Product inhibition is typically a form of reversible competitive inhibition, where the reaction product structurally resembles the substrate or has affinity for the catalytic center, thereby reversibly binding to and occupying the enzyme's active site to prevent further substrate binding.
Q22mcq
Chirality of DNA is due to
a.
the bases
b.
base stacking
c.
hydrogen bonds between bases
d.
deoxyribose
Correct Answer
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
The intrinsic chirality of a DNA polynucleotide chain arises primarily from the chiral sugar units, specifically D-2-deoxyribose, which contain multiple chiral/asymmetric carbons (C1', C3', and C4'). The nitrogenous bases are planar and achiral.
Q23mcq
Which of the following statements regarding membrane transport is FALSE?
a.
Polar and charged solutes will not cross cell membranes effectively without specific protein carriers.
b.
Each protein carrier will not bind and transport one (or a few very similar) type of solute.
c.
Sugars such as glucose are always transported by active transport rather than by facilitated diffusion carriers.
Correct Answer
d.
Ions are typically transported by special proteins that form membrane channels.
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Statement (c) is false because glucose and other simple sugars are widely transported down their concentration gradients by facilitated diffusion via passive carrier proteins (such as the GLUT family of uniporters), not exclusively by active transport (such as SGLT symporters).
Q24mcq
What will happen if histones are depleted from a metaphase chromosome and viewed under a transmission electron microscope ?
a.
30nm chromatin fibres will be observed.
b.
10nm chromatin fibres will be observed.
c.
A scaffold and a huge number of loops of DNA fibres will be observed.
Correct Answer
d.
A huge number of loops of DNA fibres without scaffold will be observed.
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
When metaphase chromosomes are depleted of histones (e.g., by high salt treatment or dextran sulfate) and viewed under a transmission electron microscope, non-histone chromosomal scaffold proteins (such as topoisomerase II and condensin) remain intact, revealing a central protein scaffold surrounded by a halo of huge, looped DNA fibers (Laemmli's scaffold model).
Q25mcq
In proteins, hydrogen bonds form as follows : Donor (D)-H-Acceptor (A). Hydrogen bond is more favorable if the angle between D-H and A is
a.
$< 90^\circ$
b.
$180^\circ$
Correct Answer
c.
$> 180^\circ$
d.
$120^\circ$
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Hydrogen bonds are strongly directional. The electrostatic attraction and orbital overlap are maximized when the donor atom (D), the hydrogen atom (H), and the acceptor atom (A) lie in a straight line, making the D–H...A bond angle $180^\circ$.
Q26mcq
Leader sequence in some of the protozoan parasites is transcribed elsewhere in the parasite genome and gets joined with several transcripts to make the functional RNA. The joining of the two transcripts occur by the process of
a.
alternate splicing
b.
trans splicing
Correct Answer
c.
ligation
d.
RNA editing
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
In trypanosomatids and certain other organisms, a spliced leader (SL) sequence encoded on a separate transcript is spliced onto the 5' end of various independent pre-mRNA transcripts. This joining of exons derived from two distinct RNA molecules is known as *trans*-splicing.
Q27mcq
Small nucleolar RNAs used to process and chemically modify rRNAs are called
a.
Sca RNAs
b.
Si RNAs
c.
Sno RNAs
Correct Answer
d.
Sn RNAs
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Small nucleolar RNAs (snoRNAs) guide the site-specific processing and chemical modifications—mainly 2'-O-ribose methylation (by box C/D snoRNAs) and pseudouridylation (by box H/ACA snoRNAs)—of precursor ribosomal RNAs (pre-rRNAs) in the nucleolus.
Q28mcq
Proton motive force during oxidative phosphorylation is generated in mitochondria by
a.
exchanging protons for sodium ions
b.
pumping protons out into intermembrane space
Correct Answer
c.
pumping hydroxyl ions into the mitochondria
d.
hydrolysis of ATP
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
During mitochondrial oxidative phosphorylation, electron transport along Complexes I, III, and IV couples exergonic redox reactions to the pumping of protons from the mitochondrial matrix across the inner mitochondrial membrane into the intermembrane space, generating the electrochemical proton gradient (proton motive force).
Q29mcq
During replication, the RNA primer is degraded by the $5'-3'$exonuclease activity of exonuclease activity of
a.
RNase H1 (ribonuclease H1)
b.
FEN-1 (flap endonuclease 1)
Correct Answer
c.
Topoisomerase II B
d.
DNA polymerase $\gamma$
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
In eukaryotic DNA replication, DNA polymerase $\delta$ elongates the Okazaki fragment and displaces the RNA/DNA primer of the preceding fragment, generating a 5' flap. FEN-1 (Flap Endonuclease 1) recognizes and cleaves this 5' flap via its structure-specific $5'\to 3'$ endonuclease/exonuclease activity to remove the primer.
Q30mcq
Which one of the following statements about eukaryotic translation is NOT true ? In eukaryotic translation.
a.
ribosome binding site on mRNA is called Kozak consensus sequences.
b.
initiator tRNA is $\text{tRNA}_i^{f-met}$
Correct Answer
c.
initiator amino acid is methionine
d.
translocation factor is eEF2
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Statement B is NOT true. In eukaryotic translation, the initiator tRNA is designated as $\text{tRNA}_i^{\text{Met}}$ (carrying unformylated methionine). $\text{tRNA}_i^{f-\text{Met}}$ (carrying $N$-formylmethionine) is specific to prokaryotes, mitochondria, and chloroplasts.
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A patient with $\text{ER}^+/\text{PR}^+$ breast cancer was cured with a drug 'T', whereas a second patient did not respond to 'T'. Which one of the following is the best therapy that you should suggest for the second patient?
a.
Surgery, followed by HER-2/neu targeted drugs
b.
A drug that targets triple negative ($\text{ER}^-/\text{PR}^-/\text{HER-2}^-$) breast cancer
c.
Radiation, followed by drug 'T'.
d.
Surgery, followed by radiation only
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If you run a pentavalent IgM through SDS-polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis, how many bands are you supposed to get by Western conjugated secondary antibody ?
a.
Five
b.
Four
c.
Three
d.
One
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Lens formation requires sequential events whereby the anterior neural plate signals the anterior ectoderm to promote secretion of Pax 6, which renders the anterior ectoderm more receptive to secretions from the optic vesicle. The above can be best explained by which of the following phenomenon?
a.
Instructive interactions only
b.
Epithelial- Mesenchymal interactions
c.
Permissive interactions
d.
Induction and competence
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Some T lymphocytes respond to antigenic stimulation by synthesizing a growth factor that causes T cell proliferation thereby increasing the responsive T lymphocytes resulting in amplification of the immune response. This is an example of
a.
endocrine signaling
b.
paracrine signaling
c.
autocrine signaling
d.
cyclic signaling
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Light is the dominant environmental signal that controls stomatal movement in leaves of well-watered plants grown in natural environment. When one of the following wavelengths of light is responsible for such regulation?
a.
Red light
b.
Blue light
c.
Green light
d.
Far-red light
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The plant hormone indole-3-acetic acid (IAA) is present in most plants. The structure of this hormone is related to which one of the following amino acids ?
a.
Glutamic acid
b.
Aspartic acid
c.
Lysine
d.
Tryptophan
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The type-I glomus cells present in the carotid bodies contain granules which release some substances during hypoxia. Which one of the following is released in hypoxia?
a.
Serotonin
b.
GABA
c.
Dopamine
d.
IL 8
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5-Bromouracil is a base analog that can cause mutation when incorporated into DNA. Which of the following is the most likely change that 5-Bromouracil induces:
a.
$\text{T : A}$ to $\text{C : G}$
b.
$\text{T : A}$ to $\text{A : T}$
c.
$\text{G : C}$ to $\text{T : A}$
d.
$\text{C : G}$ to $\text{A : T}$
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The following pedigree shows the inheritance of a common phenotype controlled by an autosomal recessive allele. The probability of carriers in the population is $1/3$.
What is the probability that a child from parents II-3 and II-4 will show the phenotype ?
a.
$1/16$
b.
$1/18$
c.
$1/36$
d.
$3/16$
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An interrupted mating experiment was performed between $Hfr\ Str^s\ a^+\ b^+\ c^+$ and $F^-\ Str^r\ a^-\ b^-\ c^-$ strains. The genotype of majority of streptomycin resistant ($Str^r$) exconjugant after 10, 20 and 30 minutes of interrupted mating is given below :
The most probable gene order would be
a.
$a\ b\ c$
b.
$c\ a\ b$
c.
$b\ a\ c$
d.
$a\ c\ b$
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Two plants with while flowers are crossed. White flowers arise due to recessive mutation. All $\text{F}_1$ progeny have red flowers. Which the $\text{F}_1$ plants are selfed, both red and white flowered progeny are observed. In what ratio will red-flowered plants and white-flowered plants occur?
a.
$1 : 1$
b.
$3 : 1$
c.
$9 : 7$
d.
$15 : 1$
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The population density of an insect species increases from $40$ to $46$ in one month. If the birth rate during that period is $0.4$ what is the death rate ?
a.
$0.25$
b.
$0.15$
c.
$0.87$
d.
$0.40$
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You want to purify a recombinant protein of your interest. You can use affinity chromatography to purify as you have nickel columns available in the laboratory. With what molecule will you tag the protein to purify using those columns?
a.
GST
b.
Histidine
c.
Histamine
d.
Proline
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In an experiment to detect a new protein in fixed cells, no secondary antibody tagged with fluorescence dye is available. What should be the best choice out of the following to detect the protein?
a.
Protein A-FITC
b.
Protein A-Sepharose
c.
Biotin-FITC
d.
Avidin-FITC
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If a researcher intends to identify a specific brain area activity linked to a cognitive function in human subjects, which one of the following techniques should be used?
a.
CAT
b.
MRI
c.
fMRI
d.
Patch-clamp
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A gene producing red pigment was placed near centromeres of fission yeast and thus subjected to position effect variegation and produced white colonies, A screen for mutants that increased the red pigment production was undertaken. Which of the following genes, when mutated, is likely to produce this genotype?
a.
Histone deacetylase
b.
Histone acetylase
c.
RNA polymerase II
d.
TATA binding factor
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In order to prove that liposome can serve as a model membrane (mimicking cellular plasma membrane) and can be used as a target for complement-mediated immunolysis, an experiment as below is designed. To initiate such experiment, hapten-conjugated liposomes are made and loaded with umbelliferyl phosphate (UMP; hydrolysed product of UMP is umbelliferone and is fluorescent). Such laded, hapten-conjugated liposomes in 10 mM Tris buffered saline, pH 7.4 were mixed with anti hapten antibodies and fresh guinea pig serum (as a source of complement) to induce immunolysis of liposomal membrane. To quantify only the membrane lysis component which of the assay sequences below is MOST appropriate ?
a.
Mixture is ultra centrifuged and the supernatant reacted with alkaline phosphatase and fluorescence measured
b.
Mixture is sequentially reacted with phospholipase and alkaline phosphatase followed by fluorescence measurements
c.
Mixture is directly subjected to fluorescence measurement
d.
Mixture is treated with Triton X-100 and fluorescence measured
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A null mutation is created in a gene which is responsible for specific phosphorylation at 6th carbon position of mannose on acid hydrolases occurring in cis-Golgi. The following statements are given towards explaining the effect of this mutation :
A. The lysosomes will be devoid of lysosomal enzymes.
B. Lysosomal enzymes will be secreted out.
C. Lysosomal enzymes will get localized in cytoplasm.
Which statements or combination of statements will explain the effect of mutation if the acid hydrolases in the mutant do not get degraded ?
a.
A and C
b.
B and C
c.
C only
d.
A and B
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A newly identified sequence was experimentally tested by in vitro transport assay using a radiolabelled protein containing the sequence to test import into mitochondria. Transport assay was done for a short time with or without membrane potential and after the assay, the mitochondria were either treated or not treated with proteinase K. At the end of the assay the mitochondria were pelleted and total protein of the pellet was isolated and separated on SDS-PAGE and autoradiographed. A representative autoradiogram is shown below. Based on this experimental data, which of the following statements is NOT correct.
a.
The protein goes into the matrix
b.
Not all of the added protein was imported
c.
The protein requires membrane potential for import
d.
The protein is associated with the outer mitochondrial membrane
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Enzyme parameters of four isozymes is given below :
| Isozyme | $\text{K}_\text{m}\text{ micromolar}$ | $\text{V}_\text{max}$ |
| :--- | :--- | :--- |
| A | 0.1 | 15 |
| B | 1.5 | 45 |
| C | 4.0 | 100 |
| D | 0.01 | 10 |
These isozymes are localized in different tissues. In liver the substrate concentration is $0.2\text{ micromolar}$. The liver isozyme is likely to be
a.
A
b.
B
c.
C
d.
D
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Two homologous proteins were isolated from a psychrophile (P) and a thermophile (T). The purified proteins were subjected to denaturation, proteases digestion and circular dichroism (CD). Following observations were made :
A. The CD spectra of P and T proteins are identical
B. Their amino acid composition is 95% identical
C. T and P are equally susceptible to proteolysis in the presence or absence of reducing agent
D. T has higher midpoint of thermal denaturation than P
The reason for enhanced stability in T is due to
a.
Altered secondary structure
b.
Increased number of disulfides in T
c.
Increase in water of hydration
d.
Increase in number of salt bridges
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Binding of two ligands to their binding proteins were investigated. Following binding isotherms were obtained.
Which of the following statements is correct?
a.
A is obtained with an oligomeric protein and B is obtained with a monomeric protein
b.
B is obtained with protein with positive cooperativity
c.
A and B were obtained by the same protein at two different temperatures
d.
The profile B is not possible
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Puromycin is an antibiotic used to inhibit protein synthesis. Given below are few statements about the antibiotic.
A. It enters the E-site of the ribosome where it prevents the release of deacetylated tRNA after the action of peptidyl transferase.
B. It blocks the translocation process by binding to the translocation factor EF-G.
C. Puromycin resembles the initiator tRNA, $\text{tRNA}_i^{f-\text{met}}$ and binds exclusively to the P-site.
D. It resembles the aminoacyl tRNA and binds to the A-site of the ribosome.
E. Puromycin inhibits only prokaryotic protein synthesis.
F. Puromycin inhibits both prokaryotic and eukaryotic protein synthesis.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are true?
a.
A and E
b.
B only
c.
D and F
d.
C and E
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Total RNA was isolated separately from cytosol and nuclei of human cells growing in a cell culture. Each sample was mixed with a purified denatured fragment of a DNA corresponding to a large intron of a house keeping gene and incubated under renaturating condition. Given below are the statements made about the outcome of the experiment.
A. RNA isolated from nuclei will form RNA-DNA duplexes because of the presence of introns in the primary RNA.
B. Cytosolic RNAs usually will not form RNA-DNA duplexes. C. Both cytosolic and nuclear RNA will not form RNA-DNA duplexes as transcription and splicing occur simultaneously.
D. Cytosolic RNA will from RNA-DNA duplexes because unspliced cytosolic RNAs are exceptionally stable.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are most likely to be true?
a.
Only C
b.
A and D
c.
A and C
d.
Only D
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A promoter deletion study was done in order to determine the binding sites for a transcription factor on the promoter which is activated on treatment with the durg 'X'. The following constructs were made.
Luciferase assay revealed the following results
The following statements can be made.
(i) Region between -1800 and 1210 contains a binding site for the activator.
(ii) Region between-868 and 1210 contains a binding site for a repressor.
(iii) Region between -868 and -432 contains a binding site for a repressor.
(iv) Region between -1210 and -868 contains a binding site for in activator.
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A pharmacy student designed a drug to specifically target the receptors for retinoic acid in order to prevent stem cell differentiation. After *in vitro* trial, the investigator found that the cells underwent differentiation and the drug seemed to be ineffective. The following reasons were given by the student.
A. The size of the drug exceeded the size of molecules that could cross the membrane.
B. The drug was small in size but hydrophobic in nature.
C. The drug did not bind to its receptors.
Which of the above could be the probable reason for drug ineffectiveness ?
a.
Only C
b.
A and C
c.
A, B and C
d.
Only B
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The following graph represents the expression of tryptophan synthetase (TS) in $E. coli$ cells in absence ($\square$) or presence ($\blacksquare$) of tryptophan in the medium
If the two trp codons in the leader sequence of trp operon is mutated to ala, which of the following graphs will best represent activity of TS in $E. coli$ cells grown in the absence ($\square$) or presence ($\blacksquare$) of tryptophan?
a.
Graph (a)
b.
Graph (b)
c.
Graph (c)
d.
Graph (d)
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The lifetime of a peptide bond in proteins is very large (~1000 years). Which statement below is INCORRECT with respect to stability of the peptide bond?
a.
The free energy of hydrolysis is negative
b.
The free energy of hydrolysis is positive and large
c.
The energy barrier to be crossed to go to the hydrolyzed state is large
d.
The peptide bond can be hydrolyzed by 6N HCl at 100°C
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Following are certain statements related to eukaryotic DNA replication :
A. The genome of multicellular animals contain many potential origins of replication.
B. During early development, when embryos are undergoing rapid cell divisions, origin sites are uniformly activated.
C. “Pulse-chase” technique is used to label sites of DNA replication.
D. The rate of elongation of different DNA chains during genome replication varies drastically.
Which one of the following combinations of above statements is correct?
a.
A, B and C
b.
A, C and D
c.
B, C and D
d.
A, B and D
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A researcher wanted to immunize individuals of particular area with viral infections. The researcher developed two different vaccine types (A and B) with the following properties.
(i) When vaccine type A specific for a viral strain is administered to individuals, they develop strong neutralizing antibody response with very poor immunological memory. Hence it has to be administered in repetitive doses.
(ii) When vaccine type B specific for a viral strain is administered to individuals, they fail to develop circulating antibody response at the time of infection but they develop strong immunological memory.
If two viral strains V1 (incubation period-2 days) and V2 (incubation period-15 days) are likely to infect the area, which of the following vaccine combination would provide maximum immunization ?
a.
V1 specific type A and V1 specific type B
b.
V1 specific type A and V2 specific type B
c.
V2 specific type A and V1 specific type B
d.
V2 specific type A and V2 specific type B
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The expression of a hypothetical gene was analyzed by Northern and Western blot hybridizations under control and induced condition. The results are summarized below :
Expression of genes can be regulated by : Which of the above regulatory mechanisms can explain the observations shown in the figures?
a.
control at transcription initiation.
b.
alternative splicing.
c.
control of translation initiation.
d.
protein stability.
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For successful fertilization in sea urchin, interaction between the surface of the egg and acrosomal proteins, specifically a 30.5 kDa protein called bindin, is necessary. The following factors could affect this interaction and prevent fertilization:
A. Removal of egg jelly polysaccharides.
B. Removal of bindin receptors on the egg vitelline membrane.
C. Removal of bindin receptors from the egg jelly.
D. Removal of bindin receptors from a single cluster on the vitelline membrane.
Which one or the combination of the above statements is correct?
a.
A and D
b.
Only B.
c.
A and B
d.
Only C
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A mutant embryo of Drosophila in which one of the major sex determining gene, sex lethal, can only undergo default splicing, was allowed to develop. The following statements are towards explaining the determination of sex of the embryo:
A. The embryo will develop into a male fly
B. The embryo will develop into a female fly
C. sex lethal gene product directly regulates sex specific alternate splicing of double sex RNA
D. sex lethal gene product regulates sex specific splicing of transformer RNA which in turn regulates splicing of double sex RNA
The correct combination of above statements to explain sex determination of the given embryo is:
a.
A and C
b.
A and D
c.
B and D
d.
B and C
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A two-celled embryo is made of blastomeres A and B. If the two blastomeres are experimentally separated, the ‘A’ blastomere generates all the cells it would normally make. However, the ‘B’ blastomere in isolation makes only a small fraction of cells it would normally make.
Based on the above observations only, which one of the following conclusions is correct?
a.
‘A’ blastomeres is autonomously specified while ‘B’ blastomere is conditionally specified
b.
‘A’ blastomeres is conditionally specified while ‘B’ blastomere is autonomously specified
c.
Descendants of ‘A’ blastomeres are autonomously specified
d.
Descendants of ‘B’ blastomeres can either be autonomously specified or conditionally specified.
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A mutant was experimentally generated which had wings reduced to haltere like structure. The following statements are put forward regarding this phenotype:
A. ultrabithorax gene ectopically expressed in second thoracic segment
B. antennapedia gene ectopically expressed in second thoracic segment
C. A homeotic mutation,
D. A mutation in gap gene
The following combination of statements will be most appropriate explaining the molecular basis of mutant phenotype:
a.
A and B
b.
B and C
c.
C and D
d.
A and C
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Following are certain statements regarding the activities of homeotic genes of classes A, B and C involved in floral organ identity:
A. Activity of A alone specifies sepals
B. Activity of B alone specifies petals
C. Activities of B and C form stamens
D. Activity of C alone specifies carpels
Which one of the following combinations of above statements is correct?
a.
A, B and C
b.
A, B and D
c.
B, C and D
d.
A, C and D
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Which one of the following statements about cell-cell interactions is NOT true? C. Selectins are cell surface lectins that mediate a variety of transient, cell-cell adhesion interactions in the bloodstream.
D. ICAMs (intracellular cell adhesion molecules) and VCAMs (vascular cell adhesion molecules) are members of immunoglobulin (Ig) superfamily.
a.
Cadherins are transmembrane linker proteins which carry out $\text{Ca}^{2+}$-mediated adhesion between adjacent cells.
b.
Integrins are transmembrane adhesion proteins that mediate homophilic adhesion through actin and intermediate filaments.
c.
Both C and D
d.
Both A and D
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A technician wanted to make rabbit antiserum specific for mouse IgG. The technician injected rabbit with purified mouse IgG but obtained antiserum which reacted strongly with each of the other mouse isotypes. Which of the procedures mentioned below will allow him to make antiserum specific for IgG only?
a.
Injecting rabbit with purified $\text{F(ab)'}_2$ region for the IgG antibody.
b.
Injecting rabbit with purified heavy chain of the IgG antibody.
c.
Injecting rabbit with purified light chain of the IgG antibody.
d.
Injecting rabbit with purified $\text{F(ab)'}$ region of the IgG antibody.
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In order to precipitate a particular protein by its specific antiserum, it was found that the protein formed cross-linked lattice with specific polyclonal antiserum but failed to precipitate with specific monoclonal antiserum. Which of the following would accurately justify the reason for this behavior?
a.
The protein has multiple copies of the same epitope specific for the monoclonal antibody.
b.
The protein has multiple distinct epitopes but each has a single copy.
c.
There is total absence of epitopes in the protein.
d.
The protein has multiple copies of different epitopes.
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You have isolated a short chain polypeptide from a bacteria which upon administering to animal cells in culture is demonstrated to get transported to mitochondria and to cause mitochondrial membrane disruption. This peptide is being considered for its therapeutic effects on cancer and is to be tested for its anticancer properties in the following models of the disease.
A. Cancer with Apaf- 1 mutation.
B. Cancer where Bax genes are inactivated.
C. Cancer when Bak genes are inactivated.
Which of the following is likely to provide best effect (i.e., induce apoptosis).
a.
Only A
b.
B and C
c.
A and B
d.
A and C
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Activation of the Wnt signal transduction pathway is extremely important during early development. Of the various pathways, which one of the following is most likely to induce cytoskeletal changes, like cell shape and movement?
A transgenic lettuce plant was generated by over-expressing isopentenyl transferase (IPT) gene under the control of the promoter of senescence activator gene (SAG12). Following are some statements regarding this transgenic plant. The transgenic plants
A. exhibit delayed senescence.
B. exhibit fast senescence.
C. have higher amount of cytokinin during senescence.
D. have higher amount of gibberellins during senescence.
Which one of the following combinations of above statements is correct ?
a.
A and B
b.
A and C
c.
B and D
d.
C and D
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Following are certain statements regarding $\text{C}_3$, $\text{C}_4$ and CAM plants ?
(i) The ratio of water loss to $\text{CO}_2$ uptake is higher in CAM plants than it is in either $\text{C}_3$ and $\text{C}_4$ plants
(ii) The rate of photosynthesis attains maximum rate at lower intracellular $\text{CO}_2$ partial pressure in $\text{C}_4$ plants than in $\text{C}_3$ plants.
(iii) The compensation point in $\text{C}_3$ plants are always lower than $\text{C}_4$ plants
(iv) Plants with C4 metabolism need less rubisco than $\text{C}_3$ plants to achieve a given rate of photosynthesis.
Which of the following combinations of above statements is correct ?
a.
A and B
b.
A and C
c.
C and D
d.
B and D
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Following are certain statements regarding secondary metabolites found in plants :
A. All terpenes are derived from a six-carbon element.
B. Alkaloids are nitrogen containing compounds.
C. Pyrethroids, a monoterpene ester found in the leaves and flower of Chrysamthmum species, show insecticidal activity.
D. Limonoids are groups of alkaloids and have antiherbivoral activity.
Which one of the following combinations of above statements is correct?
a.
A and B
b.
A and D
c.
B and C
d.
C and D
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Light is crucial for plant growth and development. Following are certain statements related to photoreceptors in model plant Arabidopsis thaliana.
A. Among the five phytochrome genes, representing a gene family, PHYB plays a predominant role in red-light perception.
B. Cryptochromes are involved in the regulation of flowering time and hypocotyl length.
C. phyA photoreceptor is predominantly involved in far-red light perception.
D. The LOV domain of phytochrome C(PHYC) is an important domain for signal transmission.
Which one of the following combinations of above statements is correct?
a.
A, B and C
b.
A, C and D
c.
B, C and D
d.
A, B and D
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One of the important functions of program cell death (PCD) in plants is protection against pathogens. PCD also appears to occur during the differentiation of xylem tracheary elements that leads to nuclei and chromatin degradation. These changes result form the certain genes encoding.
A. Topoisomerase
B. Nuclease
C. RNA polymerase
D. Protease
Which one of the following combinations of the above is involved in differentiation of xylem tracheary elements ?
a.
A and B
b.
B and C
c.
C and D
d.
D and A
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Following are some statements related to osmotic stress in plants.
A. The accumulation of ions during osmotic adjustment is predominantly restricted to the vacuoles.
B. In order to maintain the water potential equilibrium within the cell, other solutes called as compatible solutes or compatible osmolytes accumulate in the cytoplasm.
C. Galactose is one of the compatible osmolytes involved in osmotic stress in plants.
D. There are mainly four groups of molecules that frequently serve as compatible solutes.
Which one of the following combinations of above statements is correct?
a.
A, B and C
b.
B, C and D
c.
A, B and D
d.
A, C and D
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Different frequencies of sound were presented on the ear and the movement of basilar membrane was experimentally determined. The characteristics of movement of basilar membrane after presentation of 100 Hz sound are described in the following statements :
A. The base of basilar membrane showed resonance.
B. The apex of basilar membrane showed resonance. C. A wave travelled from the base to apex of basilar membrane but the maximum displacement was noted near the apex.
D. A wave travelled from the base to apex of basilar membrane but the maximum displacement was noted near the base.
Which one of the following is correct?
a.
A and C
b.
B and D
c.
C only
d.
D only
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The changes in left ventricular stroke work (LVSW) according to the different left ventricular end-diastolic pressures (LVEDP, which indicates the initial myocardial fiber length) in a dog, under control conditions, were recorded, which follows. Starling's law of the heart. This LVSW-LVEDP relationship was investigated in the same dog after constant infusion of norepinephrine, and these two data sets were plotted. Which one of the following graphs correctly represents the results obtained?
a.
(a)
b.
(b)
c.
(c)
d.
(d)
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When a nerve fiber is stimulated with increasing strength of stimulus, the action potential fails to generate even though the threshold level may be passed. The following statements may explain this accommodation of nerve fiber :
A. The critical number of open sodium channels required to trigger the action potential may never be attained due to slow depolarization.
B. Potassium channels open in response to slow depolarization, which makes the nerve fiber refractory to depolarization.
C. The low threshold sodium channels remain open, which increases the threshold of firing of action potential.
D. The efflux of sodium and influx of potassium due to operation of $\text{Na}^+, \text{K}^+$-ATPase oppose the depolarization.
Which one of the following is correct?
a.
A only
b.
A and B
c.
C only
d.
C and D
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The heart rate shows variation during respiratory rhythm in most human subjects. Which one of the following statements describing the changes of heart rate during respiratory phases is true?
a.
The heart rate is accelerated during expiration, but no change occurs during inspiration.
b.
The heart rate is accelerated during inspiration and decelerated during expiration.
c.
The heart rate is accelerated during expiration and decelerated during inspiration.
d.
The heart rate is accelerated during inspiration and no change occurs during expiration.
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Autotetraploids arise by the doubling of $2n$ complement to $4n$. There are three different pairing possibilities at meiosis in tetraploids as given below :
A. Two bivalents
B. One quadrivalent
C. One univalent + one trivalent
Which of the above pairings can lead to production of diploid gamete ?
a.
Only A
b.
B and C
c.
A and C
d.
A and B
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At 17 years, a 7 feet tall human was diagnosed with gigantism caused by pituitary tumor. The condition was surgically corrected by removal of the person's pituitary gland. Doctors advised hormonal therapy. The possible hormonal therapies that would be required for survival are
A. Thyroid hormone
B. Glucocorticoids
C. Glucagon
D. Growth hormone
E. Insulin
Which one of the following combination can be used ?
a.
A and B only
b.
B and D only
c.
A, B and D
d.
A, C and E
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Given below are few statements with reference to blood clot formation which results from triggered chain of reactions :
A. Conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin.
B. Activation of factor XIII, which stabilizes fibrin mesh work.
C. Activation of factor XII, which promotes plasmin activation.
D. Enhancement of platelet aggregation.
Which one of the following combination of statements is correct with reference to roles of thrombin in hemostasis?
a.
B, C and D
b.
A, B and D
c.
A, C and D
d.
A, B and C
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The following is the amino acid sequence of a part of a protein encoded by gene 'X'.
....Phe Leu Val Pro Ser Tyr Cys ......
A mutant for gene 'X' is isolated following treatment with a mutagen. The amino acid sequence of the same region encoded by the mutant gene is as follows :
....Phe Leu Phe Arg Arg Ile .....
Which of the following mutagens is most likely to have been used ?
a.
5-bromouracil
b.
2-amino-purine
c.
Ethyl methanesulfonate
d.
Acridine orange
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Following four type of species were observed in a community :
A. Species A has a large effect on community because of its abundance.
B. Species B has a large role in community out of proportion to its abundance.
C. Status of species C provides information on the overall health of an ecosystem.
D. Significant conservation resources are allocated to species D which is single, large and instantly recognizable.
According to above description, species A, B, C and D are called respectively,
a.
Dominant, Keystone, Indicator and Flagship.
b.
Keystone, Flagship, Dominant and Indicator.
c.
Keystone, Dominant, Indicator and Flagship.
d.
Flagship, Dominant, Keystone and Indicator.
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In *Neurospora*, the mutant *stp* exhibits erratic stop-and-start growth. When a female of *stp* strain is crossed with a normal strain acting as a male, all progeny individuals showed *stp* mutant phenotype. However, the reciprocal cross resulted in all normal progeny individuals. These results can be explained on the basis of
A. maternal inheritance
B. sex limited inheritance C. sex influenced inheritance
D. $stp$ mutation may be located in mitochondrial DNA
The most appropriate statement or combination of the above statements for explaining the experimental results is :
a.
A and C
b.
C only
c.
A and D
d.
B and D
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A co-transduction experiment was performed to decipher the linear order of 4 genes: $a$, $b$, $c$ and $d$. Three sets of experiments were done where transductants were selected for $a$ (Set-1) or $b$ (Set-2) or $c$ (Set-3) and screened for co-transduction of the other markers.
**Set-1**
Selected for | Co-transduction | Frequency
$a$ | $b$ | 31
$a$ | $c$ | 3
$a$ | $d$ | 89
**Set-2**
Selected for | Co-transduction | Frequency
$b$ | $a$ | 22
$b$ | $c$ | 78
$b$ | $d$ | 68
**Set-3**
Selected for | Co-transduction | Frequency
$c$ | $a$ | 0
$c$ | $b$ | 69
$c$ | $d$ | 43
Based on the frequencies shown above, identify the most likely order in the genome.
a.
$a\ b\ c\ d$
b.
$b\ c\ d\ a$
c.
$c\ d\ a\ b$
d.
$a\ d\ b\ c$
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A hypothetical biochemical pathway for the formation of eye color in insect is given below :
Two autosomal recessive mutants '$a$' and '$b$' are identified which block the pathway as shown above. Considering that the mutants are not linked, what will be the phenotype of the $\text{F}_2$ progeny if crosses were made between parents of the genotype $aaBB \times AAbb$, and the $\text{F}_1$ progeny are intercrossed?
a.
9 orange-brown : 3 orange : 3 brown : 1 colorless
b.
9 orange-brown : 7 colorless
c.
1 orange : 2 colorless
d.
15 orange-brown : 1 colorless
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An analysis of four microsatellite markers was carried out in a family showing a genetic disorder. The results are summarized below :
Based on the above, which of the markers shows linkage to the disorder?
a.
M1
b.
M2
c.
M3
d.
M4
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In Group I are given 4 orders of class Insecta. Match each one with a common name (Group II) and its diagnostic characters (Group III)
**Group III**
(i) Elongate, membranous wings with net-like venation, abdomen long and slender, compound eyes occupy most of head, hemimetabolous metamorphosis.
(ii) Elongate chewing mouthparts, thread-like antennae, abdomen with unsegmented forceps-like cerci, hemimetabolous metamorphosis.
(iii) Forewing long, narrow and leathery, hind wing broad and membranous, chewing mouthparts, hemimetabolous metamorphosis.
(iv) Elongate abdomen with two or three tail filaments, two pairs of membranous wings with many veins, forewings triangular, short, bristle-like antennae, hemimetabolous metamorphosis.
(v) Adults with reduced mouthparts, elongate antennae, long cerci, nymphs aquatic with gills, hemimetabolous metamorphosis.
(vi) Wings membranous with few veins, well developed ovipositors, sometimes modified into a sting, mouth parts modified for biting and lapping, holometabolous metamorphosis.
a.
A-J-(ii)
b.
B-I-(vi)
c.
C-II-(v)
d.
D-F-(i)
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Which of the following is a correct match of the animal with its attribute?
\begin{tabular}{ll}
\textbf{Animal} & \textbf{Attribute} \\
A. Rotifer & (i) Naupliuas larval stage \\
B. Sea anemone & (ii) Radial symmetry \\
C. Barnacle & (iii) Pseudocoelomate body cavity \\
D. Sea urchin & (iv) Water vascular system
\end{tabular}
a.
A - (iii), B - (ii), C - (i), D - (iv)
b.
A - (ii), B - (iii), C - (i), D - (iv)
c.
A - (iii), B - (iv), C - (i), D - (ii)
d.
A - (iv), B - (iii), C - (ii), D - (i)
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The possible relationships between level of disturbance and species diversity in a biological community are that species diversity
A. is unaffected by disturbance.
B. is highest at intermediate levels of disturbance.
C. decreases exponentially with increasing levels of disturbance.
D. starts decreasing only at higher levels of disturbance.
Match each graph with its corresponding statements above :
In life history evolution there is generally a trade-off between the size and number of offspring produced. Some conditions are listed below :
A. Scarcity of food during the early stages of life.
B. Provision of parental care.
C. High mortality during early stages of life.
D. Predator's preference for large sized prey.
What are the above two conditions that would favour the production of a small number of large-sized offspring?
a.
B and C
b.
B and D
c.
A and B
d.
A and C
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Following is a table showing selected characteristics of important fungal groups.
\begin{tabular}{ll}
Fungal group & Characteristic \\
A & No regularly occurring scpta in thallus \\
B & Perfrated septa \\
C & Forms arbuscular mycorrhizae on plant roots \\
D & Have zoospores with flagellia
\end{tabular}
In the above table, the fungal group A, B, C and D, are respectively.
The diagram represents competition between species 1 and species 2 according to Lotka-Volterra model of competition
Given the conditions in the diagram, the predicted outcome of competition is
a.
Unstable coexistence between species 1 and 2 because $\text{K}_1 > \text{K}_2/\beta$ and $\text{K}_2 > \text{K}_1/\alpha$
b.
Unstable coexistence between species 1 and 2 because $\text{K}_1 < \text{K}_2/\beta$ and $\text{K}_2 < \text{K}_1/\alpha$
c.
Stable coexistence between species 1 and 2 because $\text{K}_1 > \text{K}_2/\beta$ and $\text{K}_2 > \text{K}_1/\alpha$
d.
Stable coexistence between species 1 and 2 because $\text{K}_1 < \text{K}_2/\beta$ and $\text{K}_2 < \text{K}_1/\alpha$
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Two kinds of natural selection (A and B) acting on a trait are shown in the figure below. In each, the top graph shows the trait frequency before and the bottom graph frequency after the action of natural selection.
The kind of natural selection in A and B are
a.
A - Directional, B - Disruptive
b.
A - Neutral, B - Disruptive
c.
A - Stabilizing, B - Disruptive
d.
A - Disruptive, B - Stabilizing
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A student was asked to design a knockout cassette for specifically deleting the $p53$ gene from the prostate gland of mice. Which one of the following pairs of cassettes will ensure deletion of the gene?
a.
(a)
b.
(b)
c.
(c)
d.
(d)
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In a random sample of 400 individuals from a population with alleles of a trait in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, 36 individuals are homozygous for allele $a$. How many individuals in the sample are expected to carry at least one allele A?
a.
36
b.
168
c.
364
d.
196
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Individual A performs to another individual a behavioral act which has a fitness consequence. Match the behavioral acts (A to E) with the correct fitness consequence ((i) to (iv)).
\begin{tabular}{|l|l|l|l|}
\hline
\multicolumn{2}{|c|}{\textbf{Behavioral act}} & \multicolumn{2}{c|}{\textbf{Fitness consequence to A}} \\
\hline
A & Cooperation & I & Gains direct fitness but after delay \\
\hline
B & Adaptive altruism & II & Loses inclusive fitness \\
\hline
C & Spite & III & Gain indirect fitness \\
\hline
D & Deceit and manipulation & IV & Gains direct fitness but immediately \\
\hline
E & Reciprocity & & \\
\hline
\end{tabular}
a.
A - (iv), B - (iii), C - (ii), D - (ii), E - (i)
b.
A - (i), B - (ii), C - (ii), D - (iii), E - (iv)
c.
A - (i), B - (iii), C - (ii), D - (ii), E - (iv)
d.
A - (ii), B - (ii), C - (iii), D - (i), E - (iv)
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Assume that individual A wants to do an altruistic act to individual B and that the benefit and cost of doing this act are, in 'fitness' units, $40$ and $12$, respectively According to Hamilton's Rule, A should perform the altruistic act only if B is this
a.
nephew
b.
niece
c.
grandson or granddaughter
d.
daughter or son
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In an attempt to detect protein expression profile in a cell, Western blot technique is employed. Expression of two new proteins is to be followed by probing with respective high affinity antibodies (raised in rabbit). Unfortunately, the two proteins were found to co-migrate in SDS-PAGE profile. Under this situation using one dimensional SDS-PAGE and by Western blot, which one of the following is the best way to demonstrate the presence of both the proteins?
a.
Develop Western blots with their antibodies in the same gel.
b.
Prior to doing SDS-PAGE/Western blot, one protein could be removed by immuno precipitating in the cell extracts.
c.
Silencing the expression of one protein at a time by siRNA and performing Western blotting.
d.
Subjecting the technique of stripping/reprobating of the gel after transferring to nitrocellulose membrane while doing Western blotting.
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Nichrome coated stainless steel electrodes were implanted in a rat brain for chronically recording the electrical activity of deep brain structures. During a study of 3 months the intensity of electrical signals gradually decreased. The following statements may explain the cause of this observation.
A. The deposition of metallic iron from the electrode tips caused degeneration of some neurons.
B. The gradual accumulation of microglia at the electrode tips increased the resistance of electrodes.
C. The neurons at the electrode tips were hyperpolarized gradually.
D. The threshold for firing action potential in the neurons at the electrodes tips was increased due to prolonged presence of electrodes.
Which one of the following is correct?
a.
A only
b.
A and B
c.
C only
d.
C and D
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The number of seeds in the fruit of a plant species, $\text{H0} : \mu = 30$. A random sample of 9 fruits gives the mean number of seeds as 24 with a standard divination of 6.12. (A) What are the confidence limits for the sample mean? (b) Would your reject or accept the null hypothesis at $95\%$ confidence level?
a.
(A) 18 and 30, and (B) reject the hypothesis
b.
(A) 20 and 28, and (B) reject the hypothesis
c.
(A) 20 and 28, and (B) reject the hypothesis
d.
(A) 18 and 30, and (B) reject the hypothesis
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A chromatin immuno precipitation (ChIP) assay was performed to determine specific transcription factor binding sites on the promoter of a gene. Pull down was done using either IgG or antibodies against c-myc. A DNA containing c-myc binding regions was used as a control for PCR amplification (input). Which one of the following PCR representations of DNA is correct ?
a.
(a)
b.
(b)
c.
(c)
d.
(d)
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Following are certain statements regarding somatic hybridization, a technique used for plant improvement.
(i) Protoplasts of only sexually compatible plant species can be fused.
(ii) Hybrids are produced with variable and asymmetric amounts of genetic material of parental species
(iii) Protoplast fusion permits transfer of gene block or chromosomes.
(iv) Genes to be transferred need to be identified and isolated.
Whuich one of the following combinations of the above statements is correct ?
a.
A and C
b.
B and C
c.
A and D
d.
B and D
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A researcher was repeating a FACS experiment but somehow get confused with the labeling of the tubes. There are four tubes, one control, C (with no fluorescent label), one standard 1, S1 (with FITC label), one standard 2, S2 (with PE label) and the last one test, T (which should be FITC positive). Given below is the result of the FACS experiment. What should be the correct labeling?
a.
a, S2; b, S1; c, T; d, C
b.
a, S1; b, T; c, C; d, S2
c.
a, S2; b, S1/T; c, C; d, S1/T
d.
a, S1/T; b, S2; c, S1/T; d, C
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Small molecular weight compounds affect the activity of luciferase differently. The oil/water solubility of various compounds is one property important for its effect on luciferase. The straight line in the graph was obtained by plotting the activity data with 50 different compounds. The luciferase activity, of two new derivatives of Benzene (A and B) are shown below :
Which of the following statements is correct?
a.
A is phosphate and B is amine
b.
A is methyl and B is amine
c.
A is methyl and B is propyl
d.
A is amine and B is phosphate
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