CSIR NET · Life Sciences
June
2014
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114 questions
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Q21
mcq
Membrane-bound and free ribosomes, are structurally identical, but differ only at a given time in terms of association with
a.
acetylated proteins
b.
glycosylated proteins
c.
phospholipids
d.
Nascent proteins
Correct Answer
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Membrane-bound ribosomes and free cytosolic ribosomes are structurally identical and interchangeable. Their localization depends solely on the nascent polypeptide being synthesized; if the nascent chain contains an ER signal sequence, the ribosome is targeted to the ER membrane via the signal recognition particle (SRP).
Q22
mcq
The dye used in Gram staining is
a.
Rhodamine
b.
Methylene blue
c.
Giemsa
d.
Crystal violet
Correct Answer
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
The primary stain used in the Gram staining procedure to differentiate bacteria into Gram-positive and Gram-negative groups is crystal violet.
Q23
mcq
Each origin of replication is activated only once. This is achieved because
a.
pre-replicative complex can only form in G1 and replication can only be initiated when pre-replication complex is disassembled at the beginning of S-phase
Correct Answer
b.
replication can only be initiated when pre-replication complex is intact.
c.
replication can only be initiated when unphosphorylated Rb is present.
d.
pre-replicative complex can only form in S-phase.
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
To ensure that DNA replicates only once per cell cycle, the pre-replicative complex (pre-RC) is assembled exclusively during the G1 phase when cyclin-dependent kinase (CDK) activity is low. Upon entry into the S phase, high CDK and DDK activities trigger origin firing and lead to the disassembly/inactivation of pre-RC components, preventing new pre-RCs from forming until the next G1 phase.
Q24
mcq
Electron microscopes have much higher resolution than any type of light microscope because
a.
of their higher magnification.
b.
the lenses used are of much higher quality.
c.
of very short wave length of electrons.
Correct Answer
d.
the images are viewed on screen rather than directly using an eye-piece or occular lens.
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Resolution limit is governed by Abbe's equation: $d = \frac{0.61\lambda}{\text{NA}}$. Because accelerated electrons have a much shorter de Broglie wavelength than visible light photons, the resolution limit $d$ is significantly smaller, granting electron microscopes vastly superior resolving power.
Q25
mcq
Histone acetylase and chromatin remodeling complexes are recruited to specific regions of chromatin by
a.
gene activator proteins.
Correct Answer
b.
specific promoter sequence.
c.
phosphorylation of histone acetylase.
d.
dephosphorylation of chromatin remodeling complexes.
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Sequence-specific transcription factors (gene activator proteins) bind to specific DNA regulatory elements (enhancers/promoters) and physically recruit coactivators, including histone acetyltransferases (HATs) and ATP-dependent chromatin remodeling complexes, to alter chromatin structure locally and facilitate transcription.
Q26
mcq
Which one of the following statements is NOT correct for propagation and maintenance of mammalian cells in vitro?
a.
Transformed cell lines do need external supply of serum to grow.
b.
The cells that are obtained directly from the organism is a primary culture.
c.
Trypsin is added to cell culture media to maintain cell's health.
Correct Answer
d.
HEPES buffer is generally used to maintain pH of the culture media.
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Trypsin is a proteolytic enzyme used transiently for subculturing/detaching adherent cells from the culture vessel by cleaving cell-surface attachment proteins. It is not added to the regular growth media to maintain health; prolonged exposure to trypsin is actually cytotoxic.
Q27
mcq
A bioinformatics tool used to find the sequence similarity in the subunits of hemoglobin is
a.
FASTA
b.
BLAST
Correct Answer
c.
HUMMER
d.
PSI : PLOT
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
BLAST (Basic Local Alignment Search Tool) is the widely used bioinformatics tool for finding local sequence similarity and aligning protein or nucleotide sequences (such as comparing hemoglobin subunits).
Q28
mcq
The electro spray ionization spectrum of a highly purified protein shows multiple closely spaced peaks. This most likely arises due to
a.
degradation of the protein during recording of the spectrum.
b.
the presence of multiple conformations.
c.
multiple charged species of the protein.
Correct Answer
d.
extensive aggregation of the protein.
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Electrospray ionization (ESI) is a 'soft' ionization technique that generates a series of multicharged ions $[M + z\text{H}]^{z+}$ for large biomolecules like proteins. This charge envelope appears as multiple closely spaced peaks corresponding to the same intact protein molecule carrying different numbers of protons ($z$).
Q29
mcq
The average energy absorbed by $10\text{ gm}$ of tissue from $^{32}\text{P}$ radiation is $14.9\text{ Jkg}^{-1}$ The average dose in rads is
a.
1490
Correct Answer
b.
1.49
c.
14900
d.
149
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
The absorbed dose is given as $14.9\text{ J kg}^{-1}$, which is equal to $14.9\text{ Gy}$ (Gray). Since $1\text{ Gy} = 100\text{ rad}$, the absorbed dose in rads is $14.9 \times 100 = 1490\text{ rads}$.
Q41
mcq
The long feather train of a peacock is quoted as an example supporting
a.
Hamilton's rule.
b.
Zahavi's handicap principle
Correct Answer
c.
The Red Queen hypothesis.
d.
Haldane's rule.
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Zahavi's handicap principle proposes that costly, sexually selected traits (such as the peacock's long and elaborate train) serve as honest signals of genetic quality, because only high-fitness individuals can bear the survival handicap associated with the ornament.
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Q42
mcq
A pathogen like *Mycobacterium*, which colonizes inside the cells of the host, is likely to be least affected by which one of the following host immune defense mechanisms?
a.
Cell-mediated immune response
b.
$\text{CD4}^+$ T lymphocytes
c.
Cytokines
d.
Humoral immune response
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Q43
mcq
Which one of the following graphs represents the relative expression of proteins of Wnt-activated signaling cascades involved during development of an embryo?
a.
(a)
b.
(b)
c.
(c)
d.
(d)
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Q44
mcq
Virus induced gene silencing (VIGS) is a process that takes advantage of the RNAi mediated antiviral defence mechanism. Which one of the following ultimately guides siRNA to degrade the target transcript (mRNA)?
a.
dsRNA
b.
ssRNA
c.
RNA Induced Silencing (RIS) Complex
d.
dsRNA binding protein
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Q45
mcq
Which one of the following molecular marker types uses combination of both restriction enzyme and PCR techniques?
a.
SSR
b.
AFLP
c.
SNP
d.
RAPD
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Q46
mcq
One hemoglobin molecule containing four heme groups can bind with four $\text{O}_2$. The reactions of Hb and $\text{O}_2$ are shown below. Which one of the following reactions is fastest?
a.
$\text{Hb}_4 + \text{O}_2 \rightarrow \text{Hb}_4\text{O}_2$
b.
$\text{Hb}_4\text{O}_2 + \text{O}_2 \rightarrow \text{Hb}_4\text{O}_4$
c.
$\text{Hb}_4\text{O}_4 + \text{O}_2 \rightarrow \text{Hb}_4\text{O}_6$
d.
$\text{Hb}_4\text{O}_6 + \text{O}_2 \rightarrow \text{Hb}_4\text{O}_8$
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Q47
mcq
Which one of the following is required to anchor the synaptic vesicles to the cytoskeletal proteins in the pre-synaptic nerve terminals?
a.
Syntaxin
b.
Synaptobtevin
c.
Synaptotagmin
d.
Synapsin
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Q48
mcq
Vasopressin acts on blood vessels leading to their constriction. Which one of the following signaling cascades will apply to the effect of vasopressin?
a.
$\text{V}_1\text{R} \rightarrow \text{Phosphatidylinositol hydrolysis} \rightarrow \text{Ca}^{2+} \text{ increase}$
b.
$\text{V}_1\text{R} \rightarrow \text{Adenylate cyclase} \rightarrow \text{cAMP}$
c.
$\text{V}_2\text{R} \rightarrow \text{Phosphatidylinositol hydrolysis} \rightarrow \text{Ca}^{2+} \text{ increase}$
d.
$\text{V}_2\text{R} \rightarrow \text{Adenylate cyclase} \rightarrow \text{cAMP}$
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Q49
mcq
In an experiment involving mapping of 3 genes (a, b and c) in Drosophila, a three point test cross is carried out. The parental cross was $AAbbCC \times aaBBcc$. The genotypes of the double crossovers are: $Aabbcc$ and $aaBbCc$. Based on this, determine the order of the genes.
a.
acb
b.
cab
c.
abc
d.
bac
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Q50
mcq
In the following example, 3 independently assorting genes are known to govern coat color in mice. The genotype of few of the coat colors is given below:
Agouti: $A\text{-}B\text{-}C\text{-}$ Black: $aa\ B\text{-}C\text{-}$ Albino: $--cc$
What will be the expected frequency of albino, in the F2 progeny from crosses of Pure black with albino of the genotype $AAbbcc$?
a.
$1/4$
b.
$1/16$
c.
$1/64$
d.
$9/64$
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Q51
mcq
The distance between bacterial genes as determined from interrupted mating experiments are measured in units of
a.
cM
b.
minutes
c.
bp
d.
micrometers
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Q52
mcq
During the operation of $\text{C}_2$ oxidative photosynthetic cycle, which of the following metabolites is transported from chloroplast to peroxisome?
a.
Glycerate
b.
Serine
c.
Glycine
d.
Glycolate
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Q53
mcq
In rats, after the delivery of the offspring, mother shows the following behaviors. Which one of the following behaviors is NOT maternal ?
a.
Licking the pups
b.
Huddling above the pups to acess the ventrum
c.
Lordosis of mother rat
d.
Bringing back to the nest pups that wander away form it
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Q54
mcq
Arabidopsis thaliana seeds were planted on Murashige Skoog (MS) plates with or without a hormone added to the medium. Seeds were found to germinate late in the hormone containing MS plates as compared to MS plates without hormone. Identity the hormone.
a.
Jasmonic acid
b.
Cytokinin
c.
Auxin
d.
Abscisic acid
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Q55
mcq
Which of the following is a correct hierarchical sequence for classification of a living organism?
a.
Domain-Kingdom-Phylum-Class-Order-Family-Genus-Species.
b.
Kingdom-Domain-Phylum-Class-Order-Family-Genus-Species.
c.
Domain-Kingdom-Phylum-Order-Class-Family-Genus-Species.
d.
Kingdom-Domain-Phylum-Order-Class-Family-Genus-Species.
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Q56
mcq
Branchiostomaisa
a.
deuterostome and schizocoelomate.
b.
protostome and schizocoelomate.
c.
deuterostome and enterocoelomate.
d.
protostome and enterocoelomate.
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Q57
mcq
The population size of a bird increased from $600$ to $645$ in one year. If the per capita birth rate of this population is $0.5$, what is its per capita death rate?
a.
$0.25$
b.
$0.15$
c.
$0.05$
d.
$0.02$
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Q58
mcq
A black Labrador homozygous for the dominant alleles ($BBEE$) is crossed with a yellow Labrador homozygous for the recessive alleles ($bbee$). On intercrossing the F1, the F2 progeny was obtained in the following ratio: $9$ black: $3$ brown: $4$ yellow. This is an example of
a.
recessive epistasis where allele $e$ is epistatic to $B$ and $b$.
b.
dominant epistasis where allele $E$ is epistatic to $B$ and $b$.
c.
recessive epistasis where allele $e$ is epistatic to $E$.
d.
complementary epistasis where allele $b$ is epistatic.
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Q59
mcq
The present global warming trend is expected to result in an increased incidence of malaria in temperate countries. The supposed underlying mechanism is that
a.
higher temperatures make temperate country people more vulnerable to diseases
b.
malarial parasite grows better at higher temperatures.
c.
the vector mosquito species requires warmer temperatures for reproduction.
d.
anti-malaria drugs are less effective in temperate countries.
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Q60
mcq
The most important reproductive strategies of big trees in a forest are
a.
earlier age at first reproduction and production of a large number of small seeds.
b.
earlier age at first reproduction and production of a small number of large seeds.
c.
later age at first reproduction and production of a large number of small seeds.
d.
later age at first reproduction and production of a small number of large seeds.
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Q61
mcq
In a very small populations, genetic variation is often lost through genetic drift. If the population size of a mammal on an isolated island is 50, what percentage of its genetic variation is lost every generation
a.
0.01
b.
0.5
c.
0.1
d.
0.05
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Q62
mcq
An ant moving straight, upon encountering an obstacle, may turn either right or left and continue moving. To test the hypothesis that the direction chosen by the ant is random, the most appropriate statistical test is
a.
Student's t-test.
b.
$\text{X}^2$-test of independence.
c.
$\text{X}^2$-test of goodness of fit.
d.
correlation test.
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Q63
mcq
Among the following antigens specific to a pathogen, which one is most likely to be ineligible as a vaccine with long lasting host protective effect?
a.
A cell surface protein.
b.
An enzyme involved in pathogen metabolism.
c.
A signaling intermediate, which is a kinase.
d.
A long chain fatty acid.
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Q64
mcq
Which one of the following techniques is generally used to produce transgenic animals?
a.
Processed mRNA containing only exons are introduced into blastocyst stage embryo.
b.
Entire foreign nucleus is introduced in enucleated unfertilized egg.
c.
Desired DNA is micro injected into fertilized eggs followed by implantation of embryo in a foster mother.
d.
c-DNA of desired gene is introduced into animal embryos and implanted in a foster mother:
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Q65
mcq
Which one of the following is unfavorable for protein folding?
a.
Hydrophobic interaction
b.
van der Waals interaction
c.
Conformational entropy
d.
Hydrogen bonding
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Q66
mcq
The maximum number of hydrogen bonds that can form between $\text{H}_2\text{N} - \text{NH}_2$ (hydrazine) and water is –
a.
2
b.
1
c.
3
d.
4
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Q67
mcq
The organs 'radula' and 'clitellum' are found in
a.
Coelenterata and Echinodermata, respectively.
b.
Echinodermata and Coelenterata, respectively.
c.
Annelida and Mollusca, respectively.
d.
Mollusca and Annelida, respectively.
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Q68
mcq
The peptide unit ($\text{C}^\alpha\text{ - C'O - NH - C}^\alpha$) is planar due to
a.
restriction around $\text{C}^\alpha\text{ - C'}$ bond
b.
restriction around $\text{C' - N}$ bond
c.
restriction around $\text{N - C}^\alpha$ bond
d.
hydrogen bonding between carbonyl oxygen and imino hydrogen of the peptide backbone.
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Q69
mcq
Which one of the following is the most appropriate statement regarding folded proteins?
a.
Charged amino acid side chains are always buried.
b.
Charged amino acid side chains are seldom buried.
c.
Non-polar amino acid side chains are seldom buried.
d.
Tyrosine residues are always buried.
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Q70
mcq
Molecules primarily responsible for the formation of lipid raft are
a.
phosphatidyl serine and phosphatidyl choline.
b.
phosphatidyl inositol and cholesterol.
c.
glycosylphosphatidyl inositol and cholesterol.
d.
sphingolipids and cholesterol.
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Q71
mcq
You are studying a protein that inserts itself into a model membrane (liposomes) during a reconstitution process. The protein has an N-terminal, 18-amino acid hydrophilic segment that is located on the outside of the membrane, a 19-amino acid hydrophobic transmembrane segment flanked by negatively and positively charged amino acids, and a C-terminal domain that resides inside the lumen (as depicted below in the form of a cartoon).
For proper reconstitution of the protein, which of the following strategies will be appropriate?
a.
Increase the number of negatively charged amino acids in the N-terminal
b.
Increase the number of positively charged amino acids in the C-terminal
c.
Removal of positively charged amino acids from the C- terminal
d.
Increase the length of hydrophobic segment
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Q72
mcq
The tetrapeptide "KDEL" is well known as a retrieval signal of several newly synthesized proteins. This process is mediated through specific receptor -'- KDEL interaction. Any single amino acid change in this tetrapeptide is not allowed in terms of its binding its receptors and its subsequent retention in specific organelle whereas, secretory proteins are devoid of such tetrapeptide. From this observation indicate the localization of the receptor of this tetrapeptide:
a.
Plasma membrane
b.
Golgi
c.
Endoplasmic reticulum.
d.
Mitochondria
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Q73
mcq
$^{125}\text{I}$-labelled diaminofluorene (DAF) is a well known photoactivable hydrophobic probe of plasma membrane integral protein. To determine the approximate length and number of hydrophobic domain in any integral membrane protein, a controlled experiment (following standard protocol) is carried out. In order to ascertain the aforesaid aspects indicate the correct combination of experimental protocols from the following choices:
a.
Intact membrane was allowed to interact with DAF and unincorporated DAF measured.
b.
Intact membrane was allowed to interact with DAF, lysed and total protein precipitated with TCA and amount of radioactivity incorporated in the total proteins in the TCA precipitated fraction measured.
c.
Intact membrane was allowed to interact with DAF, then membrane was solubilized with detergent, digested with proteases (limited proteolysis) run on SDS-PAGE followed by autoradiography.
d.
Intact membrane was allowed to interact with DAF followed by complete proteolysis, SDS-PAGE and finally autoradiography.
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Q74
mcq
Cyclins are the regulatory subunits and cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs) are the catalytic subunits. Following diagram represents the involvement of cyclins and CDKs in various stages of cell cycle:
If we knock down cyclin D in a cell by shRNA, which one of the following graphs correctly represents the level of CDK2 activity?
a.
(a)
b.
(b)
c.
(c)
d.
(d)
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Q75
mcq
To test whether bacteria with enhanced toluene degradative abilities could be created for cold environment, a TOL (toluene-degrading) plasmid from a mesophilic bacterial strain was transferred by conjugation into a facultative psychrophile. The psychrophile was able to degrade salicylate (SAL) but donot toluene. The recombinant strain carried the introduced TOL- plasmid and its own SAL plasmid. The results are as follows:
\begin{tabular}{|l|c|c|c|c|c|c|}
\hline
& \multicolumn{6}{|c|}{\textbf{Optimum Growth in Presence of}} \\
\hline
& \multicolumn{3}{|c|}{\textbf{X}} & \multicolumn{3}{|c|}{\textbf{Y}} \\
\hline
\textbf{Temp ($^\circ$C)} & \textbf{A} & \textbf{B} & \textbf{C} & \textbf{A} & \textbf{B} & \textbf{C} \\
\hline
$37^\circ\text{C}$ & - & - & - & + & - & - \\
\hline
$25^\circ\text{C}$ & - & - & - & + & - & - \\
\hline
$10^\circ\text{C}$ & - & + & + & - & - & + \\
\hline
$0^\circ\text{C}$ & - & + & + & - & - & + \\
\hline
\end{tabular}
Identify A, B, C, X and Y:
a.
A. mesophile B. psychrophile C. transformant X. Toluene Y. Salicylate
b.
A. mesophile B. psychrophile C. transformant X. Salicylate Y. Toluene
c.
A. psychrophile B. transformant C. mesophile X. Salicylate Y. Toluene
d.
A. transformant B. psychrophile C. mesophile X. Toluene Y. Salicylate
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Q76
mcq
A small fraction of clear cellular lysate was run on an isoelectric focusing gel (IEF) to purify a particular protein, which showed a number of sharp bands corresponding to different pI value. The protein of interest has a pI of 5.2. Therefore, the band corresponding to pI 5.2 was cut, eluted with appropriate buffer and subjected to SDS PAGE, which showed 3 distinct bands. One of the following inferences CANNOT be drawn from the above observations?
a.
Several different proteins having same pI may be present at the single band on IEF gel.
b.
SDS-PAGE showed 3 distinct bands which may represent molecular mass of a different proteins.
c.
The protein of interest may be composed of 3 subunits.
d.
As the IEF gel showed a distinct band corresponding to pI 5.2, which is the pI of the protein of interest, the protein is composed of a single subunit.
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Q77
mcq
Chromosome organization becomes clearer from a series of biochemical, electron microscopic and X-ray crystallographic studies. When interphase chromatin is isolated in low salt buffer and observed under EM, $11\text{ nm}$ bead on string organization is seen. Interphase chromatin directly observed under EM shows $30\text{ nm}$ fibre. When histones are depleted from metaphase chromosome and visualized under EM, it shows a huge number of very large loops associated with scaffold.
Following interpretations can be made from these:
A. $11\text{ nm}$ fibre is formed when nucleosomes are brought closer by scaffold.
B. $30\text{ nm}$ interphase chromatin is formed by zig-zag organization of nucleosomes of $11\text{ nm}$ fibre.
C. $30\text{ nm}$ fibre makes a solenoid packing to form the metaphase chromosome.
D. $30\text{ nm}$ fibre gets organized into loops due to SARs getting associated with scaffold proteins and coming closer.
The correct combination of interpretations is:
a.
A and D
b.
A and C
c.
A and B
d.
B and D
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Q78
mcq
In a plaque-forming cell assay, antigen specific B-cell numbers are assessed. In this assay, antigen coated sheep red blood cells (SRBCs) are lysed by the hapten specific B cells by complement-mediated cytotoxicity. In an assay that tried to enumerate the TNP-specific B-cells elicited in TNP-KLH-primed mice, no plaques were formed despite the presence of antigen-specific antibody producing B cells. Which of the following is NOT the reason for the absence of plaques?
a.
The source of complement has anti- TNP antibody.
b.
The SRBC were stored for too long.
c.
The B cells were contaminated with LPS or lectins.
d.
The complement had anti-KLH antibody.
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Q79
mcq
Cytochrome-c has only one tryptophan residue (W) which is buried. The protein in cacodylate buffer (pH 6.0) is excited at $280\text{ nm}$, and its emission spectrum measured in the range of $300\text{--}450\text{ nm}$. The same measurement was repeated on the protein in the buffer containing $6\text{M}$ guanidine hydrochloride. It was observed that there is an increase in the intensity of the emission spectrum of the guanidine hydrochloride treated cytochrome-c. The most probable reason for this increase is:
a.
W is near a hydrophobic patch present in the unfolded protein.
b.
W is near heme in the native protein
c.
W is near carboxylate amino acid side chains in the native protein.
d.
W is in a polar pocket in the native protein.
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Q80
mcq
The diagram represents a $2\text{ Kb}$ insert successfully introduced between two BamH1 sites of a $3.8\text{ Kb}$ vector in desired orientation. The HindIII site on the insert and EcoRI site on the vector is also indicated. If the insert was introduced in the opposite orientation, which one of the following statements is INCORRECT?
a.
Digestion with EcoRI will linearize the $5.8\text{ Kb}$ plasmid.
b.
Digestion with BamH1 will yield $3.8$ and one $2.0\text{ Kb}$ fragment.
c.
Double digestion with EcoRI and HindIII will produce $1.7\text{ Kb}$ and $4.1\text{ Kb}$ segments.
d.
Double digestion with EcoRI and HindIII will produce $2.1\text{ Kb}$ and $3.7\text{ Kb}$ fragments.
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Q81
mcq
The hydrogen atoms in the $\delta$ (delta) methylene group of lysine will give the following splitting pattern in the $^{1}\text{H NMR}$ spectra of lysine
a.
Triplet of triplets.
b.
Quintet.
c.
Doublet of triplets
d.
Triplet of a doublet
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Q82
mcq
Combination of molecular markers with their classification based on either dominant or co-dominant types are shown below:
A. SSR and RFLP: co-dominant.
B. SSR and RAPD: co-dominant.
C. RAPD and RFLP: dominant.
D. AFLP and RAPD: dominant.
Which one of the following is the correct combination?
a.
A and B
b.
B and C
c.
C and D
d.
A and D
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Q83
mcq
Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases are very specific for aminoacylation of tRNAs with the correct cognate amino acids. However, there is a possibility of a mismatch between the tRNA and its cognate amino acid. This error is corrected by the inherent proof-reading activity of the aminoacyl-tRNA, synthetase. In case of two very similar amino acids, namely valine and isoleucine, isoleucyl-tRNA synthetase employs the following possible approaches for an error free aminoacylation
A. It removes an incorrect amino acid by hydrolyzing the aminoacyl-AMP linkage following first reaction step.
B. It is activated for proof-reading activity, leading to breakage of the bond between the wrong amino acid and tRNA.
C. It has an intrinsic ability to recognize the structural difference between amino acids leading to abortive elimination of the non-cognate amino acid.
D. It gets sequestered in the second step with the wrong amino acid, and that freezes the aminoacylation process.
Which of the following combinations is correct?
a.
A and B
b.
A and D
c.
B and D
d.
C and D
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Q84
mcq
MicroRNAs (miRNAs) have recently been shown to play a significant role in the fine tuning of gene expression. Some miRNAs induce gene silencing by binding to mRNAs and inducing inhibition of translation. On the other hand, there are miRNAs that bind to mRNAs and activate their degradation. The following characteristics can be applicable to miRNAs that inhibit mRNA translation:
A. miRNA is partially complementary to region of target mRNA in the 3' UTR.
B. miRNA always base pairs with mRNA around an AU-rich sequence.
C. miRNA base pairs with mRNA through 6-7 nucleotides at its 5' end referred to as “seed sequence” as well as few additional bases elsewhere.
D. miRNA is always partially complementary to the 5' UTR of the target mRNA.
Choose the correct option from the following:
a.
A and B
b.
A and C
c.
C and D
d.
A and D
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Q85
mcq
Attenuation is a mechanism involved in the regulation of tryptophan operon in $E.\ coli$. When tryptophan levels are high in the cell, region 2 of the $trpL$ is blocked from pairing with region 3. This allows the pairing of region 3 and 4 leading to the formation a rho-independent termination. What would be the structure of the $trpL$ region in $E.\ coli$ cells where protein synthesis has been inhibited?
a.
Region 2 pairs with region 3 allowing transcription of the structural genes.
b.
Region 1 and 2 will pair, allowing 3 and 4 to pair leading to attenuation.
c.
There is no pairing in the $trpL$ region and transcription of structural gene occurs.
d.
Region 2 and 3 will pair leading to attenuation.
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Q86
mcq
In order to identify the regulatory regions of a novel promoter sequence shown above, four 150 bp deletion constructs were made in a luciferase reporter system as indicated above in boxes A to D. After transfection, the observed level of promoter activity (%) as analyzed by luciferase assay of all the constructs is indicated in the right of the figure. Identify the best correct combination of regions in the options given below that indicate the presence of a positive and a negative regulatory elements respectively.
a.
B and D
b.
A and C
c.
A and D
d.
A and B
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Q87
mcq
A 6.4 Kb plasmid DNA has two restriction endonuclease sites, HindIII and EcoRI. Complete double digestion of the plasmid with both the enzymes yields two fragments of 3.1 and 3.3 Kb. In order to study DNA repair process, a G:T mismatch was introduced in one strand of HindIII site and the damaged plasmid was incubated in a reconstituted repair system containing all the factors and enzymes required for repair. If the efficiency of the repair system is 50%, which one of the following band patterns on agarose gel will be obtained after treating the repaired plasmid with both HindIII and EcoRI?
a.
(a)
b.
(b)
c.
(c)
d.
(d)
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Q88
mcq
The following statements are made on DNA replication:
A. Replication fork is a branch point in a replication ‘eye’ or ‘bubble’.
B. A replication bubble contains two replication forks.
C. DNA replication is continuous according to the interpretation made by Okazaki.
D. Multiple priming events are required for both leading and lagging strands to initiate DNA synthesis.
Which one of the following is the correct combination?
a.
A and B
b.
B and C
c.
C and D
d.
A and C
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Q89
mcq
Torpedo is a trans-membrane receptor on follicle cells that binds with Gurken protein located in the presumptive dorsal surface of the oocytes and inhibits a cascade leading to nuclear localization of the Dorsal Protein. In an experiment, *Drosophila* germ line chimeras were made by interchanging pole cells (germ line precursors) between wild type embryos and embryos from mother homozygous for a mutation of *torpedo* gene. These transplants produced:
(i) wild type females whose egg came from mutant mother, and
(ii) *torpedo* deficient females whose egg came from wild type mother.
The possible outcome of this experiment can be:
A. Torpedo deficient eggs developed in wild type ovary induced normal embryos.
B. Wild type eggs developed in Torpedo deficient ovary produced ventralized embryos.
C. Torpedo deficient eggs developed in wild type ovary produced ventralized embryos.
D. Dorsal protein enters in the nuclei of dorsal side of embryos which came from wild type eggs developed in Torpedo deficient ovary.
E. Dorsal protein remains cytoplasmic in the dorsal side of the embryos which came from wild type eggs developed in Torpedo deficient ovary.
Which of the above combination is correct?
a.
A, B and D
b.
B, C and E
c.
B, D and E
d.
A, C and E
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Q90
mcq
The proximal distal growth and differentiation of the tetrapod limb bud are made possible by a series of interactions between the apical ectodermal ridge (AER) and limb bud mesenchyme directly beneath it. Some of the interactions performed in chick demonstrated the following results:
A. When the AER was removed at any time of development, further development of distal limb skeletal elements ceased.
B. When leg mesenchyme was placed directly beneath the wing AER, distal hindlimb structures developed at the end of the wing.
C. When limb mesenchyme was replaced by a non-limb mesenchyme beneath the AER, the limb still developed
D. When an extra AER was grafted onto an existing limb bud, the development of the limb ceased.
Which of the above combinations is correct?
a.
A and B
b.
A and C
c.
B and D
d.
B and C
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Q91
mcq
During lens formation in the *Xenopus*, the following statements have been proposed:
A. Lens induction can be achieved in the absence of optic vesicle after priming of head ectoderm by the anterior neural plate.
B. The optic vesicle can induce the presumptive trunk ectoderm to form the lens.
C. Only the head ectoderm can respond to direct signals from the optic vesicle form the lens.
D. The anterior neural plate primes the head ectoderm via BMP4 and Fgf8 prior to signals from the optic vesicle.
Which of the above combinations is correct?
a.
C and D
b.
B and D
c.
A and D
d.
A and C
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Q92
mcq
Nitrogen fixation is basically a process of converting nitrogen gas into ammonia ($\text{NH}_3$). One of the key enzymes in the process is “nitrogenase”. The production and activity of nitrogenase is very highly regulated as highlighted below:
A. Nitrogen fixation through nitrogenase is an energetically expensive process.
B. Nitrogenase encoding gene is under a constitutive promoter.
C. Nitrogenase is highly sensitive to oxygen.
D. Endogenous availability of the cofactor of nitrogenase enzyme is very low.
Which one of the following combinations of above statements is correct?
a.
A and B
b.
A and C
c.
B and C
d.
B and D
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Q93
mcq
Mutation in a gene x in Arabidopsis thaliana results in more number of lateral root formation. Which one of the following is the correct statement ?
a.
the gene product acts as a positive factor of lateral root formation
b.
the gene product acts as a negative regulator of lateral root formation
c.
the gene product is not likely to be involved in lateral root formation
d.
the gene product promotes replication for lateral root development
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Q94
mcq
The amount of each enzyme present in the chloroplast stroma is regulated by mechanisms that control the concerted expression of nuclear and chloroplast genomes. Following are certain statements regarding the regulation of chloroplast enzymes:
A. Nucleus-encoded enzymes are translated on 70S ribosomes in the cytosol and subsequently transported into the plastid.
B. Plastid encoded enzymes are translocated in the stroma on prokaryote like 70S ribosomes.
C. Light modulates the expression of stromal enzymes encoded by the nuclear genome via specific photoreceptors.
D. The eight small subunits of rubisco is encoded in plastid.
Which one of the following combinations of above statements is correct?
a.
A and B
b.
A and C
c.
B and C
d.
C and D
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Q95
mcq
Aquaporins are a class of proteins that are relatively abundant in plant membranes. Following are certain statements regarding the properties of aquaporins:
A. Aquaporins form water channels in membrane.
B. Some aquaporins also transport uncharged molecules such as $\text{NH}_3$.
C. The activity of aquaporins is not regulated by phosphorylation.
D. The activity of aquaporin is regulated by calcium concentration reactive oxygen species.
Which one of the following combinations of above statements is correct?
a.
A, B and D
b.
B, C and D
c.
A, C and D
d.
A, B and C
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Q96
mcq
Following statements are related to oxidative phoshorylation.
A. Redox reactions of electron transport chain coupled with ATP synthesis are collectively called oxidative phosphorylation.
B. Three major processes: glycolysis, oxidative pentose phosphate pathway and citric acid cycle are related to oxidative phosphorylation.
C. Electron transport proteins are bound to outer of the two mitochondrial membranes.
D. In the electron transport chain electrons are transferred to oxygen from NADH.
Which one of the following combinations of above statements is correct?
a.
A and D
b.
B and C
c.
C and D
d.
A and C
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Q97
mcq
In terpene biosynthesis pathways, three acetyl-CoA are joined together stepwise to form mevalonic acid. Which one of the following three- steps is required by mevalonic acid to form isopentenyl diphosphate or isopentenyl pyrophosphate (IPP)?
a.
Pyrophosphorylation, decarboxylation, and dehydration.
b.
Alkylation, pyrophosphorylation and decarboxylation.
c.
Methylation, dehydration and alkylation.
d.
Phosphorylation, carboxylation and methylation.
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Q98
mcq
Satellite RNAs (sat-RNAs) are species of RNA associated with specific strains of some plant RNA viruses, although it is not necessary for their replication. Few statements are given below on sat-RNA
A. Presence of sat-RNA leads to reduction in severity of disease symptoms.
B. Presence of sat-RNA leads to increase in severity of disease symptoms.
C. sat-RNA is constitutively expressed like coat proteins and is independent of virus infection.
D. sat-RNA is not constitutively expressed like coat proteins but is expressed only after virus infection.
Which one of the following combinations of above statements regarding sat-RNA is correct?
a.
A and B
b.
A and C
c.
C and D
d.
A and D
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Q99
mcq
Respiration can be inhibited voluntarily for some time. The point at which respiration cannot be voluntarily inhibited is known as breaking point. Following explanations are offered for the breaking point:
A. J-receptors stimulate respiratory centers
B. Hering-Breuer reflex operates
C. The rise of arterial $\text{pCO}_2$ stimulates the respiratory centre
D. The fall of arterial $\text{pO}_2$ stimulates the respiratory centre
Which of the above combination is correct?
a.
A and B
b.
B and C
c.
C and D
d.
A and D
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Q100
mcq
Following sets of *Plasmodium falciparum* sporozoites
(i) normal sporozoites
(ii) sporozoites with mutation in the C-terminal of circumsporozoite (CS) antigen
(iii) sporozoites with mutation in the N-terminal region of circumsporozoite (CS) antigen
are injected into 2 groups of mice one normal (Group A) and one (Group B) where localized knock down of heparin sulfate (receptor for CS antigen in liver cells) is achieved by injecting specific shRNA expressing lentiviral particles in the liver prior to infection. 15 days post infection parasitemia is measured by counting infected RBC through Giemsa staining.
Which of the following groups will show maximum level of parasitemia?
a.
Group B with set (i)
b.
Group A with set (ii)
c.
Group A with set (iii)
d.
Group B with set (ii)
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Q101
mcq
The following statements are related to excretion in invertebrates:
A. Flame cells are found in molluscs and jelly fish.
B. Nephridia and Malpighian tubules convert ammonia to urea for water conservation.
C. Green glands are found in flatworm and help in the excreta elimination.
D. Excretory canals in nematodes carry waste materials to excretory pores in the body wall.
Choose the correct answer
a.
Only C
b.
A and C
c.
Only B
d.
B and D
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Q102
mcq
Patients suffering from familial hypercholesterolemia (FH) are mostly homozygous for the defective gene and have profoundly elevated levels of serum cholesterol. The reason may be that the gene for highly specific receptor for LDL is either defective or missing in these patients. In an experiment, cells were taken from both normal individual and homozygote (FH) subjects, incubated in buffer with $^{125}\text{I}$-labeled LDL in presence or absence of excess unlabeled LDL for various time periods and then $^{125}\text{I}$-labeled LDL bound to cells was measured. Which of the following is the best fit graph for the above experiment?
a.
(a)
b.
(b)
c.
(c)
d.
(d)
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Q103
mcq
The following statements have been proposed for a cancer cell.
A. Binding of p53 with MDM2, a ubiquitin E3 ligase; is a precondition for cancer progression.
B. Phosphorylation of a tyrosine residue in the C-terminus of human c-Src is essential for cell invasion and motility.
C. Loss of function of both alleles of a tumor Suppressor gene prevents metastasis.
D. Dimerization of C-myc-Max leads to enhanced cell proliferation.
Which of the combinations of the above statements is correct?
a.
A and B
b.
C and D
c.
A and D
d.
B and C
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Q104
mcq
Collagen is the most prevalent extracellular matrix protein.
Which of the following is NOT true for collagen?
a.
Collagen is composed of triple helix consisting of two $\alpha$ polypeptide chain and one $\beta$ polypeptide chain wound around one another in a rope-like structure.
b.
Glycine accounts for almost one third of the amino acids within collagen molecule.
c.
Ascorbate is essential for collagen formation required for hydroxylation of proline.
d.
Individual collagen polypeptide chains are synthesized on membrane-bound ribosomes with N-terminal signal sequences for directing them to ER lumen.
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Q105
mcq
CD4$^+$ T cells are co-cultured with macrophages in the presence of immobilized anti-CD3 antibody under four different conditions:
(A) Interleukin (IL)-4 plus anti-IFN $\gamma$ antibody,
(B) IL-12 and anti-IL-4 antibody,
(C) Transforming growth factor (TGF)-$\beta$,
(D) TGF-$\beta$ and IL-6
for three rounds to induce T-helper cell differentiation identifiable by the cytokines they express predominantly. Which one of the following is the most likely combination of predominant cytokine expression in these cultures?
a.
(A) IL-4, (B) IFN- $\gamma$, (C) IL-10, (D) IL-17
b.
(A) IFN- $\gamma$, (B) IL-4, (C) IL-17, (D) IL-10
c.
(A) IL-17, (B) IL-4, (C) IFN- $\gamma$, (D) IL-10
d.
(A) IL-17, (B) IL-10, (C) IL-4, (D) IFN- $\gamma$
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Q106
mcq
At the 2-celled stage of *Caenorhabditis elegans* development the blastomeres were experimentally separated and allowed to proceed in development. One of the blastomere (P1) developed generating all types of cells it would normally make while the other blastomere (AB) made only a fraction of the cell types it would normally make.
The following conclusion could be drawn:
A. The determination of both P1 and AB was autonomous.
B. The determination of both P1 and AB was conditional.
C. The determination of P1 was autonomous and AB was conditional .
D. Both asymmetric division and cell-cell interactions specify cell fate in early development.
Which of the above combinations is correct?
a.
A and C
b.
B and D
c.
A and D
d.
C and D
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Q107
mcq
Four groups of one-day old female BALB/c neonates had received the following treatments:
A. Epidermal cells from C57BL/6 male plus anti $\beta\, 2$ microglobulin antibody.
B. Epidermal cells from C57BL/6 male plus antibodies to $\beta\, 2$ microglobulin, CD40 ligand, CD80 and CD86.
C. Epidermal cells from C57BL/6 female plus anti-CD80 antibody,.
D. Epidermal cells from C57BL/6 female mice.
When these BALB/c neonates grew six weeks old, they received skin transplant from C57BL/6 male mice. Transplantation rejection time varied between these four groups. Starting from the fastest to the slowest rejection, which one of the following is the most likely order?
a.
$\text{D} > \text{C} > \text{A} > \text{B}$
b.
$\text{A} > \text{B} > \text{C} > \text{D}$
c.
$\text{B} > \text{A} > \text{D} > \text{C}$
d.
$\text{D} > \text{B} > \text{C} > \text{A}$
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Q108
mcq
A mechanical pressure was exerted on a specific location of a peripheral nerve of a mammal. The touch or pain receptors were stimulated from the skin surface innervated by the same nerve. The action potential generated by touch receptor stimulation was blocked beyond the point of mechanical pressure. But the action potential generated by pain receptor stimulation passes through the point of mechanical pressure.
Following explanations were offered for these observations:
A. The large diameter ‘A’ fibres were affected by mechanical pressure
B. The small diameter ‘C’ fibres were not affected by mechanical pressure
C. The intermediate diameter ‘B’ fibres were affected by mechanical pressure
D. The large diameter ‘A’ fibres were not affected by mechanical pressure
Which of the above combinations is correct?
a.
A and B
b.
B and C
c.
C and D
d.
A and D
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Q109
mcq
When a skeletal muscle with an intact nerve supply is stretched, the muscle contracts and the tone increases. The following explanations are offered for this observation:
A. Golgi tendon organ was stimulated by the stretching of muscle
B. $\gamma$-motor neurons were excited by the stimulated afferent nerve fibres from the stretched muscle
C. Muscle spindle was stimulated by stretching of muscle
D. $\alpha$-motor neurons were excited by the stimulated afferent nerve fibres from the stretched muscle
Which of the combination is correct?
a.
A and B
b.
B and C
c.
C and D
d.
A and D
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Q110
mcq
Assume that in terms of ‘genetic fitness’ the ‘benefit’ of performing an altruistic act to a relative is 500 units and the ‘cost’ involved is 150 units. Following Hamilton’s Rule the act should be performed if the relative is a
a.
only brother.
b.
nephew or niece.
c.
brother or step-sister.
d.
only step-sister.
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Q111
mcq
The diagram below depicts a simplified tree of life with three domains and one of the domains including Whittaker’s three major kingdoms.
Which of the following is the correct naming of the numbered boxes?
a.
1 - Bacteria 2 - Archaea 3 - Eukarya 4 - Fungi
b.
1 - Archaea 2 - Bacteria 3 - Eukarya 4 - Plants
c.
1 - Eukarya 2 - Bacteria 3 - Archaea 4 - Plants
d.
1 - Archaea 2 - Bacteria 3 - Eukarya 4 - Fungi
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Q112
mcq
Sleeping sickness is a disease caused by a protozoan parasite and the following statements pertain to that disease:
A. The vector for this disease is tsetse fly.
B. The vector for this disease is \textit{Trypanosoma brucei}.
C. The parasite’s body is covered by a dense coat of variable surface glycoprotein (VSG).
D. There are several thousands of VSG genes, only one of them expressing at a time, which helps the parasite in evading host’s immune response.
E. Several thousand copies of VSG genes express concurrently, paralyzing the host immune system.
Which of the following is the correct combination of the statements given above?
a.
B, C and D
b.
A, C and D
c.
A, C and E
d.
B, C and E
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Q113
mcq
Fish species X and Y feed on mayfly nymphs in their stream habitat. In a laboratory experiment, the predation intensity of X and Y on their prey was tested under dark (D) and light (L) conditions. Thus, the experimental protocol included four aquaria - LX, LY, DX and DY. In each aquarium containing 100 mayfly nymphs, one fish was introduced and allowed to feed for 30 minutes. Then the fish was removed and the number of mayfly nymphs left uneaten in each aquarium was counted. The results are shown graphically below
The most significant conclusion from the results is:
a.
X is a visual predator, but has less predation impact on the prey than Y.
b.
X is a visual predator and has greater predation impact on the prey than Y.
c.
Y is a visual predator and has greater predation impact on, the prey than X.
d.
Y is a visual predator but has less predation impact on the prey than X.
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Q114
mcq
There are three species of frogs - A, B and C. Species A does not provide parental care for its eggs and larvae. Species B is subjected to predation by a predator that selectively feeds only on small-sized larvae. Species C faces progressively decreasing opportunities for breeding with increasing age. Assuming that resources available for reproduction are similar for A, B and C. Which of the following strategies would have been favored?
a.
A should produce large number of small-sized offspring; B should produce a small number of large-sized offsprings; C should breed earlier in life.
b.
Species A and B should produce a small number, of large-sized offspring and C should breed earlier in life.
c.
Both species A and B should produce a large number of small-sized offspring and C should breed later in life but increase its clutch size.
d.
Species A should produce a small number of large-sized offspring; B should 'produce a large number of small sized offspring and C should breed earlier in life with a small clutch size.
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Q115
mcq
The three graphs (A, B, C) show population growth (N) patterns in relation to N or time (t)
Which of the following is correct with reference to the Y-axis label and the type of population growth?
a.
A: Y-axis: $N_t$, exponential growth, B: Y-axis: $dN/dt$, logistic growth, C: Y-axis: $\ln(N)$, exponential growth
b.
A: Y-axis: $dN/dt$, exponential growth, B: Y-axis: $\ln(N)$, logistic growth, C: Y-axis: $N_t$, exponential growth
c.
A: Y-axis: $\ln(N)$, exponential growth, B: Y-axis: $dN/dt$, logistic growth, C: Y-axis: $N_t$, exponential growth
d.
A: Y-axis: $dN/dt$, exponential growth, B: Y-axis: $\ln(N)$, logistic growth, C: Y-axis: $N_t$, exponential growth
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Q116
mcq
Which of the following set of observations is true with reference to a comparison of aquatic (A) and terrestrial (T) ecosystems?
a.
Number of trophic levels is more in A than T. Productivity/Biomass ratio is higher in T than in A. Herbivore assimilation efficiency is higher in A than in T.
b.
Number of trophic levels is more in T than in A. Productivity/Biomass ratio is greater in A than in T. Herbivore assimilation efficiency is higher in T than in A.
c.
Number of trophic levels is more in T than in A. Productivity/Biomass ratio is higher in T than in A. Herbivore assimilation efficiency is higher in T than in A.
d.
Number of trophic levels is more in A than in T. Productivity/Biomass ratio is greater in A than in T. Herbivore assimilation efficiency is higher in A than in T.
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Q117
mcq
A small lake has three trophic levels- phytoplankton (autotrophs), Zooplankton (herbivore) and planktivorous fish (primary carnivore). Into this lake, a population of piscivorous fish (secondary carnivore) was introduced to study the 'top-down' effects". What is the expected long-term consequence of such an introduction to phytoplankton and zooplankton trophic levels?
a.
Zooplankton biomass will increase and phytoplankton biomass will decrease.
b.
Zooplankton biomass will decrease and phytoplankton biomass will increase.
c.
The biomass of both zooplankton and phytoplankton will increase.
d.
The biomass of both zooplankton and phytoplankton will decrease.
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Q118
mcq
Following is the diagram of three idealized survivorship curves of animals.
Find the correct match between the group of animals and the respective survivorship curves.
a.
Marine pelagic fish and large mammals -III and I, respectively.
b.
Marine pelagic fish and large mammals - I and II, respectively.
c.
Some birds and large mammals - I and III, respectively.
d.
Marine pelagic fish and some birds -I and III, respectively.
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Q119
mcq
Following are the characteristics of species that make them more or less prone to extinction:
\begin{tabular}{lclc}
\textbf{Rare – a} & & \textbf{Common – b} & \\
Good dispersal rate & -- c & Poor dispersal rate & -- d \\
Low specialization & -- e & High specialization & -- f \\
High variability & -- g & Low variability & -- h \\
Low trophic status & -- i & High trophic status & -- j \\
Long life span & -- k & Short life span & -- l \\
High reproductive output & -- m & & \\
Low reproductive output & -- n & &
\end{tabular}
Which of the following is the correct combination of characteristics that makes the species more prone to extinction?
a.
a d f g j l n
b.
a e f h i k m
c.
b d e g i l n
d.
b c f h j k m
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Q120
mcq
An elderly person suffering from calcium deficiency was advised to take calcium rich food and to supplement the diet with vitamin D. The absorption of calcium in the intestine was increased with the supplementation of vitamin-D. Following explanations were offered for this increased calcium absorption by vitamin D:
A. The synthesis of $\text{Calbindin-D}_{9\text{K}}$ and $\text{Calbindin-D}_{28\text{K}}$ in enterocytes was stimulated.
B. The number of $\text{Ca}^{2+}$-ATPase molecules in enterocytes was increased. C. The synthesis of divalent metal transporters 1 (DMT1) in the enterocytes was stimulated.
D. The number of hephaestin in the enterocytes was increased.
Which of the above combinations is correct?
a.
A and B
b.
B and C
c.
C and D
d.
A and D
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Q121
mcq
A series of cell lines was created by fusing mouse and human somatic cells. In mouse-human somatic cell hybrids, human chromosomes tend to get lost before becoming a stable cell line. Some hybrid cell lines may carry human chromosome deletions. Each cell line was examined for the presence of chromosomes and for the production of an enzyme. The following results were obtained:
Which segment of the chromosome has the gene encoding for the enzyme
a.
1p
b.
5p
c.
5q
d.
4p
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Q122
mcq
Upon prolonged illumination, activated rhodopsin does not activate transducing, hence the vision is impaired. This could be because of the following explanations:
A. Most of the activated rhodopsin gets phosphorylated and is unable to activate transducin.
B. Most of the activated rhodopsin gets dephosphorylated and is unable to activate transducin.
C. Arrestin further interacts with phosphorylated rhodopsin.
D. Arrestin further interacts with dephosphorylated rhodopsin.
Which of the above combinations is correct?
a.
A and C
b.
B and D
c.
A and D
d.
B and C
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Q123
mcq
Some key characteristics of the four classes of phylum Mollusca are listed below:
A. They have two lateral (left and right) shells (valves) hinged together dorsally; they do not have distinct head or radula; they disperse from place to place largely as larvae.
B. They generally creep on their foot; the heads of most of this group have a pair of tentacles with eyes at the end; during embryological development, they undergo torsion
C. They have oval bodies with overlapping calcareous plates; underneath the plates, the body is not segmented; they creep along using a broad, flat foot surrounded by a groove or mantle cavity in which the gills are arranged.
D. They have highly developed nervous system; most members of this class have closed circulatory systems.
The correct match of the above characteristics with the classes of Mollusca is
a.
A - Polyplacophora B - Bivalvia C - Gastropoda D - Cephalopoda
b.
A - Cephalopoda B - Polyplacophora C - Bivalvia D - Gastropoda
c.
A- Bivalvia B- Gastropoda C - Polyplacophora D- Cephalopoda
d.
A-Gastropoda B - Bivalvia C - Cephalopoda D -Polyplacophora
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Q124
mcq
The following situations might lead to the evolution of monogyny in birds:
A. Male has to assist the female in rearing the offspring.
B. Male guards the female against other males trying to mate with her.
C. One male may not produce enough sperm required to fertilize all the eggs produced by the female.
Which of the above is/are correct?
a.
Only A
b.
Only B
c.
A and B
d.
A and C
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Q125
mcq
The body weight of adult female of a strain of Drosophila is $1.8 \pm 0.45\text{ mg}$ (mean $\pm$ standard deviation). In a laboratory experiment, each of the 3 groups (A, B, C) of this strain was subjected to a different type of selection pressure having influence on the female body weight. After many generations of experimental selection pressure, the body weight changed as follows:
Group A: Body weight distribution - Normal, $1.8 \pm 0.08\text{ mg}$
Group B: Body weight distribution - Bimodal at $1.4$ and $2.2\text{ mg}$
Group C: Body weight distribution - Normal, $2.2 \pm 0.08\text{ mg}$
Which of the following correctly gives the types of selection that have occurred in the three groups?
a.
Group A: Directional; Group B: Stabilizing; Group C: Disruptive
b.
Group A: Disruptive; Group B: Directional; Group C: Stabilizing
c.
Group A: Stabilizing; Group B: Disruptive; Group C: Directional
d.
Group A: Directional; Group B: Disruptive; Group C: Stabilizing
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Q126
mcq
A few events in the history of life on earth are given below
A. Radiation of mammals and bird; Flourishing of insects and angiosperms
B. Primitive plants and fungi colonize land; Diversification of echinoderms.
C. Seed plants appear; Fishes and Trilobites abundant; earliest amphibians and insects.
D. Earliest birds and Angiosperms appear; Gymnosperms dominant
E. Invasion of land by primitive land plants and Arthropods
F. Mass marine extinctions; Reptiles radiate; Amphibians decline.
Which of the following is a correct match of the above events with the geological period during which they had occurred?
a.
A: Ordovician; B: Tertiary; C: Permian; D: Silurian E: Devonian; F: Jurassic
b.
A: Permian; B: Devonian; C: Silurian; D: Ordovician; E: Tertiary; F: Jurassic
c.
A: Tertiary; B: Ordovician; C: Devonian; D: Jurassic; E: Silurian; F: Permian
d.
A: Permian; B: Devonian; C: Jurassic; D: Tertiary; E: Silurian; F: Ordovician
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Q127
mcq
Following are certain statements regarding the use of \textit{Agrobacterium} in plant transformation.
A. \textit{A. tumefaciens} causes crown gall disease and \textit{A. rhizogenes} causes hairy root disease.
B. Region A in Ti plasmid is responsible for replication.
C. Region D in Ti plasmid is responsible for virulence.
D. Oncogenic (one) region in T-DNA is responsible for unusual amino acid synthesis.
Which one of the following combinations of above statements is correct?
a.
A and B
b.
C and D
c.
A and C
d.
B and D
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Q128
mcq
Cultured animal cells were transfected with expression vector encoding either $\beta$-galactosidase ($\beta$-gal) alone or expressing a fusion protein of $\beta$-gal and glucocorticoid receptor (GR). After transfection, cells were kept in presence or absence of Dexamethasone. Immunofluorescence with a labeled antibody specific for $\beta$-gal was used to detect the expressed protein in cytoplasm or nucleus of transfected cells. Possible results of the experiments are:
A. Expression of $\beta$-gal alone in the cytoplasm in both absence or presence of Dexamethasone.
B. Expression of $\beta$-gal-GR in the cytoplasm in the absence of Dexamethasone.
C. Expression of $\beta$-gal alone in the nucleus both in the presence or absence of Dexamethasone.
D. Expression of $\beta$-gal-GR in the nucleus in presence of Dexamethasone.
E. Expression of $\beta$-gal alone in both cytoplasm and nucleus in presence or absence of Dexamethasone.
F. Expression of $\beta$-gal-GR in both cytoplasm and nucleus in presence of Dexamethasone.
Choose the correct combination of results from the following options.
a.
B, C and D
b.
A, B and D
c.
B, D and E
d.
A, B and F
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Q129
mcq
Four different species concepts are given below:
A. Species separate based on their use of different ecological niches and their presence in different habitats and environments.
B. Differences in physical characteristics or molecular characteristics are used to distinguish species.
C. Species are distinct if they are reproductively isolated.
D. Phylogenetic trees and analysis of ancestry serve to differentiate species.
Which of the following gives the correct names of the above concepts?
a.
A: Biological; B: Phylogenetic; C: Evolutionary; D: Ecological
b.
A: Ecological; B: Phylogenetic; C: Biological; D: Evolutionary
c.
A: Evolutionary; B: Ecological; C: Biological; D: Phylogenetic
d.
A: Phylogenetic; B: Evolutionary; C: Ecological; D: Biological
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Q130
mcq
In order to develop a vaccine against a regulatory T cell-promoting but Th 1 suppressing viral infection, four groups (A-D) of mice were primed with either killed virus (A) or a virus-derived immune dominant peptide (B), or the same peptide but with two substitutions (C) or were left unprimed (D). Upon infection challenge, the order of increasing severity of infection was observed to be $\text{B} > \text{A} > \text{D} > \text{C}$. To explain the contrasting effects of these two peptides (B) and (C), their MHC-binding affinities were assessed but no difference was found. Which of the following possibilities most likely to explain their contrasting effects?
a.
The wild-type peptide (B) elicits T cell expansion but the mutant peptide (C) fails.
b.
The wild-type peptide induces T cell deletion but the mutant peptide does not
c.
The wild-type peptide-MHC complex binds T cell receptor with significantly higher affinity than the mutant peptide-MHC complex.
d.
The wild-type peptide induces deletion of T-Reg cells but increases IFN $\gamma$ production by T cells, whereas the mutant peptide fails to induce these effects.
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Q131
mcq
Marker-assisted selection (MAS) defined as selection based on molecular markers should have some important criterion for plant breeding activities. Some statements about these criteria are mentioned below:
A. Marker should co-segregate with the desired trait of interest.
B. Marker should not co-segregate with the desired trait of interest.
C. Marker should be un-linked with the desired trait of interest.
D. Marker is used for indirect selection of a genetic determinant or determinants of a trait of interest.
Which one of above combinations is correct?
a.
A and B
b.
B and C
c.
C and D
d.
A and D
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Q132
mcq
In a transgenic mice line, lox P sites are introduced in the target gene A in the following manner
This transgenic mice line was mated with another transgenic mice line where Cre recombinase is expressed only in B cells.
What will be the expression profile of gene A in Cre/lox recombinant mice?
a.
Gene will not be expressed in B cells, as orientation of exon 1 will be inverted by Cre.
b.
Gene will not be expressed in B cells, as exon 2 will be deleted by Cre.
c.
Gene will only be expressed in B cells of the recombinant mice where Cre removes the two lox P sites.
d.
Gene will not be expressed in B cells as orientation of exon 2 will be inverted.
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Q133
mcq
A hypothetical gene encodes a protein with the following amino acid sequence:
Phe- Pro- Thr- Ala- Val-Arg- Ser
A mutation of single nucleotide alters the amino acid sequence to
Phe- Leu- Leu- Leu- Leu-
A second single nucleotide mutation occurs in same gene restoring back the amino acid sequence to the original. The following statements were made regarding the nature and location of the first mutation and that of the intragenic suppressor mutation:
A. The first mutation is a deletion in the second codon.
B. The first mutation is an insertion in the second codon.
C. The intragenic suppressor mutation is an insertion in the second codon
D. The intragenic suppressor mutation is a deletion in the third codon
Which combination of the above statements is correct?
a.
A and C
b.
A and D
c.
B and C
d.
B and D
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Q134
mcq
Three Indian animals -cormorant, lion-tailed macaque and gerbil are to be matched with the ecosystem they inhabit -Wetland (A), Desert (B), Deciduous forest (C), or Rain' forest (D). Which of the following is the correct match of each animal with its habitat?
a.
Cormorant - D; Lion-tailed macaque - C; Gerbil - B
b.
Cormorant - A; Lion-tailed macaque - C; Gerbil - D
c.
Cormorant - A; Lion-tailed macaque - D; Gerbil - B
d.
Cormorant - B; Lion-tailed macaque - C; Gerbil - D
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Q135
mcq
The following table summarizes the result of a cross between two strains of *Neurospora* having the alleles $D$ and $d$, respectively. The table shows the different patterns of octad arrangement and the number of ascus observed of each type.
Based on the above, fill in the blanks from the options given below.
"The first two columns are from meiosis with no crossover between locus D and __[A]__. The pattern for these two columns represent __[B]__ segregation pattern. The distance between the locus D and the centromere is __[C]__ map units".
\begin{tabular}{lll}
& \textbf{A} & \textbf{B} & \textbf{C} \\
(a) & d allele & first division & 10 \\
(b) & centromere & first division & 10 \\
(c) & d allele & second division & 20 \\
(d) & centromere & second division & 10
\end{tabular}
a.
d allele, first division, 10
b.
centromere, first division, 10
c.
d allele, second division, 20
d.
centromere, second division, 10
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Q136
mcq
The inheritance pattern of a common trait which shows complete penetrance is shown below:
Based on the above pedigree, fill in the blanks from the options given below:
"The trait is __[A]__. The probability that a child from the marriage of individual III-1 and III-2 will show the trait is __[B]__ considering that the individual III-1 is a carrier of the trait."
a.
A: Y-linked, B: 0
b.
A: Y-linked, B: 1/2
c.
A: Autosomal, B: 1/8
d.
A: Autosomal, B: 1/6
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Q137
mcq
The following statements were made regarding chromosome pairing (shown in the figure below) and subsequent segregation during meiosis-I in the reciprocal translocation heterozygote:
A. Three ways of segregation in Anaphase I would be: adjacent 1 (vertically in the above figure) adjacent 2 (horizontally) and alternate.
B. Gametes resulting from adjacent 1 and adjacent 2 segregation will be non-viable because of deletions and duplications of several genes.
C. All gametes resulting from alternate segregation will be viable as they will carry both normal chromosomes or both chromosomes having trans locations in the two poles, respectively.
D. A dicentric and an acentric chromosome will be generated following alternate segregation.
Which of the following combination of statements will most appropriately explain the consequence?
a.
A, B and D
b.
A, B and C
c.
Only A and B
d.
Only A and C
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Q138
mcq
The list below includes names of animal phyla and classes.
A. Echinodermata
B. Cephalopoda
C. Annelida
D. Mollusca
E. Hirudinea
F. Asteroidea
G. Arthropoda
H. Crustacea. For a leech and lobster, the correct classification of the of phylum and class, respectively, is
a.
Leech: Phylum - D, Class - B; Lobster: Phylum - A, Class -H
b.
Leech: Phylum - C, Class - B; Lobster: Phylum - D, Class - C
c.
Leech: Phylum - C, Class - E; Lobster: Phylum - G, Class - H
d.
Leech: Phylum - A, Class - G; Lobster: Phylum - C, Class - F
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Q139
mcq
10 mM acetate buffer (pH 4.00) is diluted one million times with distilled water (pH 7.00). pH of this diluted buffer is:
(Help: $\log_{10} 10^x = x$; $\log_{10} 1.10 = 0.04$; $\log_{10} 1.01 = 0.004$)
a.
4.00
b.
7.04
c.
8.00
d.
6.96
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Q140
mcq
Consider the structureless oligopeptide R-G-P-S-T-K-M-P-E-Y-G-S-T-D-Q-S-N-W-H-F-R. The number of bonds that will be cleaved by trypsin and chymotrypsin treatments separately, are:
a.
1, 2
b.
2, 2
c.
2, 3
d.
1, 3
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Q141
mcq
The internal energy of a gas increases by 1J when it is compressed by a force of 1 Newton through 2 metres. The heat change of the system is:
a.
1 J
b.
-1 J
c.
2 J
d.
-2 J
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Q142
mcq
$\Delta \text{G}^0$ for the base pairing of oligonucleotides (n = 5) at 300 K is - 18 kJ $\text{mol}^{-1}$ What would be the approximate value of the equilibrium constant K?
a.
100
b.
10
c.
1000
d.
1
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Q143
mcq
The reaction of glutamate and ammonia to glutamine and water has a value of + 14 kJ $\text{mol}^{-1}$ for $\Delta \text{G}^0$. This is coupled with the ATP reaction ($\text{ATP} + \text{H}_2\text{O} \rightarrow \text{ADP} + \text{phosphate}$). The $\Delta \text{G}^0$ for this reaction is -30 kJ $\text{mol}^{-1}$ The $\Delta \text{G}^0$ (kJ $\text{mol}^{-1}$) for the coupled reaction
$$\textbf{Glutamate} + \textbf{NH3} + \textbf{ATP} \rightarrow \textbf{Glutamine} + \textbf{ADP} + \textbf{Phosphate}$$
under equilibrium condition is
a.
16
b.
–44
c.
–16
d.
44
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Q144
mcq
A protein is composed of leucine, isoleucine, alanine, glycine, proline, one lysine, one arginine and two cysteines connected by a disulfide bond. Conformational analysis indicates that the protein has elements of helix and beta structure. The protein is most likely.
a.
a non-specific protease.
b.
not an enzyme
c.
a lipase.
d.
a flippase
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Q145
mcq
Given below are some of the methods used to assess evolutionary phylogenetic relationships among plant taxa.
A. 16S rRNA sequence
B. Mitochondrial microsatellite
C. Biochemical characterization
D. Morphology
Which two of the above methods can best reveal the evolutionary phylogenetic relationships ?
a.
A and B
b.
B and C
c.
C and D
d.
A and D
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