
C. Infection with $\lambda^{Mut}$ will lyse the *E. coli* used
D. Infection with $\lambda^{Mut}$ will invariably establish lysogeny in the *E. coli* used
Which combination of the above statements is correct?
a.
A and B
b.
B and C
c.
C and D
d.
D and A
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Q84
mcq
Chloramphenicol is a "broad-spectrum" antibiotic which inhibits protein synthesis in prokaryotes. Given below are a few statements regarding the mode of action of chloramphenicol.
A. Chloramphenicol inhibits the peptidyl-transferase activity of ribosomes.
B. Chloramphenicol can be used to treat moderate to severe infections, because mitochondrial ribosomes are not sensitive to chloramphenicol.
C. Chloramphenicol binds to one of the domains of 23S rRNA.
D. Chloramphenicol competes for binding with the E-site tRNA.
Which of the following options describes correctly the mechanism of action of chloramphenicol ?
a.
B and D only
b.
A and C only
c.
A, C and D
d.
B, C and D
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Q85
mcq
A merodiploid strain of *E. coli* with the genotype $F^+ O^c Z^- Y^+ / O^+ Z^+ Y^+$ was constructed. The activity of $\beta$-galactosidase enzyme was measured in this strain upon following treatments.
A. no induction
B. induction with $n$ moles of IPTG
C. induction with $n$ moles of lactose
D. induction with $n$ moles of lactose in the presence of $n$ moles of glucose.
Which one of the following graphs depicts the expected trends in $\beta$-galactosidase activity under the four different conditions ?
a.
(a)
b.
(b)
c.
(c)
d.
(d)
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Q86
mcq
Two experiment were performed. In the first one, Okazaki fragments were prepared from a replicating cell of *E. coli* grown in the presence of $^{32}\text{P}$. In the other, the two strands of *E. coli* chromosome were separated into a H strand and L strand, immobilized onto a nitrocellulose membrane and hybridized with the Okazaki fragments prepared in the first experiment.
Which of the following options correctly describes the observation?
a.
Okazaki fragments will hybridize to only H strand
b.
Okazaki fragments will hybridize to only L strand
c.
Okazaki fragments will hybridize with both H and L strands
d.
Because the H and L strands have been prepared from different cultures of *E. coli*, the Okazaki fragments will hybridize to neither
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Q87
mcq
Eukaryotic mRNAs have an enzymatic appended cap structure consisting of a 7-methylguanosine residue joined to the initial $5'$ nucleotide of the transcripts. Given below are a few statements regarding capping.
A. Capping protects the mRNA from degradation by $5'$-exoribonuclease.
B. During capping, the $\alpha$-phosphate is released from the $5'$-end of the nascent mRNA.
C. Phosphorylation mediated conformational change in carboxyl terminal domain (CTD) of RNA Pol II enables its binding with capping enzymes.
D. During capping, a $5'-5'$ triphosphate bond is formed between the $\beta$-phosphate of the nascent mRNA and $\alpha$-phosphate of GTP.
Which of the above statements(s) is/are INCORRECT ?
a.
C only
b.
B only
c.
A and B
d.
C and D
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Q88
mcq
In *E. coli* grown under nutrient rich conditions, replication of entire genome takes about $40\text{ min}$, yet it can divide every $20\text{ min}$. This is so because
a.
While *E. coli* divides every $20\text{ min}$, equal transfer of genetic material occurs only in the alternate rounds of cell divisions.
b.
A second round of genome replication begins before the completion of first round of replication, and by the time cell is ready to divide, two copies of the genome are available.
c.
Genome replication and cell division are not coordinated with each other.
d.
During cell division, only one of the strands of the genome whose synthesis can be achieved in $20\text{ min}$, is transferred to the daughter cell.
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Q89
mcq
Toll-like receptors (TLR) present in mammalian macrophages are recognized by types of macromolecules that are not present in vertebrates but are present in certain groups of microbial pathogens. When these pathogens infect macrophages, TLR signalling is stimulated. Following are the list of macromolecules in column A and types of TLR in column B.
Which of the following is the best possible match of the pathogenic ligand with their corresponding TLR ?
a.
(i)-(a), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(c), (iv)-(d)
b.
(i)-(b), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(c)
c.
(i)-(b), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(d)
d.
(i)-(c), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(a)
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Q90
mcq
Preventing the blocking action of patched protein leads to activation of Cos-2, which dissociates itself from microtubules, activates Ci/Gli which binds to CBP (CREB-binding protein) and promotesc transcription of target genes, Which one of the following treatment of cells will mostly prevent Ci/Gli activated transcription in the cells ?
a.
Small molecules which target Frizzled.
b.
Azepine an inhibitor of $\gamma$-secretase
c.
Cyclopamine, which binds to heptahelical bundle of Smoothened.
d.
CdK blocker, which negatively regulate TGF$\beta$-induced growth.
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Q91
mcq
The second messenger cAMP, synthesisted by adenylyl cyclase transduces a wide variety of physiological signals in various cell types in mammalian cells. Most of the diverse effects of cAMP are mediated through activation of protein kinase A (PKA), also called cAMP dependent protein kinase. Which of the following statements regarding PKA is NOT correct?
a.
Inactive PKA is a tetramer consisting of two regulatory (R) subunits and two catalytic (C) subunits.
b.
Each R subunit binds the active site in a catalytic domain and inhibits the activity of the catalytic subunits.
c.
Each R subunit has two distinct cAMP binding sites and binding of cAMP occurs in a cooperative fashion.
d.
Binding of cAMP to R subunit causes a conformational change resulting in binding to site other than catalytic site causing strengthening of binding to C subunit activating its kinase activity.
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Q92
mcq
Given below is a list of some proteins known to be associated with apoptosis, their sub-cellular localization (but not in correct order) and possible role in apoptosis.
Choose the right combination which matches the proteins with their correct localization and role in apoptosis.
a.
(a) a - ii, (b) b - ii, (c) c - i
b.
(a) c - i, (b) a - ii, (c) b - ii
c.
(a) b - i, (b) c - ii, (c) a - i
d.
(a) c - i, (b) a - i, (c) b - i
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Q93
mcq
Given below are a list of some extracellular matrix (ECM) proteins in column A and their characteristics in column B, but not in correct order.
Which one of the following is the most appropriate match ?
a.
A - i, B - ii, C - iii, D - iv
b.
A - ii, B - iii, C - iv, D - i
c.
A - iii, B - ii, C - iv, D - i
d.
A - iv, B - i, C - ii, D - iii
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Q94
mcq
The major histocompatibility complex (MHC) is referred to as the human leukocyte antigen (HLA) complex in humans and as the $\text{H}-2$ complex in mice. In an experiment, $\text{H}-2^k$ mice were primed with the lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus (LCMV) to induce cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTLs) specific for the virus. Spleen cells from this LCMV-primed mouse were then added to target cells of the same ($\text{H}-2^k$) or different H-2 haplotypes ($\text{H}-2^b$) that were intracellularly radiolabelled with $^{51}\text{Cr}$ and either infected or not infected with LCMV. CTL mediated killing of target cells were then measured by the release of $^{51}\text{Cr}$ into the culture supernatant (Cr release assay). In which of the following cells, $^{51}\text{Cr}$ will be released into the culture supernatant ?
a.
$\text{H}-2^k$ target cells
b.
$\text{H}-2^k$ LCMV-infected target cells
c.
$\text{H}-2^b$ target cells
d.
$\text{H}-2^b$ LCMV – infected target cells
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Q95
mcq
The following are certain statements regarding stem cells :
A. All types of stem cells have the ability to give rise to a complete embryo.
B. Multipotent stem cells are those whose commitment is limited to a relatively small subset of all possible cell types.
C. Stem cell inches allow controlled self-renewal and also survival of the cells that leave the niche.
D. The pluripotency of the stem cells in an embryo is essentially maintained by Fgf8, Nanog and $\text{TGF}\beta$.
E. Adult cells may be reprogrammed to gain pluripotency by modifying the following genes $\text{Oct } \frac{3}{4}$, Sox 2, c myc, Klf-4.
Which of the following combinations of statements is correct ?
a.
A, B and D
b.
B and E
c.
C and E
d.
A, C and D
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Q96
mcq
When the 4 blastomere pairs of the 8–cell stage tunicate embryo are dissociated, each forms most of the structures it would have formed had it remained in the embryo. However, the notochord and nervous system get specified only if different blastomeres get the chance to interact. Given below are certain interpretations formulated from the above results.
A. Each pair of blastomeres forming respective structures indicate autonomous specification.
B. Each pair of blastomeres forming respective structures indicate conditional specification.
C. The notochord and nervous system development indicate autonomous specification.
D. The notochord and nervous system development indicate conditional specification.
Which combination of interpretations is most appropriate ?
a.
A and C
b.
B and D
c.
A and D
d.
B and C
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Q97
mcq
The presence of $\beta$-catenin in the nuclei of blastomeres in the dorsal portion of the amphibain embryo is one of the determinants for laying down the dorso-ventral axis. What will be the outcome of expressing a dominant negative form of GSK3 in the ventral cells of early embryo ?
a.
The dorsal cells will be ventralized
b.
A second axis will be formed
c.
The primary organizer will not be formed
d.
The embryo will develop normally
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Q98
mcq
Extensive molecular genetic studies on miR156, miR172, SPL genes and AP2–like genes have yielded the following functional model on the juvenile $\rightarrow$ adult $\rightarrow$ reproductive transition in Arabidopsis :
Based on these results, the following schematic diagram has been proposed to predict the expression kinetics of these genetic factors.
Which of the following combinations is most likely to be correct ?
a.
a–miR156, b–SPL genes, c–miR172, d–AP2 like genes
b.
a–miR156, b–miR172, c–SPL genes, d–AP2 like genes
c.
a–miR172, b–SPL genes, c–AP2 like genes, d–miR156
d.
a–miR156, b–AP2 like genes, c–miR172, d–SPL genes
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Q99
mcq
Injection of Noggin mRNA in cells that will become the future ventral side of a frog embryo mimics the effect of an organizer graft to the ventral side. This experiment demonstrates that
A. Noggin is a transcription factor
B. Noggin induces ventral fates
C. Noggin is involved in organizer fate
D. Noggin is required to induce a secondary axis
Which one of the following options represents correct combination of statement/s?
a.
A and C
b.
C and D
c.
A and B
d.
B and C
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Q100
mcq
Antennapedia complex in Drosophila contains five genes, lab, pb, dfd, scr and Antp and they express in parasegments 1 to 5, respectively in a non-overlapping manner. In the larva or in later stages of devlopment, the region of Antp (Antennapedia) expression corresponds to a part of second thoracic segment. A mutation in Antp is known to cause transformaton of antenna to leg-like structures.
Below are certain statements made in respect to the functions of Antennapedia : A. In the above described Antp mutation, the gene ectopically expresses in the head region.
B. One of the functions of Antp is to repress genes that induce antenna development.
C. Antp expresses in thorax and forms a concentration gradient in the posterio-anterior direction, thus affecting head development.
D. A homozygous recessive mutation of Antp is expected to transform the leg to antenna in the second thoracic segment.
Which combination of the above statements corectly describes the function of Antennapedia?
a.
A, B and C
b.
B and C
c.
C and D
d.
A, B and D
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Q101
mcq
A researcher wanted to study light reaction during photosynthesis by blocking photosynthetic electron flow using the herbicide, dichlorophenyldimethlyurea (DCMU) and paraquat. The researcher listed the following observations :
A. Both DCMU and paraquat block the electron flow in Photosystem II.
B. Both DCMU and paraquat block the electron flow in Photosystem I.
C. DCMU blocks electron flow in Photosystem I while paraquat blocks in Photosystem II.
D. DCMU blocks electron flow in Photosystem II while paraquat blocks in Photosystem I.
Which of the following combinations of the above statements is INCORRECT?
a.
A, B and C
b.
A, B and D
c.
A, C and D
d.
B, C and D
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Q102
mcq
Following are a few statements regarding water potential in plants :
A. Solute concentration and pressure potential contribute to water potential of a plant cell in a given state.
B. When a flaccid cell is placed in a solution that has a water potential less negative than the intracellular water potential, water will move from solution into the cell.
C. When a flaccid cell is placed in a solution that has a water potential less negative than the intracellular water potential, water will move out from cell into the solution.
D. Water potential of a plant cell under severe water stress is always less negative as compared to that of unstressed cells.
Which combination of the above statements is correct?
a.
A and B
b.
B and C
c.
A and C
d.
C and D
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Q103
mcq
The following scheme shows the flowering status of a plant species and the photoperiod regimes in which it is grown (L denotes light period; D denotes dark period).
Which of the following conclusions is most appropriate ?
a.
The species is a short day plant, length of the dark phase determines flowering status.
b.
The species is a long day plant, length of the dark phase determines flowering status.
c.
The species is a short day plant, length of the light phase determines flowering status.
d.
The species is a long day plant, length of the light phase determines flowering status.
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Q104
mcq
In a photoresponse experiment, imbibed seeds were kept under the following light regimes and their germination status was noted as follows :
D : Darkness, R : Red light, FR : Far-red light.
In an independent biochemical experiment, it was demonstrated that the red light photoreceptor phytochrome is interconverted between two forms, P and P', by red or far-red light.
Keeping these information in minds, which of the following combination of conclusions is correct?
a.
Red light converts P to P', P' promotes seed germination
b.
Far-red light converts P to P', P' promotes seed germination
c.
Red light converts P' to P, P' promotes seed germination
d.
Far-red light converts P' to P, P promotes seed germination
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Q105
mcq
Following are a few statements regarding the structure of terpenes :
A. Isopentenyl diphosphate and farnesyl diphosphate are monoterpene and sesquiterpene, respectively.
B. Squalene and geranyl diphosphate are triterpene and monoterpene, respectively.
C. Dimethylallyl diphosphate and geranylgeranyl diphosphate have 10 and 20 carbons, respectively.
D. Diterpenes have 20 carbons, whereas sesquiterpenes have 15 carbons.
Which combination of the above statements is correct ?
a.
A and B
b.
B and D
c.
A and C
d.
C and D
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Q106
mcq
Consider the following facts regarding the control of shoot apical meristem (SAM) size in Arabidopsis
A. Loss of the $CLAVATA1$ ($CLV1$) gene leads to bigger SAM.
B. Loss of the $CLAVATA3$ ($CLV3$) gene leads to bigger SAM.
C. Loss of the $WUSCHEL$ ($WUS$) gene leads to smaller SAM.
D. Loss of both $CLV1$ and $WUS$ leads to smaller SAM.
E. Loss of both $CLV3$ and $WUS$ leads to smaller SAM.
F. Loss of both $CLV1$ and $CLV3$ leads to bigger SAM.
G. Over expression of $CLV3$ leads to smaller SAM.
H. Over expression of $CLV3$ in the loss of function mutant of $CLV1$ leads to bigger SAM.
Based on the above information, which of the following genetic pathways describes the relationship among $CLV1$, $CLV3$ and $WUS$ most appropriately ?
a.
Pathway as shown in option (a)
b.
Pathway as shown in option (b)
c.
Pathway as shown in option (c)
d.
Pathway as shown in option (d)
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Q110
mcq
The $\text{P}_{50}$ value of haemoglobin for oxygen is increased during exercise. The mechanism of this change is described in the following proposed statements.
A. Increased $\text{CO}_2$ production by muscles elevated $p\text{CO}_2$ of blood which affects $\text{P}_{50}$ value.
B. The affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen increases as $2, 3-\text{bisphosphoglycerate}$ ($2, 3-\text{BPG}$) level is elevated.
C. Increased body temperature shifts the oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve to the left.
D. The decrased $p\text{H}$ of blood reduces the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen.
Which of the above statement(s) is (are) INCORRECT ?
a.
Only A
b.
B and C
c.
Only C
d.
A and D
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Q111
mcq
There is evidence that following pyrogenic stimuli, cytokines produced by the CNS cause fever, possibly by local release of prostaglandins. Accordingly, the following statements have been proposed :
A. Cytokines act independently and directly on thermoregulatory centres.
B. Intrahypothalamic injection of prostaglandin receptor agonists will prevent fever.
C. Antipyretic effect of aspirin is exerted on the hypothalamus to prevent prostaglandin synthesis.
D. Aspirin blocks infections and eventually prevents fever.
Which one of the following conbination of above statements is correct ?
a.
A and D
b.
B and C
c.
B and D
d.
A and C
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Q112
mcq
Following are some statements about the mechanism of stimulation of receptors for touch, pain, vision and warmth that may or may not be correct.
A. The touch receptor does not require any voltage gated cation channel for its activation.
B. Light causes closing of $\text{Na}^+$ channels in the outer segments of rods and cones.
C. Pain sensation is caused by opening of $\text{Na}^+$ or $\text{Na}^+/\text{Ca}^{++}$ channels in free sensory nerve endings.
D. The warmth receptor is activated by non-selective anion channels.
Choose the option with both statements as correct.
a.
A and C
b.
B and C
c.
C and D
d.
A and D
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Q113
mcq
The following is a schematic representation of a hypothetical pathway involved in formation of eye color in an insect species.
Genes A and B are linked and have a map distance of $10\text{ cM}$. Females with genotypes $a^+ a \ b^+ b$ are test crossed. Further in these females the two genes are linked in cis. $a^+$ and $b^+$ represent wild type alleles, while $a$ and $b$ are null alleles. The progeny of the test cross have individuals with four different eye colours. What is the expected ratio of individuels with eye color $\text{Red} : \text{Vermillion} : \text{Brown} : \text{White}$ in the progeny ?
a.
$9 : 3 : 3 : 1$
b.
$1 : 1 : 1 : 1$
c.
$9 : 1 : 1 : 9$
d.
$1 : 9 : 9 : 1$
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Q114
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In the following diagram, segments A and C are copies of 10 basepair repeat DNA sequences, flanking a uniques stretch shown as B. A and C are in inverted orientation as indicated by arrows. Intramolecular recombination between A and C leads to which event :
a.
The complete region encompassing A to C will be inverted
b.
Only A and B will be inverted
c.
Only B will be inverted
d.
Only regions A and C will be inverted
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Q115
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Somatic cell hybridization is used to assign a gene to a particular chromosome. When two cell lines from two different species are fused, they form a heterokaryon which tends to lose chromosomes as they divide, preferentially from one species. A panel of cell lines was created from mouse-monkey somatic cell fusions. Each line was examined for the presence of monkey chromosomes and for the production of a given enzyme. The following results were obtained :
On the basis of these result, which chromosome has the gene that codes for the given enzyme?
a.
Chromosome 10
b.
Chromosome 7
c.
Chromosome 1
d.
Chromosome 5
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Q116
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A phenotypically normal fruit fly was crossed to another fly whose phenotye was not recorded. Of the progeny, 3/8 were wild type, 3/8 had ebony body color, 1/8 had vestigeal wings and 1/8 had ebony body color and vestigeal wings. Ebony body color and vestigeal wings are recessive characters and their genes are located on two different autosomes. Based on this information which one of the following is the likely genotype of the parents ?
a.
$ee\ vgvg$ and $e^+ e^+ vg^+ vg$
b.
$ee\ vg^+ vg$ and $e^+ e\ vg^+ vg$
c.
$e^+ e\ vgvg$ and $e^+ e^+ vg^+ vg$
d.
$e^+ e\ vg^+ vg$ and $e^+ e\ vg^+ vg$
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Q117
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In normal individuals, there are three MstII restriction sites, two flanking the $\beta$-globin gene and one within the gene. In individuats affected by a disease, a single nucleotide polymorphism in the $\beta$-globin gene abolishes the internal MstII recognition site. The RFLP pattern for this locus, obtained by hybridization using a probe internal to the flanking MstII sites, from siblings of a family is shown below.
Based on the above profile, what is the nature of the genetic disorder ?
a.
X-linked Recessive
b.
Autosomal Dominant
c.
Autosomal Recessive
d.
X-linked Dominant
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Q118
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In a transduction experiment using $a^+b^+c^+$ genotype as a donor and $a^-b^-c^-$ as the recipient, $a^+$ transductants were selected and screened for $b$ and $c$. The data obtained are shown below :
The cotransduction frequencies for $a^+b^+$ and $b^+c^+$ respectively, are :
a.
17% and 12%
b.
22% and 9%
c.
22% and 17%
d.
17% and 9%
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Q119
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In the following columns, certain terms and their descriptons are given in random order :
Which of the following combination gives correct match for the terms in column I from column II
a.
A - i, B - ii, C - iii, D - iv, E - v
b.
A - ii, B - iv, C - i, D - v, E - iii
c.
A - iv, B - ii, C - iv, D - i, E - iii
d.
A - ii, B - iv, C - i, D - iii, E - v
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Q120
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Given below are some statements on vertebrates. Which one of the following statements is INCORRECT?
a.
Muscular post–anal tail and pharyngeal slits are derived characters in vertebrates like notochord and dorsal hollow nerve cord
b.
Like echinoderms, vertebrates are deuterosomes
c.
Presence of two or more sets of HOX genes in living vertebrates distinguish them from cephalochordates and urochordates which have only one set
d.
Since adult hagfishes and lampreys lack vertebral column, they are categorized outside class Vertebrata, but are retained under “chordata” along with Cephalochordates and urochordates.
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Q121
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A comparsion of Bacteria, Archaea and Eukarya with respect to a few characteristics is given below :
Which of the following combinations present a correct comparison of characteristics in the table above
a.
A, B, C and E
b.
A, C and D
c.
B, D and E
d.
A, B and E
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Q122
mcq
The table given below provides a list of diseases and causal organisms.
Which of the following options represent the correct match between disease and the causal organism ?
a.
A - i, B - ii, C - v, D - vi
b.
A - ii, B - i, C - iii, D - v
c.
A - i, B - ii, C - vi, D - iv
d.
A - ii, B - i, C - iv, D - vi
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Q123
mcq
The table given below lists species and conservation status
Which one the following is the correct pairing between Indian animal species and their conservation status ?
a.
A - i, B - i, C - ii, D - iii
b.
A - ii, B - ii, C - iii, D - ii
c.
A - i, B - ii, C - iii, D - iii
d.
A - iii, B - iii, C - ii, D - ii
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Q124
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The following is a list of reproductive structures found in vascular and non-vascular plants.
A. Archegonia
B. Megaspore
C. Capsule
D. Fern frond
E. Pollen
F. Corolla
Which of the following combinations represents structures primarily associated with the gametophytic life cycle of these plants ?
a.
A, C, F
b.
A, B, E
c.
B, D, E
d.
C, D, F
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Q125
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The net reproductive rate ($ ext{R}_0$) is 1.5 for a given population. If $ ext{N}_t$, the population of females at generation $t$, is 500, then what will be the population of females after four generations ($ ext{N}_{t+4}$) ?
a.
1125.000
b.
2531.250
c.
1265.625
d.
3796.875
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Q126
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Two species, M and N, occupy the same habitat. Given below is a ‘state-space’ graph in which the abundance of species M is plotted on the X–axis and abundance of species N is plotted on the Y–axis. For each species, the zero-growth isocline is plotted.
_____ zero–growth isocline for species M
_ _ _ _ zero-growth isocline for species N
$\text{K}_\text{M} = \text{carrying capacity of the habitat for species M in absence of species N.}$ $K_N = $ carrying capacity of the habitat for species N in absence of species M.
$\alpha = $ per capita effect of species N on M
$\beta = $ per capita effect of species M on N
Based on the above plot some deductions are made. Which one of the following statements is INCORRECT ?
a.
At point A, populations of both the species M and N increase
b.
At point B, population of species M increase while that of species N decreases
c.
At point B, population of species N increase while that of species M decreases
d.
Ultimately species N will be eliminated
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Q127
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Which one of the following statemetn is NOT correct ?
a.
Herbivores enhance the productivity of a productive ecosystem and reduce the productivity of an unproductive ecosystem
b.
Detritus based food chains are longer in more productive ecosystems
c.
Consumption efficiency of herbivores is higher in grasslands than ocean
d.
Production efficiency of carnivores is higher than herbivores
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Q128
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Following are the descriptions used by conservation biologists for characterizing species/groups in a community.
A. Species with a disproportionally large effect on its environment relative to its abundance.
B. Species defining a trait or characteristics of the environment.
C. Species whose conservation leads to direct protection of other species.
D. Species which is instantly recognizable and used as the focus of a broader conservation effort.
Which of the following combination correctly identifies these species / groups?
a.
A – Keystone species, B – Indicator species, C – Flagship species, D – Umbrella species
b.
A – Keystone species, B – Indicator species, C – Umbrella species, D – Flagship species
c.
A – Indicator species, B – Flagship species, C – Umbrella species, D – Keystone species
d.
A – Umbrella species, B – Indicator species, C – Keystone species, D – Flagship species
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Q129
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As per national air quality standard for India, which one of the following options given correct concentration limits ($\mu g\text{ m}^{-3}$, annual) of various gascous air pollutants for a residential area ?
a.
$\text{SO}_2 - 100$, $\text{NO}_2 - 40$, $\text{O}_3 - 40$, $\text{CO} - 50$
b.
$\text{SO}_2 - 50$, $\text{NO}_2 - 40$, $\text{O}_3 - 100$, $\text{CO} - 02$
c.
$\text{SO}_2 - 40$, $\text{NO}_2 - 50$, $\text{O}_3 - 50$, $\text{CO} - 10$
d.
$\text{SO}_2 - 50$, $\text{NO}_2 - 100$, $\text{O}_3 - 40$, $\text{CO} - 02$
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Q130
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A plant is visited by bats during the night and sunbirds during the day. Given this information, which of the following characters best match this plant ?
a.
The plant is a herb with saucer shaped white flowers
b.
The plant is a shrub with tubular, red, diurnal flowers
c.
The plant is a liana with tubular cream coloured flowers
d.
The plant is a grass with white coloured fragrant, spikelets
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Q131
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The Western honey bee (\textit{Apis mellifera}) collects nectar and pollen from flowers. The following are few hypotheses proposed to explain this behaviour in \textit{A. mellifera} :
A. In the past, those individuals that fed on nectar and pollen left more descendants than those who preferred only nectar or only pollen.
B. The sensory stimulus from taste receptors in the honey bees lead to a positive reinforecment to look for more of the same food.
C. The honey bee’s nervous system is pre-disposed to like the sweet taste.
D. The ancestor of honey bee was dependant on some sugar and protein rich diet and the honey bees have inherited the same taste perception.
Which of the following combination of uitimate hypotheses best explains the bee’s feeding behaviour ?
a.
A and B
b.
B and C
c.
A and D
d.
B and D
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Q132
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Column A lists names of evolutionary biologists and column B lists descriptions of evolutionary mechanisms proposed by them in random order.
\begin{tabular}{|l|l|l|l|}
\hline
& \textbf{Column A} & & \textbf{Column B} \\
\hline
A & Jean-Baptiste Lamarck & i & Variation at the molecular level is selectively neutral \\
\hline
B & Charles Darwin & ii & Inheritance of acquired characters \\
\hline
C & Motoo Kimura & iii & Differential reproduction of genotypes \\
\hline
D & Seawall Wright & iv & Changes in allele frequency due to random genetic drift \\
\hline
\end{tabular}
a.
A - i, B - ii, C - iv, D - iii
b.
A - ii, B - iii, C - i, D - iv
c.
A - iii, B - i, C - ii, D - iv
d.
A - ii, B - iii, C - iv, D - i
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Q133
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Following diagrams represent various ways in which a character may evolve :
Which of the following is the correct definition for the character evolution patterns shown above ?
a.
A – Autapomorphy, B – Synapomorphy, C – Homoplasy
b.
A – Autapomorphy, B – Homoplasy, C – Synapomorphy
c.
A – Synapomorphy, B – Autapomorphy, C – Homoplasy
d.
A – Synapomorphy, B – Homoplasy, C – Autapomorphy
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Q134
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In circadian rhythm studies, following may be possible generalizations for the effectiveness of light entrainment to the day/night cycle :
A. Shorter exposures have a greater effect than longer exposures.
B. Bright light exposures have a greater effect than dim light.
C. Intermittent light exposures have a greater effect than consistent exposures.
D. Dim light can affect entrainment relative to darkness.
Which combination of the above statements is correct ?
a.
B and C only
b.
B and D only
c.
A, C and D
d.
A, B and D
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Q135
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Which one of the following statements regarding 'Endosymbiotic hypothesis of origin of eukaryotes' is INCORRECT ?
a.
Mitochondria arose from an $\alpha$-proteobacterium and plastids arose from cyanobacteria.
b.
The event of engulfment of a photosynthetic cyanobacterium by a host cell was primitive to engulfment of an $\alpha$-proteobacterium during the eukaryotic origin.
c.
Protists chlorarachniophytes, likely evolved when a heterotrophic eukaryote engulfed a green alga, exemplifying secondary endosymbiosis.
d.
One of the membranes of the engulfed double-membraned cyanobacteria was lost is some of the hosts that eventually led to red and green algae descendants.
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Q136
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To understand the singing behaviour in song-birds, the following three characters were measured as shown in the graph :
A. Territoriality rate
B. Female fertility rate
C. Song rate
Which one of the following conclusions is most appropriate ?
a.
Male birds sing as a display of strength to rivals and to attract females
b.
Male birds sing to display parental care behaviour
c.
Male birds sing only to display that females are sexually receptive
d.
Male birds sing only to deter other male rivals from competing for territories
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Q137
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Several fusion constructs were developed to purify heterologous protein in *E. coli*. The table below lists fusion partners and ligands.
Which one of the following is the correct match of the fusion partner with the ligand ?
a.
i - b, ii - d, iii - c, iv - a, v - e
b.
i - d, ii - b, iii - e, iv - c, v - a
c.
i - d, ii - e, iii - c, iv - a, v - b
d.
i - c, ii - d, iii - a, iv - b, v - e
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Q138
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Given below are four statements regarding genetic transformation of plants in the laboratory :
A. Plants incapable of sexual reproduction cannot be transformed by *Agrobacterium tumefaciens*.
B. Integration of transgene in organellar (chloroplast) genome occurs primarily by homologous recombination.
C. An enhancer trap construct used in *Agrobacterium*-mediated transformation would contain a functional coding sequence of a reporter gene and a minimal promoter.
D. A $\text{T}_0$ transgenic plant containing two unlinked copies of a selection marker gene (*hpl*) and one copy of the passenger gene (*gfp*) would segregate in a 1:1 ratio for hygromycin resistance : sensitivity in the backcrossed progeny grown on selection media.
Which one of the combinations of above statements are correct ?
a.
A and D
b.
B and C
c.
A and C
d.
B and D
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Q139
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*Agrobacterium* mediated transformation was used to generate transgenic plants using a construct with a selection marker gene 'X' and a passenger gene 'Y'. Expression levels of 'Y' protein in eight independent transgenic plants are given below :
The following could represent probable reasons for the observed variability in transgene expression levels. A. Position effects on passenger gene.
B. Transgene silencing of the marker gene.
C. Variation in copy number of passenger gene.
D. mRNA instability of marker gene.
Which one of the following combinations of above statements is correct ?
a.
A and C
b.
C and D
c.
B and D
d.
A and B
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Q140
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In a breeding experiment, two homozygous parental lines (P1 and P2) were crossed to produce $\text{F}_1$ hybrids. Due to an experimental error, seeds of these hybrids got mixed up with the seeds of two two other germplasm lines (P3 and P4) and hybrid seeds derived from them. A marker - based fingerprinting exercise was per formed using six randomly selected seeds (F1-F6) from the mixed material and the four parental lines. Results of this analysis are shown below :
Based on the above data, which one of the following options represents the correct set of parents and their $\text{F}_1$ progeny?
a.
$\text{P1} \times \text{P2} = \text{F3}$
b.
$\text{P3} \times \text{P4} = \text{F2}$
c.
$\text{P1} \times \text{P2} = \text{F1}$
d.
$\text{P3} \times \text{P4} = \text{F6}$
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Q141
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The Nuclear magnetic Resonance (ID and 2D) spectrum of a $30-$residue peptide were recorded at $25^\circ\text{C}$. The following observations were made.
A. The $\text{NH}$ and $\text{C}^\alpha\text{H}$ resonances were well resolved.
B. The NOESY spectra showed extensive $\text{N}_i - \text{N}_{i+1}$ connectivities.
C. The $\text{NH}$ resonances showed slow exchange with deuterium
The spectra indicates that the peptide adopts.
a.
Helical conformations
b.
Anti-parallel $\beta-$strand conformations
c.
Polyproline conformation
d.
$\beta-$turn conformation with four amino acids participating in the turn. Rest of the amino acids are unstructured
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Q142
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Given below are a set of statistical method/ parameters (Column A) and their potential applications/ utility in biological research (column B), in a random manner.
Which of the following options is a correct match of entries in Column A and B ?
a.
A - ii, B - iv, C - i, D - iii
b.
A - iii, B - ii, C - iv, D - i
c.
A - iv, B - i, C - ii, D - iii
d.
A - i, B - iii, C - ii, D - iv
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Q143
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In a expriment designed to clone a PCR- amplified fragment in a cloning vector digested with Xho1 (C/TCGAG) and Sma1 (CCC/GGG), which one of the following combinations of restriction enzymes can be used in the PCR primer to generate compatible ends for cloning ?
('/' indicates the site of cleavage within the recongnition sequence)
a.
Xba1 (T/ CTAGA) and Spe1 (A/CTAGT)
b.
EcoR1 (G/AATTC) and Sma1 (CCC/GGG)
c.
Sa11 (G/TCGAC) and EcoRV (GAT /ATC)
d.
HindIII (A/AGCTT) and PvuII (CAG/CTG)
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Q144
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A researcher was working with three proteins, A, B and C which may have potential roles in gene expression. In order to validate the hypothesis, EMSA (electrophoretic mobility shift assay) was performed. The purified proteins were allowed to bind with a labelled DNA and the results obtained after autoradiography are shown below.
The following interpretations were made
i. Protein A possesses the DNA binding motif
ii. Protein B possesses the DNA binding motif
iii. Protein B binds to DNA–protein A complex
iv. Protein C binds to DNA only when protein A is bound.
Choose the correct combination of interpretations.
a.
i and iv
b.
i and iii
c.
ii and iii
d.
iii and iv
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Q145
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Point group symmetry operations such as inversion and mirror plane are not applicable to protein crystals. This is because.
a.
protein molecules assemble in highly ordered fashion
b.
protein molecules have handedness
c.
protein molecules form a lattice plane that do not diffract X–rays
d.
hydrogen atoms in proteins diffract weakly.
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