CSIR NET · Life Sciences
June
2016
·
125 questions
·
First 10 Solutions Free
Questions 1–10 have full step-by-step solutions visible.
Sign in to unlock all 125 →
Q21
mcq
The solubility of gases in water depends on their interaction with water molecules. Four gases i.e., carbon dioxide, oxygen, sulphur dioxide and ammonia are dissolved in water. In terms of their solubility which of the following statements is correct?
a.
Ammonia $>$ Oxygen $>$ Sulphur dioxide $>$ Carbon dioxide
b.
Oxygen $>$ Carbon dioxide $>$ Sulphur dioxide $>$ Ammonia
c.
Sulphur dioxide $>$ Oxygen $>$ Ammonia $>$ Carbon dioxide
d.
Ammonia $>$ Sulphur dioxide $>$ Carbon dioxide $>$ Oxygen
Correct Answer
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Ammonia ($\text{NH}_3$) is extremely soluble in water due to extensive hydrogen bonding and chemical reaction to form $\text{NH}_4^+$ and $\text{OH}^-$. Sulphur dioxide ($\text{SO}_2$) reacts readily with water to form sulfurous acid ($\text{H}_2\text{SO}_3$), giving it very high solubility. Carbon dioxide ($\text{CO}_2$) is moderately soluble as it physically dissolves and partially forms carbonic acid. Oxygen ($\text{O}_2$) is a non-polar gas with very low solubility in water, governed purely by weak van der Waals interactions. Therefore, the decreasing order of solubility is $\text{Ammonia} > \text{Sulphur dioxide} > \text{Carbon dioxide} > \text{Oxygen}$.
Q22
mcq
Penicillin acts as a suicide substrate. Which one of the following steps of catalysis does a suicide inhibitor affect?
a.
$k_1$
b.
$k_2$
c.
$k_3$
Correct Answer
d.
$k_4$
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
In standard enzyme kinetics involving covalent catalysis or suicide inhibition:
$$E + S \underset{k_{-1}}{\overset{k_1}{\rightleftharpoons}} ES \xrightarrow{k_2} E\text{-}I^* \xrightarrow{k_3} E + P$$
For a suicide inhibitor (mechanism-based irreversible inhibitor) like penicillin acting on transpeptidase, the inhibitor binds reversibly to form an initial complex ($k_1/k_{-1}$), is catalyzed to an acyl-enzyme intermediate ($k_2$), but the acyl-enzyme intermediate is extremely stable and essentially fails to deacylate (the turnover/product release step $k_3$ is extremely slow or zero). Thus, the step affected/blocked during the catalytic cycle is $k_3$.
Q23
mcq
Which of the following is NOT true for cholesterol metabolism ?
a.
HMG-CoA reductase is the key regulator of cholesterol biosynthesis.
b.
Biosynthesis takes place in the cytoplasm
c.
Reduction reactions use NADH as cofactor
Correct Answer
d.
Cholesterol is transported by LDL in plasma
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Biosynthesis of cholesterol relies on NADPH (not NADH) as the reducing agent/cofactor for the reductive steps, such as those catalyzed by HMG-CoA reductase and squalene synthase. The other statements are true: HMG-CoA reductase is the rate-limiting and key regulatory enzyme, early biosynthetic steps occur in the cytosol (with subsequent steps in the ER membrane), and cholesterol is transported systemically in the bloodstream primarily by low-density lipoproteins (LDL).
Q24
mcq
Predominant interactions between phospholipids that stabilize a biological membrane include
a.
hydrogen bonds and covalent interactions
b.
van der Waal and ionic interactions
c.
hydrophobic interactions and hydrogen bonding
Correct Answer
d.
covalent and hydrophobic interactions
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
The lipid bilayer of biological membranes is stabilized primarily by non-covalent forces: hydrophobic interactions (entropically driven sequestering of fatty acyl chains away from water) and van der Waals interactions between hydrocarbon tails in the interior, as well as hydrogen bonding and electrostatic interactions between polar head groups and water at the membrane surface. Biological membranes are not held together by covalent bonds.
Q25
mcq
Entry of enveloped viruses into its host cells is mediated by :
a.
Only endocytosis
b.
Both endocytosis and phagocytosis
c.
Both endocytosis and membrane fusion
Correct Answer
d.
Only pinocytosis
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Enveloped viruses enter host cells primarily through two major pathways: direct fusion of the viral envelope with the plasma membrane (e.g., HIV, paramyxoviruses) or receptor-mediated endocytosis followed by fusion of the viral envelope with the endosomal membrane (e.g., Influenza virus).
Q26
mcq
Lateral diffusion of proteins in membrane can be followed and diffusion rate calculated by
a.
Atomic force microscopy
b.
Scanning electron microscopy
c.
Transmission electron microscopy
d.
FRAP
Correct Answer
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Fluorescence Recovery After Photobleaching (FRAP) is the classic technique used to measure the two-dimensional lateral mobility and diffusion coefficient ($D$) of fluorescently labeled molecules, such as proteins and lipids, within biological membranes.
Q27
mcq
Histone deacytalase (HDAC) catalyses the removal of acetyl group from N-terminal of histones. Which amino acid of histone is involved in this process?
a.
Lysine
Correct Answer
b.
Arginine
c.
Asparagine
d.
Histidine
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Histone acetyltransferases (HATs) add acetyl groups to the $\varepsilon$-amino group of specific lysine residues on the amino-terminal tails of core histones, and histone deacetylases (HDACs) remove these acetyl groups, restoring a positive charge to lysine.
Q28
mcq
Labelling of membrane spanning domain of any integral membrane protein in a given plasma membrane vesicle (without disrupting its structure) is successfully carried out by
a.
immunochemical methods.
b.
metabolic labelling with radioisotopes.
c.
hydrophobic photoaffinity labelling.
Correct Answer
d.
limited proteolysis followed by metabolic labelling.
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Hydrophobic photoaffinity labeling uses membrane-permeant, hydrophobic photoactivatable probes (such as lipid-soluble reagents like trifluoromethyl-iodophenyldiazirine) that partition into the hydrophobic core of the bilayer and, upon photolysis with UV light, covalently tag only the transmembrane domains of integral membrane proteins without disrupting membrane integrity.
Q29
mcq
E.coli is being grown in a medium containing both glucose and lactose. On depletion of glucose, expression of $\beta$-galactoside will
a.
remain unchanged
b.
increase
Correct Answer
c.
decrease
d.
initially decrease and then increase
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
When *E. coli* is grown in a medium containing both glucose and lactose, it exhibits diauxic growth. Glucose is metabolized first because it causes catabolite repression (low intracellular levels of cAMP and inducer exclusion). Upon the depletion of glucose, cAMP levels rise, forming the active cAMP-CAP complex which binds to the promoter, and lactose (converted to allolactose) relieves LacI repression. This leads to the robust induction and increased expression of the *lac* operon enzymes, including $\beta$-galactosidase.
Q30
mcq
Error-free repair of double strand breaks in DNA is accomplished by
a.
non-homologous end-joining
b.
base excision repair
c.
homologous recombination
Correct Answer
d.
mismatch repair
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Homologous recombination (HR) is an error-free mechanism for repairing double-strand breaks (DSBs) because it utilizes an undamaged homologous DNA sequence (usually the sister chromatid in late S or G2 phase) as a template. In contrast, non-homologous end-joining (NHEJ) directly ligates broken ends and is inherently error-prone, often resulting in small insertions or deletions. Base excision repair and mismatch repair primarily deal with single-base damage or mismatches, not double-strand breaks.
🎉 10 Free Sample Solutions Completed
Unlock All 125 Questions & Solutions
Sign up free in seconds to unlock step-by-step AI answers for the remaining 115 questions.
Q31
mcq
The -COOH group of cellular amino acids can form which of the following bonds inside the cell?
a.
Ether and ester bonds
b.
Ester and amide bonds
c.
Amide and ether bonds
d.
Amide and carboxylic anhydride bonds
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q32
mcq
RNA interference is mediated by both siRNA and miRNA. Which one of the following statement about them is NOT true?
a.
Both siRNA and miRNA are processed by DICER.
b.
Both siRNA and miRNA usually guide silencing of the same genetic loci from which they originate.
c.
miRNA is a natural molecule while siRNA is either natural or a synthetic one.
d.
miRNA, but not siRNA is processed by Drosha.
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q33
mcq
Following are some of the characteristics of MHC class I and Class II molecules except one which is applicable only for MHC class I. Identify the appropriate statement.
a.
They are expressed constitutively an all nucleated cells.
b.
They are glycosylated polypeptides with domain structure.
c.
They are involved in presentation of antigen fragments to cells.
d.
They are expressed on surface membrane of B cells.
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q34
mcq
Which of the following bacteria has subcellular localization in lysosomes?
a.
Salmonella typhi.
b.
Streptococcus pneumoniae.
c.
Vibrio cholerae.
d.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q35
mcq
Which one of the following best defines an oncogene?
a.
An oncogene never codes for a cell cycle protein, which promotes cell proliferation.
b.
Oncogenes are always involved in inherited forms of cancer.
c.
An oncogene codes for a protein that prevents a cell from undergoing apoptosis.
d.
An oncogene is a dominantly expressed mutated gene that renders a cell advantageous towards survival.
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q36
mcq
Which one of the following statements about receptor-enzyme is FALSE?
a.
A receptor - enzyme has an extracellular ligand binding domain, a transmembrane domain and an intracellular catalytic (enzyme) domain.
b.
Many types of receptor enzymes are found in animals.
c.
The signal transduction pathways of receptor - enzyme involve phosphorylation cascades.
d.
Receptor - enzymes interact directly with intracellular G-proteins.
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q37
mcq
Bones of vertebrates embryonic are derived from
a.
ectoderm
b.
epiderm
c.
mesoderm
d.
endoderm
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q38
mcq
During development, if a cell has committed to a particular fate, it is said to be
a.
pluripotent
b.
totipotent
c.
determined
d.
differentiated
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q39
mcq
The initial dorsal-ventral axis in amphibian embryos is determined by
a.
the point of sperm entry.
b.
gravity.
c.
the point of contact with the uterus.
d.
genetic differences in the cells.
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q40
mcq
Sperm cell behaviour during double fertilization in Arabidopsis can be stated as follows. Identify the INCORRECT statement:
a.
Pollen tube bursts and discharges sperm cells.
b.
Sperm cells produce pollen tubes and enter into female gametophyte.
c.
The receptive antipodal cells break down when pollen tube enters the female gametophyte.
d.
One sperm nucleus fuses with the egg cell and the other fuses with the central cells.
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q41
mcq
Rhizobial gene that participate in legume nodule formation are called nodulation (nod) gens. The nod D-encoded protein
a.
Is an acetyl transferase that adds a fatty acyl chain to the Nod factor
b.
binding to the nod box and induces trancription of all nod genes.
c.
Catalyzes the linkage of N-acetyl glucosamine residues.
d.
Influences the host specificity of Rhizobium
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q42
mcq
Which one of the following plant hormones use the two-component histidine kinase receptor system for signal transduction?
a.
Auxin
b.
Gibberellin
c.
Cytokinin
d.
Abscisic acid
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q43
mcq
Which one of the following photoreceptors plays a role in day length perception and circadian rhythms?
a.
Zeitlupe family
b.
Cryptochromes
c.
Phototropins
d.
UV Resistance locus 8
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q44
mcq
Which one of the following is the correct order of electron transport during light reaction in the thylakoid membrane of chloroplast?
a.
P680 $\rightarrow$ Cytochrome $b_6f$ $\rightarrow$ PC $\rightarrow$ PQ
b.
P680 $\rightarrow$ PC $\rightarrow$ Cytochrome $b_6f$ $\rightarrow$ PQ
c.
P680 $\rightarrow$ PQ $\rightarrow$ PC $\rightarrow$ Cytochrome $b_6f$
d.
P680 $\rightarrow$ PQ $\rightarrow$ Cytochrome $b_6f$ $\rightarrow$ PC
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q45
mcq
Insulin increases facilitated diffusion of glucose in muscle cell by :-
a.
Phosphorylation of glucose transporters.
b.
transslocation of glucose transporter-containing endosomes into the cell membrane.
c.
inhibition of the synthesis of mRNA for glucose transporters.
d.
dephosphorylation of glucose transporters.
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q46
mcq
The transport of fructose into the enterocytes is mediated by :
a.
Sodium-dependent glucose transporter 1 (SGLT 1)
b.
Glucose transporter 5 (GLUT5)
c.
SGLT 2.
d.
GLUT 4.
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q47
mcq
The cell bodies of sympathetic perganglinic neurons are located in.
a.
Intermediolateral cell column of spinal cord
b.
Posterior cell column of spinal cord
c.
Celiac ganglion
d.
Paravertebral ganglion
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q48
mcq
The di- and tripeptides are tansported in the enterocytes by peptide transporter 1 that requires:-
a.
$Na^+$
b.
$Ca^{++}$
c.
$H^+$
d.
$Cl^-$
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q49
mcq
Which one of the following statements is INCORRECT ?
a.
Quantitative inheritance results in a range of measurable phenotypes for a polygenic trait.
b.
Polygenic trains often demonstrate continuous variation.
c.
Certain alleles of quantitative trait loci (QTL) have an additive effect on the character/trait.
d.
Alleles governing quantitative trains do not segregate and assort independently.
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q50
mcq
A mouse carrying two alleles of insulin-like growth factor II(IgF2) is normal in size: whereas a mouse that carries two mutant alleles lacking the growth factor is dwarf. The size of a heterozygous mouse carrying one normal and one mutant allele depends on the parental origin of the wild type allele. Such pattern of inheritance is known as
a.
Sex-linked inheritance
b.
Genomic imprinting
c.
Gene-environment interaction
d.
Cytoplasm inheritance
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q51
mcq
Which one of the following statements is INCORRECT ?
a.
Loss of genetic variation occurs within a small population due to genetic drift.
b.
The number of deleterious alleles present in the gene pool of a population is called the genetic load.
c.
Genetic erosion is a reduction in levels of homozygosity.
d.
Inbreeding depression results from increased homozygosity for deleterious alleles.
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q52
mcq
What is the genotype of a male \textit{Drosophila} fly that has yellow body colour and red eyes. Brown ($y^+$) is dominant over yellow ($y$) and red ($w^+$) is dominant over white ($w$). Both are carried on X chromosome.
a.
$\text{X}^{w+y}\text{Y}$
b.
$\text{X}^{wy}\text{Y}$
c.
$\text{X}^{wy+}\text{Y}$
d.
$\text{X}^{wy+}\text{X}^{wy+}\text{Y}$
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q53
mcq
Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the closer affinity of Archaea to Eukarya than to Bacteria ?
a.
Both Archaea and Eukarya lack peptideglycan in their cell walls.
b.
The initiator amino acid for protein synthesis is methionine in both Archaea and Eukarya.
c.
Histones associated with DNA are absent in both Archaea and Eukarya.
d.
In both Archaea and Eukarya the RNA polymerase is of several kinds.
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q54
mcq
Match the following larval forms with the phyla that they occur in
| | Larva | | Phylum |
|---|---|---|---|
| A | Amphiblastula | I | Mollusca |
| B | Nauplius | II | Echinodermata |
| C | Glochidium | III | Porifera |
| D | Bipinnaria | IV | Arthropoda |
| | | V | Annelida |
a.
A - (iii), B - (iv), C - (i), D - (ii)
b.
A - (iv), B - (iii), C - (i), D - (v)
c.
A - (ii), B - (v), C - (iv), D - (i)
d.
A - (v), B - (i), C - (ii), D - (iii)
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q55
mcq
Which of the following National parks has the highest density of tigers among protected areas in the world?
a.
Jim Corbett
b.
Kaziranga
c.
Keoladeo Ghana
d.
Manas
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q56
mcq
Which of the following is NOT a prediction arising out of Wilson-MacArthur's Theory of Island Biogeography?
a.
The number of species on an island should increase with its size/area.
b.
The number of species should decrease with increasing distance of the island from the source pool.
c.
The turnover of species should be common and frequent.
d.
Species richness on an island should be related to its average distance to the neighbouring islands.
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q57
mcq
During which of the following major mass extinction events, over 95% of the marine species disappeared from the planet Earth?
a.
Ordovician
b.
Devonian
c.
Permian
d.
Triassic
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q58
mcq
Which of the following global hotspots of biodiversity has the highest number of endemic plants and vertebrates?
a.
Sundaland
b.
Tropical Andes
c.
Brazil's Atlantic Forest
d.
Mesoamerican forests
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q59
mcq
For a population growing exponentially with a growth rate $r$, its population doubling time is
a.
$(N_0 \times 2)$
b.
$\ln 2/r$
c.
$\lambda \ln 2$
d.
$\ln r \times 2$
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q60
mcq
Fossils of the same species of fresh water reptiles have been found in South America and Africa. Based on the current understanding, which of the following is the best possible explanation for this pattern?
a.
The same species originated and evolved independently in these two places.
b.
Species migrated from Africa to establish new populations in South America.
c.
Species migrated from South America to establish new populations in Africa.
d.
South America and Africa were joined at some point in Earth's history.
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q61
mcq
In which ecosystem is the autotroph-fixed energy likely to reach the primary carnivore level in the shortest time?
a.
Temperate deciduous forest
b.
Grassland
c.
Ocean
d.
Tropical rain forest
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q62
mcq
The utilization or consumption efficiency of herbivoress is highest in
a.
plankton communities of ocean waters
b.
mature temperate forests
c.
managed grasslands
d.
managed rangelands
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q63
mcq
Which of the following is NOT an attribute of a species that makes it vulnerable to extinction?
a.
Specialized diet
b.
Low dispersal ability
c.
Low trophic status
d.
Variable population density
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q64
mcq
TILLING is a reverse genetics approach used in functional genomics. Which one of the following is used for TILLING?
a.
T-DNA tagging by \textit{Agrobacterium}-mediated transformation.
b.
Transposon tagging using Ac/Ds elements.
c.
Mutagenesis with ethylmethane sulphonate.
d.
Protoplast transformation by electroporation.
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q65
mcq
Which one of the following will be observed when auxin to cytokinin ratio is increased in the culature medium during organogenesis form tobacco pith cellus ?
a.
Adventitious roots will form
b.
Adventitions shoot will form
c.
There will be no root formation
d.
There will be no shoot formation
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q66
mcq
Which of the following is wild relative of wheat ?
a.
Triticum monococcum
b.
Triticum compactum
c.
Triticum vulgare
d.
Triticum boeoticum
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q67
mcq
A and B are two enantiomeric helical peptides. Their chirality can be determined by recording their
a.
circular dichroism spectrum
b.
UV spectrum
c.
fluorescence spectrum
d.
Edman sequencing
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q68
mcq
The use of Kruskal wallis test is most appropriate in which of these cases ?
a.
There are more than two groups and each group is normally distributed.
b.
There are more than two groups and the distribution in each group is not normal.
c.
There are two groups and each group is normally distributed.
d.
There are two groups and the distribution in each group is not normal.
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q69
mcq
Which one of the following can be analysed using Surface Plasmon Resonance method?
a.
Radiolabelled DNA probes
b.
Protein structure
c.
Optical density of a solution
d.
Label-free bimolecular interaction
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q70
mcq
Which one of the following statements is correct for amplified-fragment length polymorphism (AFLP)?
a.
PCR using a combination of random and gene-specific primers
b.
PCR amplification followed by digestion with restriction enzymes
c.
Digestion of DNA with restriction enzymes followed by one PCR step
d.
Digestion of DNA with restriction enzymes followed by two PCR steps
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q71
mcq
The standard free energy change ($Δ \text{G}_0$) per mole for the reaction $\text{A} \rightleftharpoons \text{B}$ at $30^\circ\text{C}$ in an open system is -1000 cal/mole. What is the approximate free energy change ($Δ \text{G}$) when the concentration of A and B are 100 micromolar and 100 millimolar, respectively?
a.
3160
b.
316
c.
31610
d.
- 3160
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q72
mcq
Indicate which one of the following statements about nucleic acids and protein structures is correct.
a.
Hydrogen bonding between the bases in the major and minor grooves of DNA is absent.
b.
Both uracil and thymine have a methyl group but at different positions.
c.
The backbone dihedral angle of $\alpha$-helices and $\beta$-sheets are very similar. Only the hydrogen bonding pattern is different.
d.
A $\beta$-turn is formed by four amino acids. The type of $\beta$-turn is determined by the dihedral angles of the second and third amino acid.
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q73
mcq
In a mitochondrial respiration experiment, a researcher observed the following profile of oxygen consumption upon addition of following compounds at times I, II and III.
(a) ADP + Pi
(b) Dinitrophenol, an uncoupler
(c) Oligomycin, an ATPase inhibitor
(d) Cyanide
(e) Succinate
Which of the following describes the profile appropriately?
a.
I - b; II - d; III - e
b.
I - a; II - d; III - c
c.
I - a; II - e; III - c
d.
I - a; II - c; III - b
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q74
mcq
A researcher has developed a program to evaluate the stability of a protein by substituting each amino acid at a time by the other 19 amino acids. For a protein, a researcher has observed the following changes in stability upon substitution of amino acids in loops, helices, sheets, protein core and on the protein surface.
Substitutions in
(a) loops are more tolerant
(b) sheets are more tolerant
(c) core is less tolerant
(d) helices are less tolerant
(e) surface is more tolerant Which of the above statements are correct?
a.
a and c
b.
c and d
c.
b and e
d.
a and b
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q75
mcq
Indicate the names of the following molecules
a.
A = isocitrate, B = $\alpha$-ketoglutarate, C = oxaloacetate, D = citrate
b.
A = citrate, B = isocitrate, C = $\alpha$-ketoglutarate, D = oxaloacetate
c.
A = isocitrate, B = citrate, C = $\alpha$-ketoglutarate, D = oxaloacetate
d.
A = citrate, B = isocitrate, C = oxaloacetate, D = $\alpha$-ketoglutarate
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q76
mcq
The turnover number and specific activity of an enzyme (molecular weight $40,000\text{ D}$) in a reaction ($V_{\max} = 4\ \mu\text{mol}$ of substrate reacted/min, enzyme amount $= 2\ \mu\text{g}$) are
a.
$80,000/\text{ min}$, $2 \times 10^3\ \mu\text{ mol substrate/min}$
b.
$80,000/\text{ min}$, $2 \times 10^3\ \mu\text{ mol substrate/second}$
c.
$40,000/\text{ min}$, $1 \times 10^3\ \mu\text{ mol substrate/min}$
d.
$40,000/\text{ min}$, $2 \times 10^3\ \mu\text{ mol substrate/min}$
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q77
mcq
Both sphingomyelin and phosphoglycerides are phospholipids. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct ?
a.
While one has a fatty acid tail attached via an ester bond, in another, the fatty acid tail is attached via an amide bond.
b.
The hydrophilicity of both is dependent on the phosphate group and other head groups attached to the phosphate group.
c.
Only one of them may contain a carbon-carbon double bond ($\text{C} = \text{C}$).
d.
Both may have choline as head group.
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q78
mcq
$\textit{E coli}$ was grown in three different experimental conditions. In one, it was grown in medium containing glucose as carbon source; in the second in medium containing both glucose and galactose; and in third was infected with phage. . Match the curves shown below to the treatment
a.
a is grown in glucose; b is grown in glucose and galactose; c is infected with phage
b.
a is grown in glucose and galactose; b in glucose; c is infected with phage.
c.
a is infected with phage; b is grown in glucose and galactose; c in glucose
d.
a is infected with phage; b is grown in glucose; c In glucose and galactose
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q79
mcq
Minisatellites are used as marker for identi-fying individuals via DNA fingerprinting as the alleles may differ in the number of repeats. From the Southern blot shown below identify the progeny (A, B, C and D) for the given parents (M = mother, F = Father).
a.
A, B, C and D
b.
A, B and D
c.
A and D only
d.
B, C and D
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q80
mcq
It is well established the "Band 3" protein of red blood cell membrane is solely responsible for $\text{Cl}^-$ transport across membrane. A lysine group in the $\text{Cl}^-$ binding site of "Band 3" is crucial for this event. Keeping this in mind what is the most appropriate way to load and retain a small anionic fluorescent probe (x) inside the red blood cells (RBCs) suspended in phosphate buffered saline (PBS), pH 7.4
a.
Incubate the RBCs with $x$ in phosphate buffered saline (PBS, pH 7.4) at 37°C for 30 min.
b.
Incubate the RBCs with $x$ in PBS at 4°C for 30 min.
c.
Incubate the RBCs with $x$ in Hepes sulfate buffer (pH 7.4) at 37°C for 30 min.
d.
Incubate the RBCs with $x$ in Hepes sulfate buffer (pH 7.4) at 37°C for 30 min followed by treatment with a $\text{NH}_2$ group modifying agent (covalent modification).
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q81
mcq
Influenza virus (IV), a well known enveloped animal virus, enters its host cells through membrane fusion process catalyzed by haemagluttinin (HA) protein inside endosomes at 37°C. HA is localized in the lipid bilayer membrane of the IV as an integral membrane protein and is responsible for binding and fusion of IV membrane with the endosomal membrane of host cells. Upon binding, IV is internalized into host cells through receptor mediated endocytosis followed by fusion of the IV membrane endosome membrane catalyzed by HA. In a situation, if we wish to fuse IV membrane with its host cells (deficient in endocytosis) at the plasma membrane, mention the correct condition out of the following.
a.
Pre-treat IV in pH 5.0 followed by its binding and fusion with host cells at pH 7.4 and 37°C.
b.
Allow the IV to bind and fuse with host cells at pH 7.4 and 37°C.
c.
IV and host cells are allowed to bind and fuse at pH 5.0 and 37°C.
d.
IV is subjected to incubation at 60°C for 30 minutes and allowed to bind and fuse with host cells at pH 5.0 and 37°C.
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q82
mcq
Glycophorin of red blood cell (RBC) membrane spans the membrane only once and the N-terminal is projected extracellularly and the C-terminal is exposed to the cytosolic side. With the help of antibodies (labelled with fluorophors) against N-terminal and C-terminal peptides, orientation of glycophorin across membrane can be verified. Which one of the following statements is correct?
a.
Intact RBC can be labelled with C-terminal antibody.
b.
Permeabilized RBC can be labelled with C-terminal antibodies as well as N-terminal antibodies.
c.
Intact RBC cannot be labelled with N-terminal antibodies.
d.
Inside out ghost of RBC can be labelled with N-terminal antibodies.
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q83
mcq
Each aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase is precisely able to match an amino acid with the tRNA containing the correct corresponding anticodon. Most organisms have 20 different tRNA synthetases, however some bacteria lack the synthetase for charging the tRNA for glutamine ($\text{tRNA}^{\text{Gln}}$) with its cognate amino acid. How do these bacteria manage to incorporate glutamine in their proteins?
Choose the correct answer.
a.
Glutamine is not present in the newly synthesized bacterial protein. Post translational modification converts glutamate to glutamine at the required sites.
b.
In these bacteria, the aminoacyl tRNA synthetase specific for tRNA glutamate ($\text{tRNA}^{\text{glu}}$) also charges $\text{tRNA}^{\text{gln}}$ with glutamine.
c.
In these bacteria, the aminoacyl tRNA synthetase specific for $\text{tRNA}^{\text{glu}}$ also $\text{tRNA}^{\text{gln}}$ with glutamate. A second enzyme then coverts the glutamate of the charged $\text{tRNA}^{\text{gln}}$ to glutamine.
d.
In these bacteria, the aminoacyl tRNA synthetase charges $\text{tRNA}^{\text{glu}}$ with either glutamate or glutamine according to their requirement during protein synthesis.
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q84
mcq
As topoisomerases play an important role during replication, a large number of anticancer drugs have been developed that inhibit the activity of these enzymes. Which of the following statements is NOT true about topoisomerases as a potential anticancer drug target?
a.
As cancer cells are rapidly growing cells, they usually contain higher level of topoisomerases.
b.
The transient DNA breaks created by topoisomerases are usually converted to permanent breaks in the genome in the presence of topoisomerase targeted drugs.
c.
As cancer cells often have impaired DNA repair pathways they are more susceptible towards topoisomerase targeted drugs.
d.
The drugs which specifically target topoisomerases, usually do not affect normal fast growing cells.
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q85
mcq
Transposons can be primarily categorized into two types, DNA transposons and retrotrans-posons. Given below is some information regarding the above.
A. Eukaryotic DNA transposons excise themselves from one place in the genome and integrate into another site.
B. Retrotransposons are RNA sequences that are first reverse transcribed into cDNA and then integrate into the genome.
C. Retrotransposons move by a copy and paste mechanism through an RNA intermediate.
D. As DNA transposons move via a cut and paste mechanism, there can never be an increase in the copy number of a transposon.
Which of the statement(s) is/are true?
a.
A and C
b.
B and D
c.
B only
d.
D only
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q86
mcq
Some errors occur during DNA replication that are not corrected by proof reading activity of DNA polymerase. These are corrected by specialized repair pathways. Defect in the activities of some of the following enzymes impair this process.
A. DNA polymerase III and DNA ligase.
B. AP endonuclease and DNA glycosidase.
C. Mut S and Mut L.
D. Rce A and Rec F.
Defect in which of the above enzymes impair the process?
a.
A, B and C
b.
D and B
c.
A and D
d.
A and C
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q87
mcq
An eukaryotic cell undergoing mRNA synthesis and processing was incubated with $^{32}\text{P}$ labelled ATP, with the label at the $\beta$-position. Where do you think the radioactive isotope will appear in the mature mRNA?
a.
$^{32}\text{P}$ will not appear in the mature mRNA under any circumstances because $\beta$ and $\gamma$ phosphates are released during transcription.
b.
Phosphate groups of the phosphodiester backbone of the mRNA will be uniformly labelled as only $\alpha$ phosphates are released during transcription.
c.
$^{32}\text{P}$ will appear at the $5'$ end of the mRNA if only it has "A" as the first nucleotide.
d.
No $^{32}\text{P}$ will appear in the mature mRNA because the $5'$-terminal phosphate of an "A" residue will be further removed during the capping process.
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q88
mcq
One of the cellular events that TOR, a kinase, positively regulates is the rate of rRNA synthesis. TOR regulates the association of a transcription factor to a Pol I subunit. When TOR is inhibited by the drug rapamycin, the transcription factor dissociates from Pol I. A yeast strain is engineered, which expresses a fusion of the transcription factor and the Pol I subunit. The level of rRNA synthesis is monitored in these cells using pulse labelling following rapamycin addition for the times indicated below. The transcript profile of rRNA observed for the wild type cells is given below :
Identify the pattern expected in the engineered strain.
a.
(a)
b.
(b)
c.
(c)
d.
(d)
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q89
mcq
Immunoglobulins have therapeutic applications in cancer treatment, infection clearance and targeted drug delivery. For this reason, immunoglobulins are briefly cleaved by the enzyme pepsin. Following are some of the statements regarding the brief digestion of immunoglobulin by pepsin.
(i) $\text{F(ab)}_2$ fragment is generated which retains the antigen binding activity.
(ii) $\text{F(ab)}$ fragment having antigen binding activity and the crystallisable Fc fragment are generated.
(iii) The fragment generated on incubation with a proper antigen forms a visible precipitate.
(iv) The fragment generated is incapable of forming a visible precipitate on incubation with a proper antigen.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a.
(i) and (ii)
b.
(i) and (iii)
c.
(i) and (iv)
d.
(ii) and (iii)
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q90
mcq
In an experiment peritoneal macrophages were isolated from strain A of guinea pig. These cells were then incubated with an antigen. After the antigen pulsed macrophages processed the antigen and presented it on their surface, these were mixed with T cells from (i) strain A or (ii) strain B (a different strain of guinea pig) or (iii) F1 progeny of strain $\text{A} \times \text{B}$. T cell proliferation was measured in response to antigen pulsed macrophages. T cells of which strain of guinea pig will be activated ?
a.
Strain A only
b.
Strain B only
c.
Strain A and F1 progeny
d.
Strain B and F1 progeny
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q91
mcq
Cadherins mediate $\text{Ca}^{2+}$-dependent cell-cell adhesion and play an important role in embryonic development by changing the adhesive properties of cell. Aggregation of nerve cells to form an epithelium is correlated with the appearance of N-cadherins on cell surface and vice versa. N-CAM (neural cell adhesion molecules) belongs to Ig-SF (immunoglobulin super family) and involved in fine tuning of adhesive interactions. In order to see the effect of mutations of N-cadherin and N-CAM, two sets of mice were generated. Set A-mice with mutation in N-cadherin and set B-mice with mutation in N-CAM. Which of the following results is most likely to occur ?
a.
Mice of both set A and set B will die in early development.
b.
Mice of set A will die in early development but mice of set B will develop normally and show mild abnormalities in the development of nervous system.
c.
Mice of Set A will show mild abnormalities in the development of nervous system whereas mice of set B will die early in development.
d.
Mice of both set A and set B develop normally as other cell adhesion molecules will compensate for the mutations.
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q92
mcq
A virus infects a particular cell type, integrates its genome into a site that contains a proto-oncogene, transforms the cell and increases the level of a protein 'X', which increases cellular proliferation. A compound 'P' is known to increase the level of tumor suppressor proteins in that cell type whereas a compound 'Q' helps in stimulating a protein 'Z' that can bind to 'X' rendering it inactive. Which one of the following graphs correctly represents the mode of action of 'P' and 'Q' ?
a.
(a)
b.
(b)
c.
(c)
d.
(d)
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q93
mcq
Which one of the following combination is the correct pairing of ligands with their receptors ?
\begin{tabular}{|l|l|l|l|}
\hline
(i) & FGF & (a) & Patched \\
\hline
(ii) & Hedgehog & (b) & Frizzled \\
\hline
(iii) & Wnt & (c) & Receptor tyrosine kinase \\
\hline
\end{tabular}
a.
i - c, ii - a, iii - b
b.
i - a, ii - c, iii - b
c.
i - b, ii - c, iii - a
d.
i - c, ii - b, iii - a
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q94
mcq
Cancer is often believed to arise from stem cells rather than fully differentiated cells. Following are certain views related to the above statements. Which one of the following is NOT correct ?
a.
Stem cells do not divide and therefore require fewer changes to become a cancer cell.
b.
Cancer stem cells can self-renew as well as generate the non-stem cell populations of the tumor.
c.
Teratocarcinomas prove tumors arise from stem cells without further mutations.
d.
Stemness genes can often function as oncogenes.
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q95
mcq
Given are certain facts which define 'determination' of a developing embryo.
A. Cells have made a commitment to a differentiation program.
B. A phase where specific biochemical actions occur in embryonic cells.
C. The cell cannot respond to differentiation signals.
D. A phase where inductive signals trigger cell differentiation.
Which of the above statements best define determination?
a.
B and D
b.
A and C
c.
Only A
d.
Only B
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q96
mcq
What would happen as a result of a transplantation experiment in a chick embryo where the leg mesenchyme is placed directly beneath the wing apical ectodermal ridge (AER)?
a.
Distal hind limb structures develop at the end of the limb.
b.
A complete hindlimb will form in the region where the forelimb should be.
c.
The forelimb would form normally.
d.
Neither a forelimb nor a hindlimb would form since the cells are already determined.
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q97
mcq
If you remove a set of cells from an early embryo, you observe that the adult organism lacks the structure that would have been produced from those cells. Therefore, the organism seems to have undergone
a.
autonomous specification.
b.
conditional specification.
c.
morphogenic specification
d.
syncytial specification.
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q98
mcq
Dose-dependence of retinoic acid treatment supports the notion that a gradient of retinoic acid can act as a morphogen along the proximo-distal axis in a developing limb. Following are certain facts related to the above notion.
A. Treatment with high level of retinoic acid causes a proximal blastema to be re-specified as a distal blastema and only distal structures are regenerated.
B. Treatment with high level of retinoic acid causes a distal blastema to be re-specified as a proximal blastema and regeneration of a full limb may be initiated.
C. Treatment with retinoic acid affects only distal blastemas and causes them to form only proximal structures.
D. Treatment with high level of retinoic acid causes any blastema to form only distal structures.
Which one of the following is correct?
a.
B and D
b.
Only C
c.
A and C
d.
Only B
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q99
mcq
Match the two columns following asexual reproduction of plants and apomixes:
\begin{tabular}{|l|l|l|l|}
\hline
A. & Agamospermy & (i) & No seed formation \\
\hline
B. & Clonal propagation & (ii) & Seed formation \\
\hline
C. & Embryo sac formed from nucellus or integument of the ovule & (iii) & Diplospory \\
\hline
D. & Gametophyte develops without fertilization from unreduced megaspore & (iv) & Apospory \\
\hline
\end{tabular}
a.
A - (i); B - (ii); C - (iii); D - (iv)
b.
A - (ii); B - (iii); C - (iv); D - (i)
c.
A - (ii); B - (i); C - (iii); D - (iv)
d.
A - (ii); B - (i); C - (iv); D- (iii)
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q100
mcq
According to the ABC model of floral development in \textit{Arabidopsis} as shown below
Several genes/transcription factors e.g. AP 1, AP2, AP3, AG etc., are involved. Which one of the following statements is correct?
a.
Apetala 2 (AP2) transcripts expressed during sepal and petal development.
b.
Agamous AG is considered as class A gene.
c.
AP1 expressed during carpel development.
d.
AP3 expressed during sepal development.
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q101
mcq
Following are certain statements that describe plant-pathogen interactions :
A. Hemibiotrophic pathogens are characterized by initially keeping host cells alive followed by extensive tissue damage during the later part of the infection.
B. Effectors are molecules present in host plants that act against the pathogen attack.
C. Plants possess pattern recognition receptors (PRRs) that perceive microbe-associated molecular patterns (MAMPs) present in specific class of microorganisms but are absent in the hosts.
D. Phytoalexin production is a common mechanism of resistance to pathogenic microbes in a wide range of plants.
Which one of the following combinations is correct?
a.
A, B and C
b.
A, C and D
c.
B, C and D
d.
A, B and D
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q102
mcq
Constitutive photomorphogenesis (COP1) protein, an E3 ubiquitin ligase, regulates the turnover of proteins required for photomorphogenic development. Following are certain independent statements related to the function of COP1 protein.
A. In light, COP1 along with SPA1 adds ubiquitin tags to a subset of nuclear proteins.
B. The proteins ubiquinated by COP1 and SPA1 are targeted for degradation by the 26S proteasome.
C. In dark COP1 is slowly exported to the cytosol from nucleus.
D. The absence of COP1 in the nucleus permits the accumulation of transcriptional activators necessary for photomorphogenic development.
Which one of the following combinations is correct ?
a.
A and C
b.
A and D
c.
B and C
d.
B and D
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q103
mcq
The following statements are made to describe auxin signal transduction pathway, from receptor binding to the physiological response :
A. Auxin response factors (ARFs) are nuclear proteins that bind to auxin response elements (Aux REs) to activate or repress gene transcription.
B. AUX/IAA proteins are secondary regulators of auxin-induced gene expression. Binding of AUX/IAA proteins to the ARF protein blocks its transcription regulation.
C. Auxin binding to TIR1/AFB promotes ubiquitin-mediated degradation and removal of AUX/IAA proteins.
D. Auxin binding to auxin response factors (ARFs) causes their destruction by the 26S proteasome pathway.
Which one of the following combination of above statements is correct?
a.
A, B and C
b.
A, C and D
c.
B, C and D
d.
A, B and D
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q104
mcq
Light reactions of photosynthesis are carried out by four major protein complexes : Photosystem I (PSI), photosystem II (PSII), the cytochrome $\text{b}_6\text{f}$ complex and ATP synthase. The following are certain statements on PSI :
A. PSI reaction centre and PSII reaction centre are uniformly distributed in the granule lamellae and stromal lamellae.
B. The electron donor for the P700 of PSI is plastocyanin and electron acceptor of $\text{P700}^*$ is a chlorophyll known as $\text{A}_0$.
C. The core antenna and P700 are bound to two key proteins PsaA and PsaB.
D. Cyclic electron flow occurs from the reducing side of PSI via plastohydroquinone and $\text{b}_6\text{f}$ complex. This supports ATP synthesis but does not reduce $\text{NADP}^+$.
Which one of the following compunctions of the above statements is correct ?
a.
A, B and C
b.
A, C and D
c.
A, B and D
d.
B, C and D
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q105
mcq
Ribulose bisphosphate carboxylase (Rubisco) catalyzes both carboxylation and oxygenation of ribulose-1, 5-bisphosphate. The latter reaction initiates a physiological process known as 'photorespiration'. The following are certain statements on photorespiration :
A. The active sites on Rubisco for carboxylation and oxygenation are different.
B. One of the steps in photorespiration is conversion of glycine to serine.
C. $50\%$ of carbon lost in chloroplast due to oxygenation is recovered through photorespiration.
D. The pathway of photorespiration involves chloroplast, peroxisome and mitochondria.
Which one of the following combinations of above statements is correct?
a.
A and C
b.
A and D
c.
B and D
d.
C and D
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q106
mcq
Several transport steps are involved in the movement of photosynthate from the chloroplasts. Following are certain statements regarding the transport of photosynthate :
A. Pentose phosphate formed by photosynthesis during the day is transported from the chloroplast to the cytosol, where it is converted to sucrose. B. Carbon stored as starch exits the chloroplast at night primarily in the form of maltose and is converted to sucrose in cytosol.
C. During short distance transport, sucrose moves from producing cells in the mesophyll to cells in the vicinity of the sieve elements in the smallest veins of the leaf.
D. In the process of phloem loading, sugars are transported into phloem parenchyma cells.
Which one following combinations of above statements is correct ?
a.
A and B
b.
B and C
c.
C and D
d.
A and D
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q107
mcq
A majority of humans with normal colour vision was found to be more sensitive to red light in rayleigh match where the subject mixed variable amount of red and green light to match monochromatic orange. Which one of the following statements is NOT true to explain the observation ?
a.
There are variations ibn the sensitivity of long-wave cone pigments.
b.
The short- wave cone opsin in red sensitive subjects is different form others.
c.
The absorption curve of long-wave cone pigment peaks at $556\text{ nm}$ in red-sensitive subjects while it peaks at $552\text{ nm}$ in other
d.
The long-wave cone opsin in red sensitive subjects is different in primary structure from that of others.
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q108
mcq
The membrane potential in a gaint squid axon recorded intracellularly at the resting condition ($-70\text{ mV}$) was reversed at the peak of action potential ($+35\text{ mV}$) after stimulation of the nerve fibre with a threshould electrical stimulus. This overshoot of the membrane potential has been explained in the following proposed statements:
a.
The rapid increase in $\text{Na}^+$- conductance during early phase of action potential causes memberane potential to move toward the equilibrium potential of $\text{Na}^+$ ($+45\text{ mV}$).
b.
The $\text{Na}^+$-conductance quickly decreases toward resting level after peak in the early phase and $\text{Na}^+$-ions are not able to attain its equilibrium potential within this short time.
c.
The condunctance of $\text{K}^+$ at the early phase of action potential is increased and that leads to the reversal of memebrane potential.
d.
The increases of $\text{K}^+$-conductacnce due to stimulation of nerve occurs before the changes of $\text{Na}^+$-conductance is initiated and thus causes overshoot at the peak of action potential.
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q109
mcq
A person showed the symptoms of diarrhea, gas and pain whenever milk was consumed. The doctor advised the person to take curd instead of milk and subsequently the symptoms mostly disappeared due to this change of dairy product. The following statements are proposed to explain this observation.
(a) The person has deficiency in the intestinal sucrase-maltase
(b) Curd is not deficient in sucrose and maltose
(c) The person has deficiency in the intestinal lactase
(d) The bacteria in curd contain lactase
Which one of the following is true?
a.
A only
b.
A nad B
c.
C Only
d.
C and D
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q110
mcq
A diabetic patient has a high blood glucose level due to reduced enetry of glucose into various peripheral tissues in addition to other causes. There is no problem of glucose absoption, however, in the small intestine of these patientis. The following statemtnts are put forward to explain this observation.
(a) Glucose is transport into the cells of muscles by glucose transporters (GLUTs) which are influenced by insulin receptor activation.
(b) Glucose transport into the enterocytes is mediated by sodium-dependent glucose transports (SGLTs) which are not dependent on insulin.
(c) Glucose molecules are transported in the small intestine by facilitated diffusion.
(d) The secondary active transport of glucose occurs in muscles.
Which one of the above statement (s) is INCORRECT ?
a.
Only A
b.
A and B
c.
Only C
d.
C and D
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q111
mcq
Action potentials were recorded intracellularly from different parts of mammalian heart and these are shown below. Which one of these has been recorded from sinoatrial node ?
a.
1
b.
2
c.
3
d.
4
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q112
mcq
Which one of the following options correctly related the source gland/organ with its respective hormone as well as function?
a.
1
b.
2
c.
3
d.
4
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q113
mcq
Poplar is a dioecious plant. A wild plant with 3 genes $\text{AABBCC}$ was crossed with a triple recessive mutant $\text{aabbcc}$. The F1 male hybrid (AbBbCc) was then back crossed with the triple mutant and the phenotypes recorded are as follows :
$$\begin{array}{ll}
\text{AbBbCc} & 300 \\
\text{aaBbCc} & 100 \\
\text{aaBbcc} & 16 \\
\text{AabbCc} & 14 \\
\text{AbBbcc} & 65 \\
\text{aabbCc} & 75 \\
\text{aabbcc} & 310 \\
\text{Aabbcc} & 120
\end{array}$$
The distance in map unit (mu) between A to B and B to C is
a.
25 and 17 mu, respectively
b.
33 and 14 mu, respectively
c.
25 and 14 mu, respectively
d.
33 and 17 mu, respectively
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q114
mcq
Fruit colour of wild \textit{Solanum nigrum} is controlled by two alleles of a gene (A and a). The frequency of A, $p = 0.8$ and a, $q = 0.2$. In a neighbouring field a tetraploid genotype of \textit{S. nigrum} was found. After critical examination five distinct genotypes were found; which are AAAA, AAAa, AAaa, Aaaa and aaaa. Following Hard Weinberg principle and assuming the same allele frequency as that of diploid population, the numbers of phenotypes calculated within a population of 1000 plants are close to one of the following:
AAAA : AAAa : AAaa : Aaaa : aaaa
a.
409 : 409 : 154 : 26 : 2
b.
420 : 420 : 140 : 18 : 2
c.
409 : 409 : 144 : 36 : 2
d.
409 : 420 : 144 : 25 : 2
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q115
mcq
A three point test cross was carried out in Drosophila melanogaster involving three adjacent genes X, Y and Z, arranged in the same order. The distance between X to Y is 32.5 map unit (mu) and that between X to Y is 20.5 map. The coefficient of coincidence = 0.886. What is the percentage of double recombinants in the progeny obtained from the testcross?
a.
~6%
b.
~8%
c.
~12%
d.
~16%
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q116
mcq
Two interacting genes (independently assorting) were involved in the same pathway. Absence of either genes function leads to absence of the end product of the pathway. A dihybrid cross involving the two genes is carried out. What fraction of the $F_2$ progeny will show the presence of the end product?
a.
1/4
b.
3/4
c.
9/16
d.
15/16
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q117
mcq
A male mouse cell line has a large translocation from X chromosome into chromosome 1. When a GFP containing transgene is inserted in this chromosome 1 with translocation, it is often silenced. However when inserted in the other homologue of chromosome 1 that does not contain the translocation, it is almost always expressed. Which of the following phenomenon best describes this effect?
a.
Genome imprinting
b.
Gene balance
c.
Sex-specific expression
d.
Dosage compensation
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q118
mcq
Five bacterial markers were followed for a co-transduction experiment. The following table documents the observations of this experiment. '+' denotes co-transduction and '-' denotes lack thereof; 'ND' stands for not determined.
Pick the correct order in which the genes are arranged on the bacterial chromosome
a.
$str$ - $gal$ - $lue$ - $arg$ - $met$
b.
$leu$ - $met$ - $arg$ - $str$ - $gal$
c.
$leu$ - $str$ - $met$ - $gal$ - $arg$
d.
$arg$ - $gal$ - $str$ - $leu$ - $met$
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q119
mcq
Based on the table given below, which of the following option represents the correct match?
a.
A - (i), B - (iv), C - (iii), D - (ii)
b.
A - (ii), B - (iii), C - (iv), D - (i)
c.
A - (i), B - (iv), C - (ii), D - (iii)
d.
A - (ii), B - (iv), C - (iii), D - (i)
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q120
mcq
Which reference to the phylogenetic tree presented above, which of the following statements is true?
a.
Amphibians, reptiles, birds and mammals share a common ancestor.
b.
Birds are more closely related to reptiles than to mammals.
c.
Cartilaginous fishes are the ancestors of amphibians.
d.
Lampreys and mammals are not related.
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q121
mcq
For the following invertebrate structures/organs, identify their major function and the animal group in which they are found :
Nematocyst (A), Protonephridai (B), Malpighian Tubules (C) Radula (D)
a.
A - Porifera, Skeletal Support; B - Mollusca, excretion C - Insecta, respiration; D - Anthozoa, prey capture
b.
A - Anthozoa, prey caputure; B - Planaria, excretion C - Mollusca, excretion; D - Insecta, folld processing
c.
A - Planaria, excretion, B - Mollusca, respiration, C - Insecta, respiration, D - Porifera, prey caputre
d.
A - Anthozoa, prey caputre; B - Planaria, excretion; C - Insecta, excretion; D - Mollusca, food processing
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q122
mcq
Match major events in the history of life with Earth's geological period.
\begin{tabular}{|l|l|l|l|}
\hline
& \textbf{Event} & & \textbf{Geological Period} \\ \hline
A & First reptiles & I & Quarternary \\ \hline
B & First mammals & II & Tertiary \\ \hline
C & First humans & III & Cretaceous \\ \hline
D & First amphibian & IV & Triassic \\ \hline
& & V & Carboniferous \\ \hline
& & VI & Devonian \\ \hline
\end{tabular}
a.
A - (v), B - (i), C - (ii), D - (v)
b.
A - (v), B - (iv), C - (i), D - (vi)
c.
A - (vi), B - (iv), C - (ii), D - (vi)
d.
A - (iii), B - (i), C - (vi), D - (v)
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q123
mcq
Following is a cladogram showing phylogenetic relationships among a group of plants:
In the above representation, A, B, C and D respectively represent
a.
xylem and phloem, embryo, flower, seed.
b.
embryo, xylem and phloem, seed, flowers.
c.
embryo, xylem and phloem, flower, seed.
d.
xylem and phloem, flower, embryo, seed.
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q124
mcq
Match the following human diseases with their causal organisms.
\begin{tabular}{|l|l|l|l|}
\hline
A & Sleeping Sickness & I & \textit{Trypanosoma cruzi} \\ \hline
B & Chagas disease & II & \textit{Trypanosoma brucei} \\ \hline
C & Elephantiasis & III & \textit{Borrelia burgdorfei} \\ \hline
D & Lyme disease & IV & \textit{Wuchereria bancrofti} \\ \hline
\end{tabular}
a.
A - (ii), B - (iv), C - (iii), D - (i)
b.
A - (i), B - (ii), C - (iv), D - (iii)
c.
A - (ii), B - (i), C - (iv), D - (iii)
d.
A - (ii), B - (iv), C - (i), D - (iii)
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q125
mcq
If gypsy moth egg density is 160 at time $t$ and 200 at $t + 1$, what will be its value at time $t + 3$, assuming that egg density continues to increase at constant rate ?
a.
250
b.
280
c.
312
d.
390
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q126
mcq
The approximate P:B (Net Primary Production: Biomass) ratios in four different ecosystems (A, B, C, D) are A - 0.29; B - 0.042, C - 16.48; D - 8.2 The four ecosystems are
a.
A - Ocean; B - Lake; C - Grassland; D - Tropical forest
b.
A - Grassland; B - Tropical forest; C - Oceans; D - Lake
c.
A - Tropical forest; B - Ocean; C - Grassland; D - Lake
d.
A - Grassland; B - Ocean; C - Lake; D - Tropical forest
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q127
mcq
The following table shows the mean and variance of population densities of species A, B and C.
\begin{tabular}{|c|c|c|c|}
\hline
Statistic & Species A & Species B & Species C \\
\hline
Mean $\bar{x}$ & 5.30 & 7.05 & 5.30 \\
\hline
Variance $s^2$ & 5.05 & 0.35 & 50.5 \\
\hline
\end{tabular}
Based on the above, which of the following statements is correct?
a.
Species A and B show uniform distribution, whereas species C shows clumped distribution.
b.
Species A shows random distribution, species B shows uniform distribution, and species C shows clumped distribution.
c.
Species A and B show clumped distribution, whereas species C shows uniform distribution.
d.
Species A shows clumped distribution, species b shows random distributions, and species C shows uniform distribution.
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q128
mcq
Match the following associations involved in dinitrogen fixation with their representative genera
\begin{tabular}{|l|l|l|l|}
\hline
\multicolumn{2}{|c|}{\textbf{Associations}} & \multicolumn{2}{c|}{\textbf{Genera}} \\
\hline
A & Heterotrophic nodulate & I & Azotobacter \\
\hline
B & Heterotrophic Non-nodulate & II & Frankia \\
\hline
C & Phototrophic associative & III & Nostoc \\
\hline
D & Phototrophic free-living & IV & Rhodospirillum \\
\hline
\end{tabular}
a.
A - (ii), B - (i), C - (iv), D - (iii)
b.
A - (iii), B - (i), C - (ii), D - (iv)
c.
A - (i), B - (ii), C - (iii), D - (iv)
d.
A - (ii), B - (i), C - (iii), D - (iv)
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q129
mcq
In a lake subjected to progressive eutrophication, temporal changes in the magnitude of selected parameters (A, B, C, D) are shown in the graph
The parameters A, B, C, D are
a.
A-Green algal biomass, B-Cyanobacterial biomass, C-Dissolved Oxygen concentration, D-Biological Oxygen Demand
b.
A-Biological Oxygen Demand, B-Cyanobacterial biomass, C-Dissolved Oxygen concentration, D-Green algal biomass
c.
A-Biological Oxygen demand, B-Green algal biomass, C-Cyanobacterial biomass, D-Dissolved Oxygen concentration
d.
A-Cyanobacterial biomass, B-Biological Oxygen Demand, C-Green algal biomass, D-Xissolved Oxygen concentration
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q130
mcq
The birth rates (b) and death rates (d) of two species 1 and 2 in relation to population density (N) are shown in the graph. Which of the following is NOT true about the density dependent effects on birth rates and death rates ?
a.
Birth rates are density-dependent in species 1 and density-independent in species 2.
b.
Death rates are density-dependent in both the species.
c.
Density-dependent effect on birth rate is stronger in species 1 than in species 2.
d.
The density-dependent effects on death rates are similar in both the species.
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q131
mcq
For the species A and B in competition, the carrying capacities and competition co-efficients are
$K_A = 15$, $K_B = 200$
$\alpha = 1.0$, $\beta = 1.3$
According to the Lotka-Volterra model of interspecific competition, the outcome of competition will be
a.
Species A wins
b.
Species B wins
c.
Both species reach a stable equilibrium
d.
Both species reach an stable equilibrium
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q132
mcq
Consider an autosomal locus with two alleles $\text{A}_1$ and $\text{A}_2$ at frequencies of $0.6$ and $0.4$ respectively. Each generation, $\text{A}_1$ mutates to $\text{A}_2$ at a rate of $\mu = 1 \times 10^{-5}$ while $\text{A}_2$ mutates to $\text{A}_1$ at a rate of $= 2 \times 10^{-5}$. Assume that the population is infinitely large and no other evolutionary force is acting. The equilibrium frequency of allele A1 is
a.
1.0
b.
0.5
c.
0.67
d.
0.33
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q133
mcq
With reference to the graph given below, identify the optimal territory size.
a.
A
b.
B
c.
C
d.
D
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q134
mcq
A particular behavioural variant affects fitness of an organism. The relationship between the frequency of the variant in the population and fitness are plotted below. In which of these cases is the behavioural variant most likely to reach a frequency of 1?
a.
Only B
b.
Only C
c.
B and D
d.
A and B
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q135
mcq
The coefficient of relatedness between individuals A and B, A and D, and between D and C is
a.
0.5, 0.25, 0.125 respectively.
b.
0.5, 0.5, 0.25 respectively.
c.
0.5, 0.25, 0.75 respectively.
d.
0.125, 0.5, 0.5 respectively.
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q136
mcq
One hundred independent populations of \textit{Drosophila} are established with 10 individuals in each population, of which, one individual is of $Aa$ genotype and the other nine are of $AA$ genotype. If random genetic drift is the only mechanism acting on these populations, then, after a large number of populations fixed for the “$a$” allele is
a.
75
b.
50
c.
25
d.
5
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q137
mcq
Performance of biosencsor is evaluated by their response to the presence of an analyte. The physiological relevant concentration of analyte is between $10\,\mu\text{M}$ and $50\,\mu\text{M}$. Which among the following biosensor ropiness is best?
a.
(a)
b.
(b)
c.
(c)
d.
(d)
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q138
mcq
Molecular polymorphic markers are already known with respect to tobacco mosaic virus (TMV) resistance in tobacco. Among these, which marker system you will select that will be simple, economic and less time consuming:
a.
RAPD
b.
RFLP
c.
AFLP
d.
EST-SSR
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q139
mcq
In an effort to produce gene knockout mice, a gene targeted homologous recombination was tried with the exogenous DNA containing $neo^r$ gene (confer G-418 resistance) and $tk^{Hsv}$ gene (confers sensitivity to the cytotoxic nucleotide analog ganciclovir). If the $neo^r$ gene was inserted within the target gene in the exogenous DNA and considering that both homologues and non-homologus recombination (random integration) is taking place, which one of the following statements is NOT correct about the possible outcome of the experiment?
a.
Cells with non-homologous insertion will be sensitive to ganciclovir
b.
Non-recombinant cells will be sensitive towards G-418 and resistant to ganciclovir
c.
Homologous recombination will ensure that cells will be resistant to both ganciclovir and G-418
d.
Homologous recombinants will grow in G-418 containing media but will be sensitive towards ganciclovir
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q140
mcq
In a typical gene cloning experiment, by mistake a researcher introduced the DNA of interest within ampicillin resistant gene instead of \textit{lac z} gene. The competent cells were allowed ot take up the plasmid and then plated in the media containing ampicillin, X-gal and IPTG and subjected to blue-white screening. Considering all plasmids were recombinant which one of the following statements correctly describes the outcome of the experiment?
a.
The bacteria which took up the plasmids would grow and give blue colonies
b.
The bacteria which took up the plasmids would not grow
c.
The bacteria which took up the plasmids would form white colonies
d.
All of the bacteria would grow and give white colonies
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q141
mcq
The sequence of the peptide KGLITRTGLIKR can be unequivocally determined by
a.
Only Edman degradation
b.
Amino acid analysis and MALDI MS/MS mass spectrometry
c.
MALDI MS/MS mass spectrometry
d.
MALDI mass spectrometry after treatment of the peptide with trypsin
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q142
mcq
From statements on protein structure and interactions detailed below, indicate the correct statement.
a.
The concentration of a tryptophan containing protein can be determined by monitoring the fluorescence spectrum of the protein.
b.
A peptide with equal number of Glu and Lys amino acids can show multiple charge species in its electrotherapy ionization mass spectrum.
c.
The circular dichroism spectrum of a protein shows predominantly helical conformation. Analysis of its two dimensional NMR spectrum shows predominantly $\beta$-structure.
d.
Binding constant can be determined by two interacting molecules by the technique of surface plasma resonance only if there is strong hydrophobic interactions between them.
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q143
mcq
Radioimmuno assay (RIA) can be employed for the detection of insulin in blood plasma. For this, $^{125}\text{I}$-labelled insulin is mixed and allowed to bind with a known concentration of anti-insulin antibody. A known volume of patients' blood plasma is then added to the conjugate and allowed to compete with the antigen binding sites of antibody. The bound antigen is then separated from unbound ones and the radioactivity of free antigen is then measured by gamma counter. Following are some of the statements made about this assay.
(i) The ratio of radioactive count for unbound antigen to the bound one is more at the end of reaction.
(ii) The ratio of radioactive count for unbound antigen to the bound one is less at the end of reaction.
(iii) For a diabetic patient, the radioactive count for free antigen is less than that for a normal individual.
(iv) For a diabetic patient, the radioactive count for free antigen is more than that for a normal individual.
Which of the above statements are true?
a.
(i) and (iii)
b.
(i) and (iv)
c.
(ii) and (iii)
d.
(ii) and (iv)
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q144
mcq
It is hypothesized that the mean ($\mu_0$) dry weight of a female in a Drosophila population is $4.5\text{ mg}$. In a sample of $16$ female with $\overline{y} = 4.8\text{ mg}$ and $s = 0.8\text{ mg}$, what dry weight values would lead to rejection of the null hypothesis at $p = 0.05$ level? (take $t_{0.05} = 2.1$)
a.
Values lower than $4.0$ and values higher than $5.6$
b.
Values lower than $3.20$ and values higher than $6.40$
c.
Values lower than $4.38$ and values higher than $5.22$
d.
Values lower than $3.22$ and values higher than $6.48$
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.
Q145
mcq
A researcher wants to obtain complete chemical information, i.e., head groups and fatty acids of phospholipids from liver tissues. Phospholipids have fatty acids of different lengths and unsaturation and also the head groups are of different chemistries. Which of the following combination of techniques would provide complete chemical description of phospholipids?
a.
Only thin layer chromatography (TLC)
b.
TLC and gas chromatography
c.
Paper and thin layer chromatography
d.
Only paper chromatography
Correct Answer & Step-by-Step Solution Locked
Sign in free to reveal the correct answer and AI explanation for this question.