On the molar scale which of the following interactions in a nonpolar environment provides highest contribution to the bio-molecule?
a.
Van der Waals interaction
b.
Hydrogen bonding
c.
Salt bridge
Correct Answer
d.
Hydrophobic interaction
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
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Coulomb's Law states that the electrostatic force between two opposite charges is inversely proportional to the dielectric constant ($\varepsilon$) of the medium ($F = \frac{q_1 q_2}{4\pi \varepsilon r^2}$). In a nonpolar environment (low dielectric constant, $\varepsilon \approx 2\text{--}4$), electrostatic interactions like a salt bridge (ionic interaction) become extremely strong (up to $40\text{--}80\text{ kJ/mol}$ or more), contributing significantly more energy per mole than hydrogen bonds, van der Waals interactions, or hydrophobic interactions.
Q22mcq
Michaelis and Menten derived their equation using which of the following assumption?
a.
Rate limiting step in the reaction is the breakdown of ES complex to product and free enzyme
Correct Answer
b.
Rate limiting step in the reaction is the formation of ES complex
c.
Concentration of the substrate can be ignored
d.
Non-enzymatic degradation of the substrate is the major step
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
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In the original derivation by Leonor Michaelis and Maud Menten (1913), it was assumed that the substrate binds rapidly and reversibly to the enzyme to form the enzyme-substrate ($ES$) complex, reaching a rapid equilibrium, and that the breakdown of $ES$ to form product and free enzyme ($ES \xrightarrow{k_2} E + P$) is the rate-limiting step.
Q23mcq
In which form of DNA, the number of base pairs per helical turn is 10.5?
a.
A
b.
B
Correct Answer
c.
X
d.
Z
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
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In physiological aqueous solution, B-DNA has approximately 10.5 base pairs per helical turn (with an axial rise of about 0.34 nm per base pair). A-DNA has about 11 base pairs per turn, and Z-DNA has 12 base pairs (or 6 dimer units) per turn.
Q24mcq
In contrast with plant cells, the most distinctive feature of cell division in animal cells is
a.
control of cell cycle transition by protein kinase
b.
enzyme responsible for DNA replication
c.
ubiquitin-dependent pathway for protein degradation
d.
pattern of chromosome movement
Correct Answer
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
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Plant and animal cells differ significantly in the pattern of chromosome movement and spindle organization during division. Plant cells lack centrosomes/centrioles and form anastral mitotic spindles, and cytokinesis occurs via cell plate formation (phragmoplast), unlike the cleavage furrow in animal cells. Cell cycle transitions controlled by protein kinases (CDKs), DNA replication enzymes, and ubiquitin-mediated proteolysis (APC/C) are universally conserved between plants and animals.
Q25mcq
Most common type of phospholipid in the cell membrane of nerve cells is
a.
phosphatidylcholine
b.
phosphatidylinositol
c.
phoshphatidylserine
d.
sphingomylein
Correct Answer
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
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Sphingomyelin is an abundant sphingophospholipid that is particularly enriched in the membranous myelin sheath surrounding nerve cell axons, making it the most prominent phospholipid in these specialized nerve membranes.
Q26mcq
Reverse transcriptase has both ribonuclease and polymerase activities. Ribonuclease activity is required for
a.
the synthesis of new RNA strand
b.
the degradation of RNA strand
Correct Answer
c.
the synthesis of new DNA strand
d.
the degradation of DNA strand
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
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Reverse transcriptase has an intrinsic Ribonuclease H (RNase H) activity that specifically degrades the RNA strand from an RNA:DNA hybrid intermediate, enabling the subsequent synthesis of the second (complementary) DNA strand.
Q27mcq
The membrane lipid molecules assemble spontaneously into bilayers when placed in water and form a closed spherical structure known as
a.
Lysosome
b.
Peroxisome
c.
Liposome
Correct Answer
d.
Endosome
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
When phospholipids are suspended in an aqueous solution, they spontaneously assemble into lipid bilayers that seal into closed, spherical vesicles containing an aqueous interior, known as liposomes. Lysosomes, peroxisomes, and endosomes are specialized cellular organelles.
Q28mcq
In gene regulation, Open Reading frame (ORF) implies
a.
intervening nucleotide sequence in between two genes
b.
a series of triplet codons not interrupted by a stop codon
c.
a series of triplet codons that begins with a start codon and ends with a stop codon
Correct Answer
d.
the exonic sequence of a gene that corresponds to 5' UTR of the mRNA and thus does not code for the protein
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
An Open Reading Frame (ORF) is a continuous stretch of codons that begins with an initiation (start) codon (typically AUG), continues as a series of triplet codons specifying amino acids, and terminates at a stop codon (UAA, UAG, or UGA).
Q29mcq
Amino acid selenocysteine (Sec) is incorporated into polypeptide chain during translation by:
a.
charging of Sec into $\text{tRNA}^\text{ser}$ followed by incorporation through serine codon
b.
charging of serine into $\text{tRNA}^\text{ser}$ followed by modification of serine into selenocysteine and then incorporation through serine codon
c.
charging of Sec into $\text{tRNA}^\text{sec}$ and then incorporation through selenocysteine codon
d.
charging of serine into $\text{tRNA}^\text{ser}$ followed by modification of serine into selenocysteine and then incorporation through a specially placed stop codon
Correct Answer
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
Selenocysteine (Sec) is synthesized while attached to a unique transfer RNA ($ ext{tRNA}^ ext{Sec}$ or specifically designated serine-accepting tRNA). Seryl-tRNA synthetase first attaches L-serine to the tRNA, forming Ser-$ ext{tRNA}^ ext{Sec}$. The seryl residue is then enzymatically converted to selenocysteyl-tRNA ($ ext{Sec-tRNA}^ ext{Sec}$). It is incorporated at specific UGA codons (normally stop codons) that are followed by a stem-loop structure known as the SECIS (selenocysteine insertion sequence) element.
Q30mcq
$\alpha$-amanitin inhibits
a.
only RNA polymerase I
b.
only RNA polymerase II
Correct Answer
c.
only RNA polymerase III
d.
all RNA polymerases
Step-by-Step AI Explanation
Verified Method
$\alpha$-amanitin is a cyclic peptide toxin from the death cap mushroom (*Amanita phalloides*). Among eukaryotic RNA polymerases, RNA polymerase II is extremely sensitive to $\alpha$-amanitin and is inhibited at very low concentrations ($10^{-9}$ to $10^{-8}\text{ M}$). RNA polymerase III is moderately sensitive (inhibited at high concentrations, $\sim 10^{-6}\text{ M}$), and RNA polymerase I is completely insensitive. In standard multiple-choice questions focusing on differential sensitivity or basic inhibition, RNA polymerase II is the primary target classically described as being inhibited.
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While replicating DNA, the rate of misincorporation by DNA polymerase is 1 in $10^5$ nucleotides. However, the actual error rate in the replicated DNA is 1 in $10^9$ nucleotides incorporated. This is achieved mainly due to
a.
spontaneous excision of misincorporated nucleotides
b.
$3' \rightarrow 5'$ proofreading activity of DNA polymerase
c.
termination of DNA polymerase at misincorporated sites
d.
$5' \rightarrow 3'$ proof reading activity
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Chloroplast distribution in a photosynthesizing cell is governed by blue light sensing phototropin 2 (PHOT2). When the cells are irradiated with high intensity blue light, the chloroplasts
a.
move to the side walls
b.
aggregate in the middle of the cell
c.
are sparsely distributed
d.
aggregate in small clusters
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A plant of the genotype AaBb is selfed. The two genes are linked and are 50 map units apart. What proportion of the progeny will have the genotype aabb?
a.
$1/2$
b.
$1/4$
c.
$1/8$
d.
$1/16$
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What kind of aneuploid gametes will be generated if meiotic non-disjunction occurs at first division? ('$n$' represents the haploid number of chromosomes)
a.
only $n + 1$ and $n$
b.
only $n - 1$ and $n$
c.
both $n + 1$ and $n - 1$
d.
either $n + 1$ or $n - 1$
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A single-strand nick in the parental DNA helix just ahead of a replication fork causes the replication fork to break. Recovery from this calamity requires
a.
DNA ligase
b.
DNA primase
c.
site-specific recombination
d.
homologous recombination
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Aquatic primary production was measured using Light and Dark bottle technique. If the initial oxygen concentration was $I$ and the final oxygen concentration in the light bottle is $\text{L}$ and that in the dark bottle $\text{D}$, the gross productivitiy (in terms of oxygen released) is given as
a.
$\text{L} - \text{D}$
b.
$\text{I} - \text{D}$
c.
$\text{I} - \text{L}$
d.
$\text{L} - \text{D}$
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Equilibrium constant (K) of noncovalent interaction between two non-bonded atoms of two different groups was measured at $27^\circ\text{C}$. It was observed that $\text{K} = 100\text{ M}^{-1}$. The strength of this noncovalent interaction in terms of Gibbs free energy change is:
a.
$27\ 46\text{ kcal/mole}$
b.
$-27\ 46\text{ kcal/mole}$
c.
$247\text{ kcal/mole.}$
d.
$-247\text{ kcal/mole}$
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Waals interaction is described by the following relation $\Delta\text{G}_{\text{Van}} = \frac{A}{r^{12}} - \frac{B}{r^6} + \frac{q_1 q_2}{r}$. Where $\Delta\text{G}_{\text{Van}}$ is the free energy of the van der Waals interaction, A and B are constants, r is the distance between two nonbonded atoms 1 and 2, and $\text{q}_1$ and $\text{q}_2$ are partial charges on the dipoles 1 and 2. In this relation, the parameter A describes
a.
electron shell attraction
b.
electron shell repulsion
c.
dipole-dipole attraction
d.
dipole-dipole repulsion
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The pH of blood of a healthy person is maintained at $7.40 \pm 0.05$. Assuming that this pH is maintained entirely by the bicarbonate buffer ($\text{pKa}_1$ and $\text{pKa}_2$ of carbonic acid are $6.1$ and $10.3$, respectively), the molar ratio of [bicarbonate]/[carbonic acid] in the blood is
a.
0.05
b.
1
c.
10
d.
20
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The hydrolysis of pyrophosphate to orthophosphate is important for several biosynthetic reactions. In E. coli, the molecular mass of the enzyme pyrophosphatase is 120 kD, and it consists of six identical sub-units. The enzyme activity is defined as the amount of enzyme that hydrolyzes $10\text{ }\mu\text{mol}$ of pyrophosphate in 15 minutes at $37^\circ$ under standard assay condition. The purified enzyme has a $\text{V}_{\text{max}}$ of 2800 units per milligram of the enzyme. How many moles of the substrate are hydrolysed per second per milligram of the enzyme when the substrate concentration is much greater than $\text{K}_{\text{m}}$?
a.
$0.05\text{ }\mu\text{mol}$
b.
$62\text{ }\mu\text{mol}$
c.
$31.1\text{ }\mu\text{mol}$
d.
$1\text{ }\mu\text{mol}$
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Denaturation profiles of DNA are shown below
The differences in the profiles arise because
a.
the DNA is single stranded but of different sizes
b.
$\text{A} + \text{T}$ content of $\text{A} > \text{B} > \text{C}$ and the DNA are from complex genomes
c.
$\text{G} + \text{C}$ content of $\text{C} > \text{B} > \text{A}$ in DNA of comparable sizes isolated from simple genomes
d.
$\text{G} + \text{C}$ content is identical but $\text{A} + \text{T}$ content in $\text{A} > \text{B} > \text{C}$ in DNA of comparable sizes isolated from simple genomes
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A nerve impulse or action potential is generated from transient changes in the permeability of the axon membrane to $\text{Na}^+$ and $\text{K}^+$ ions. The depolarization of the membrane beyond the threshold level leads to $\text{Na}^+$ flowing into the cell and a change in membrane potential to a positive value. The $\text{K}^+$ channel then opens allowing $\text{K}^+$ to flow outwards ultimately restoring membrane potential to the resting value. The $\text{Na}^+$ and $\text{K}^+$ channels operate in opposite directions because
a.
there is an electrochemical gradient growth generated by proton transport
b.
there is a difference in $\text{Na}^+$ and $\text{K}^+$ concentrations on either side of the membrane
c.
$\text{Na}^+$ is a voltage-gated channel, whereas $\text{K}^+$ is ligand-gated
d.
$\text{Na}^+$ is dependent on ATP whereas $\text{K}^+$ is not
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The erythrocyte membrane cytoskeleton consists of a meshwork of proteins underlying the membrane. The principal component spectrin has $\alpha$, $\beta$ subunits which assemble to forms tetramers. The cytoskeleton is anchored to the membrane through linkages with the transmembrane proteins band 3 and glycophorin C. The cytosolic domain of band 3 also serves as the binding site of glycolytic enzymes such as glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase. Analysis of the blood sample of a patient with haemolytic anemia shows spherical red blood cells. The patient carries
a.
a mutation in glycophorin C
b.
a mutant spectrin with increased tetramerization propensity
c.
mutant $\beta$ spectrin defective in $\alpha\beta$ dimerization ability
d.
mutant glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase
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In human, protein coding genes are mainly organized as "exons" and "introns". There are intergenic regions that transcribe into various types of non-coding RNA (not translating into protein). Some introns may also harbor transcription units, which are
a.
always other protein coding genes
b.
protein coding gene and RNA coding genes
c.
always RNA coding genes
d.
pseudo genes
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Maturation-promoting factor (MPF) controls the initiation of mitosis in eukaryotic cells. MPF kinase activity requires cyclin B. Cyclin B is required for chromosome condensation and breakdown of the nuclear envelope into vesicles. Cyclin B degradation is followed by chromosome decondensation, nuclear envelope reformation and exit from mitosis. This requires ubiquitination of a cyclin destruction box motif in cyclin B. RNase-treated Xenopus egg extracts and sperm chromatin were, mixed. MPF activity increased with chromosome condensation and nuclear envelope breakdown. However, this was not followed by chromosome decondensation and nuclear envelope reformation because
a.
RNase contamination persisted in the system
b.
cyclin B was missing from the system
c.
ubiquitin ligase had been overexpressed
d.
cyclin B lacking the cyclin destruction box had been overexpressed
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Many cancers carry mutant p53 genes, while some cancers have normal p53 genes. p53 activates p21 (Waf1) which inhibits G 1/S-Cdks, and phosphorylation of the retinoblastoma protein (Rb). Cancers with normal p53 genes could
a.
express non-phosphorylatable form of Rb.
b.
express high levels of p53-deubiquitinases.
c.
express inactive forms of G1/S-cdks.
d.
express inactive forms of G1/S cyclins.
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A fixed smear of a bacteria culture is subjected to the following solutions in the order listed below and appeared red.
(a) Carbolfuchsin (heated)
(b) Acid-alcohol
(c) Methylene blue
Bacteria stained by this method can be identified as
a.
Non-acid fast $E.\ coli$
b.
Acid fast $Mycobacterium\ sp.$
c.
Gram-positive $E.\ coli$
d.
Gram-negative $Mycobacterium\ sp.$
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In an *in vitro* experiment using radiolabeled nucleotides, a researcher is trying to analyze the possible products of DNA replication by resolving the products using urea- polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis. In one experimental set up RNase H was added (Set 1), while in another set no RNase H was added (Set 2). The possible observations of this experiment could be
A. There is no difference in the mobility of labelled DNA fragments between the Set 1 and Set 2
B. There is distinct difference in the mobility of the newly synthesized labelled DNA fragments between Set 1 and Set 2
C. The mobility of the newly synthesized labelled DNA fragments in case of Set 1 is faster as compared to the Set 2
D. The mobility of the newly synthesized labelled DNA fragments in case of Set 1 is slower as compared to the Set 2
Which of the following combinations represent correct observations?
a.
A and B
b.
B and C
c.
A and D
d.
B and D
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Synthesis of normal hemoglobin requires coordinated synthesis of a $\alpha$ globin and $\beta$ globin, Thalassemias are genetic defects perturbed in this coordinated synthesis. Patients suffering from deficiency of $\beta$ globin chains ($\beta$-thalassemia) could also be due to mutations affecting the biosynthesis of $\beta$ globin mRNA.
*The following statements describe the genesis of non-functional $\beta$ globin leading to $\beta$-thalassemia,*
A. Mutation in the promoter region of the $\beta$ globin gene
B. Mutation in the splice junction of the $\beta$ globin gene
C. Mutation in the intron 1 of the $\beta$ globin gene D. Mutations towards the 3' end of the $\beta$ globin gene that codes for polyadenylation site.
Which of the following combinations is correct?
a.
A, B and D
b.
A, B and C
c.
B, C and D
d.
C, D and A
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Pre-mRNAs are rapidly bound by snRNPs which carry out dual steps of splicing that removes the intron and joins the upstream and downstream exons.
The following statements describe some facts related to this event
A. Almost all introns begin with GU and end with AG sequences and hence all the GU or AG sequences are spliced out of RNA.
B. U2 RNA recognizes important sequences at the 3' acceptor end of the intron.
C. The spliceosome uses ATP to carry out accurate removal of intron.
D. An unusual linkage with 2' OH group of guanosine within intron form 'Lariat' structure.
Which of the following combinations is correct?
a.
A and B
b.
B and C
c.
C and D
d.
D and A
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For continuation of protein synthesis in bacteria, ribosomes need to be released from the mRNA as well as to dissociate into subunits. These processes do not occur spontaneously.
They need the following possible conditions:
A. RRF and EF-G aid in this process
B. An intrinsic activity of ribosomes and an uncharged tRNA are required
C. IF-1 promotes dissociation of ribosomes
D. IF-3 and IF-1 promote dissociation of ribosomes
Which of the following sets is correct?
a.
A and D
b.
A and B
c.
A and C
d.
B and D
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Insulin and other growth factors stimulate a pathway involving a protein kinase mTOR, which in its turn augments protein synthesis. mTOR essentially modifies protein(s) which in their unmodified form act as inhibitors of protein synthesis. The following proteins are possible candidates:
A. eEF-1
B. eIF-4E-BP1
C. eIF-4E
D. PHAS-1
Which of the following sets is correct?
a.
A and B
b.
B and D
c.
A and C
d.
B and C
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Bacteriophage $\lambda$, has two modes in its life cycle, lytic and lysogenic. In the lysogenic mode, the expression of all the phage genes are repressed while the expression of repressor gene switches between on and off-position depending on the concentration of repressor. The following statements are made:
A. Repressor may act both as a positive regulator and negative regulator.
B. Expression of repressor gene, cI is independent of the expression of cII and cIII genes.
C. Mutation of cI gene will cause it to form clear plaques on both wild type E. coli and E. coli ($\lambda^+$).
D. Mutation at operators, $\text{O}_\text{L}$ and $\text{O}_\text{R}$ will allow the phage to act as virulent phage.
The correct statements are
a.
A and B
b.
B and
c.
C and D
d.
D and A
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Survival of intracellular pathogens depends on the levels of pro-inflammatory and anti-inflammatory cytokines in macrophages. In an experimental condition, *Mycobacteria* infected macrophages were treated with IL-6 or IL-12 for 4 hours at $37^\circ\text{C}$. Untreated cells were used as control. Cells were lysed and number of bacteria in each experimental set was counted by measuring colony forming unit (CFU).
Which of the following observations is true?
a.
IL-12 treated cells contain more intracellular bacteria than control
b.
IL-12 treated cells contain less intracellular bacteria than control
c.
IL-6 treated cells contain more intracellular bacteria than control
d.
IL-6 treated cells contain less intracellular bacteria than control
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The bacterial flagellar motor is a multi-protein complex. Rotation of the flagellum requires movement of protons across the membrane facilitated by a multi-protein complex. The flagellar motor proteins combine to create a proton channel that drives mechanical rotation.
In a screen for mutants, some non-motile ones were selected. These could have
a.
Mutations in tubulin and actin proteins
b.
Mutations in kinesin proteins
c.
Mutated $\text{H}^+$-ATPase
d.
Mutations in the charged residues lining the ridge of the FliG subunit
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A bacterial response regulator turns on gene A in its phosphated form. The amount of "A" shows a sharp and steep rise at a threshould concentration of the single sensed by the cognate sensor. This is most likely due to
a.
increased phosphatase activity of the sensor at the threshold concentration
b.
decreased phophorylation of the response regulator by the sensor
c.
cooperativity in binding of the response regulator to the target gene
d.
A negative feedback in gene A expression
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Intracellular transport and cytoskeletal organization of a cell is regulated by nucleotide exchange of different small molecular weight GTPases of Ras super family. Overexpression of which of the following GTPase modulates the actin- cytoskeleton of HeLa cells?
a.
Ran in GDP bound form
b.
Ran in GTP bound form
c.
Rho in GTP bound form
d.
Rho in GDP bound form
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You are given a group of four mice. Each mouse is immunized with keyhole limpet hemocyanin or azobenzene arsonate or lipopolysaccharide or dextran. Four weeks later, sera were collected from these mice and antigen-specific IgG1 and IgG2a ELISA were performed. Only one of the mice showed positive response. It was
a.
keyhole limpet hemocyanin-primed mouse
b.
azobenze arsonate-primed mouse
c.
lipopolysaccharide-primed mouse
d.
dextran-primed mouse
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Tumor cells were isolated from a breast cancer patient. These cells were injected into nude mice and they were divided into four groups. Group 1 received EGF receptor-conjugated with methotrexate; Group 2 received transferrin receptor- conjugated with methotrexate. Group 3 received mannose receptor-conjugated with methotrexate; Group 4 received same amount of the free drug. In which of the following cases tumorigenic index would be minimum?
a.
Free drug
b.
EGF receptor-conjugated drug
c.
Transferrin receptor-conjugated drug
d.
Mannose receptor-conjugated drug
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When the prospective neurons from an early gastrula of a frog were transplanted into the prospective epidermis region, the donor cells differentiated into epidermis. However, when a similar experiment was done with the late gastrula of frog, the prospective neurons developed into neurons only. These observation could possibly be explained by the following phenomena.
A. The early gastrula show conditional development whereas the late gastrula shows autonomous development.
B. The early gastrula show autonomous development whereas the late gastrula shows conditional development.
C. The prospective neurons from the early gastrula are only specified wheras those from the late gastrula are determined.
D. The prospective neurons from the early gastrula are determined whereas those from teh late gastrula are specified.
Which of the conclusions draw above are correct?
a.
A and B
b.
A and C
c.
A and D
d.
B and C
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AP1 (AETLA 1) is one of the floral meristem identifying genes. In wild type *Arabidopsis thaliana* plants transformed with AP1: GUS, $\beta$ glucuronidase (GUS) activity is seen in floral meristem, only after the commitment to flowering. Ectopic expression of AP1 : : GUS in the EMBRYONIC FLOWER (*emf*) mutant background results in GUS activity throughout the shoots in four day old seedlings. These observations suggest that AP1 is :
a.
not involved in flowering
b.
involved in repression of flowering
c.
involved in promoting flowering
d.
stimulation of flowering in the *emf* background
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there is repatterning of the existing tissues with little new growth
b.
ther is repattening of the existing tissues after the stem cell division has taken plae
c.
there is cell division of the differentiated cells which maintain their differentiated state to finally form a complete organism
d.
there is dedifferentiation of the cells at the cut surface which become undifferentiated. These undifferentiated cells then divide to redifferntiate to form the complete structure.
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The decision to become either a trophoblast or inner cell mass blastomere is one of the first decisions taken by any mammalian embryo. Below is a diagrammatic representation of the different cells formed during development from the morula with the help of different molecules. Identify the molecules 1-4, sequentially.
a.
cdx 2, Oct 4, Nanog, Stat 3
b.
cdx 2, Nanog, Stat 3, Oct 4
c.
cdx 2, Nanog, Oct 4, Stat 3
d.
cdx 2, Oct 4, Stat 3, Nanog
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With respect to teh extra embryonic structures formed in the mammals, the possible functional attributes have been designated :
A. Allantion stores urinary waste and helps mediate gas exchange. It is derived from splanchnopleure at the caudal end of the primitive streak.
B. Amnion is a water sac and protects the embryo and its surrounding amniotic fluid. This epithelium is derived from somatopleure.
C. Chorion is essential for gas exchange in amniote embryos. It is generated from the splanchnopleure.
D. Yolk sac is the last embryonic membrane to form and is derived from somatopleure.
Which of the abvoe statements are correct ?
a.
A and B
b.
A and C
c.
B and C
d.
A and D
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The figure above represents a late zebrafish gastrula. The following concepts may be proposed during further development of the embryo.
A. The concetration of FGF decreases from the yolk towards the epidermis, along with the increase of BMP activity from the dorsal to the ventral axis.
B. Increase in FGF activity in the epidermis with concomitant decrease in BMP activity towards the ventral axis.
C. Neural induction in zebrafish is independent of the organizer and depends on activation of BMP signalling.
D. In comparison, both Xenopus and chick embryos require activation of FGF for neural induction to occur in addition to BMP inhibition.
Which of the above statements are true?
a.
A and C
b.
B and C
c.
A and D
d.
C and D
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Following are some of the statements regarding the effect of $\text{CO}_2$ concentration on photosynthesis in plants.
A. With elevated $\text{CO}_2$ level, $\text{C}_3$ plants are much more responsive than $\text{C}_4$ plants under well watered conditions
B. In $\text{C}_3$ plants, increasing intracellular $\text{CO}_2$ partial pressure can stimulate photosynthesis only over a narrow range.
C. In $\text{C}_4$ plants, $\text{CO}_2$ compensation point is nearly zero.
Which one of the following combination of above statements is correct?
a.
A and B
b.
B and C
c.
A and C
d.
Only C
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The quantum yield of photosynthetic carbon fixation in a $\text{C}_3$ plant and $\text{C}_4$ plant is studied as a function of leaf temperature. Following are some statements based on this study.
A. At lower temperature the quantum yield of $\text{C}_3$ plant is lower than $\text{C}_4$ plant.
B. In $\text{C}_4$ plant quantum yield does not show a temperature dependence.
C. Since the photorespiration is low in $\text{C}_4$ plants because of $\text{CO}_2$ concentrating mechanism, quantum yield is not affected.
D. At higher temperature the quantum yield of $\text{C}_3$ plant is lower than $\text{C}_4$ plant.
Which one of the following combination of above statements is correct?
a.
A, B and D
b.
B, C and D
c.
A, B and C
d.
A, C and D
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Following are some statements regarding plant growth hormones.
A. Ethylene regulates abscission.
B. Gibberlins do not play any role in flowering.
C. Auxin and cytokinin promote cell division.
D. Over expression of cytokinin oxidase would promote root growth.
E. ABA inhibits root growth and promotes shoot growth at low water potential.
F. ABA promotes leaf senescence independent of ethylene.
Which one of the following combination of above statements is correct?
a.
A, C and F
b.
B, C and D
c.
D, E and F
d.
B, D and E
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Following are some statements for synthesis of jasmonic acid in plants
A. 12-oxo-phytodienoic acid is produced in chloroplast and transported to peroxisome.
B. Action of lipoxygenase, allene oxide synthase and allene oxide cyclase takes place in peroxisome.
C. 12-oxo-phytodienoic acid is first reduced and then converted to jasmonic acid by $\beta$-oxidation.
D. Final production of jasmonic acid takes place in chloroplast.
E. Action of allene oxide synthase and allene oxide cyclase takes place in chloroplast.
Which one of the following combination of above statements is correct?
a.
A, B and C
b.
B, D and E
c.
C, D and E
d.
A, C and E
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Following are some statements about low temperature stress in plants.
A. Fatty acid composition of mitochondria isolated from chilling resistant and chilling sensitive plants differs significantly.
B. Ratio of unsaturated fatty acids to saturated fatty acids is lower in chilling resistant species.
C. The cellular water does not freeze even at -40°C, because of the presence of solutes and other antifreeze proteins.
D. Heat shock proteins do not play any role during low temperature stress.
Which one of the following combination of above statement is correct?
a.
A and B
b.
A and C
c.
B and C
d.
B and D
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An isolated carotid sinus was prepared so that the pressure may be regulated by a pump and the resulting discharge in single carotid sinus nerve fibre could be recorded. The following are the possible observations.
A. No discharge when carotid sinus perfusion pressure was below 30 mm Hg.
B. Linear increase in discharge frequency when carotid sinus perfusion pressure was gradually increased from 70 to 110 mm Hg.
C. Increase in discharge frequency was more prominent in greater pulsatile changes of carotid sinus pressure keeping the mean pressure identical in all cases.
D. Increase in discharge was more prominent in the falling phase of pulsatile change of carotid sinus pressure than in the rising phase.
Which one of the following is correct?
a.
A, B and C
b.
A and C
c.
B and D
d.
D only
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For a normal heart, the time taken for atrial systole and diastole are $\text{A}_\text{s}$ and $\text{A}_\text{d}$ seconds, respectively, while the same for ventricular systole and diastole are $\text{V}_\text{s}$ and $\text{V}_\text{d}$. Which one of the following equations is correct?
During the Spanish conquest of the Inca Empire at the high altitude in Peru, many soldiers fell sick. It was found that the sickness was due to low partial pressure of $\text{O}_2$ in the atmosphere at that altitude. To determine the reason, blood was collected from those patients. The circulating erythropoietin (EPO) level were estimated and the $\text{O}_2$-dissociation curve of haemoglobin were drawn and compared with the same in native people as depicted below.
Which one of the following combinations is logically correct ?
a.
A and C
b.
A and D
c.
B and C
d.
B and D
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A monkey undergoes cerebellectomy. After the post-operative recovery, the monkey was given a task to press a bar. The possible observations are:
A. Its hand would overshoot the target while reaching the bar.
B. It would be unable to move forelimbs.
C. It would show intention tremor while trying to press the bar.
D. It would press the bar with mouth instead of hand.
Which one of the following is correct?
a.
A and C
b.
B only
c.
D only
d.
B and D
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A $1\text{ meter}$ tall object was placed $10\text{ meter}$ in front of a normal eye. The size of the image on the retina will be (consider distance between lens and retina = $1.7\text{ cms}$)
a.
$0.17\text{ mm}$
b.
$1.7\text{ mm}$
c.
$3.4\text{ mm}$
d.
$170\ \mu\text{m}$
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The graph represents relative plasma concentration of hormones (A and B) during reproductive cycle in an normal female. Which one of the following combinations is correct ?
a.
(A) is FSH and (B) is estrogen
b.
(A) is estrogen and (B) is LH
c.
(A) is FSH and (B) is LH
d.
(A) is LH and (B) is FSH
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The following figure depicts the relationship between a genetic map for four genes ($A$, $B$, $C$ and $D$) and their corresponding physical map:
The following statements are made to explain this relationship.
A. More number of recombination events occur between $A$ and $B$ as compared to $B$ and $C$.
B. Lesser number of recombination events occur between $C$ and $D$ as compared to $B$ and $C$.
C. Although the physical distance between $A$ and $B$ is less than that between $C$ and $D$, the region between $A$ and $B$ is more recombinogenic.
D. The physical distance between $A$ and $B$ is less than that between $C$ and $D$, and thus the region between $A$ and $B$ is less recombinogenic.
E. Although the physical distance between $C$ and $D$ is more than that between $B$ and $C$, the region between $C$ and $D$ is less recombinogenic.
F. Although the physical distance between $C$ and $D$ is more than $B$ and $C$, the region between $C$ and $D$ is more recombinogenic.
Which statements are correct?
a.
A and B
b.
C and E
c.
D and F
d.
A, C and E
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The ABO blood type in human is under the control of autosomal multiple alleles. Colour blindness is recessive X-linked trait. A male with a blood type A and normal vision marries a female who also has blood type A and normal vision. The couple's first child is a male who is colour blind and has O blood group. What is the probability that their next female child has normal vision and O blood group?
a.
1/4
b.
3/4
c.
1/8
d.
1
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In _E. coli_ four Hfr strains donate the following genetic markers in the order shown below:
Strain 1: L Q W X Y
Strain 2: M T A D Y
Strain 3: E C M T A
Strain 4: W Q L E C
Which of the following depicts the correct order of the markers and the site of integration ($\rightarrow$) of the F-factor in the four Hfr strains?
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The following is a schematic representation of region (showing six bands) of the polytene chromosome of *Drosophila*, along with the extent of five deletions (Del 1 to Del 5):
Recessive alleles $a, b, c, d, e$ and $f$ are known to correspond to each of the bands (1 to 6), but their order is not known. When the recessive alleles are placed against each of these deletions, the following results are obtained. The plus (+) in the table indicates wild type phenotype of the corresponding allele, while a minus (-) indicates the phenotype governed by the corresponding mutant allele.
Which one of the following indicates the correct location of the recessive alleles on the bands of the polytene chromosomes?
a.
a - 3; b-1 ; c-2 ; d-4 ; e-5 ; f-6.
b.
a - 2; b-1 ; c-3 ; d-4 ; e-5 ; f-6.
c.
a - 4; b-1 ; c-2 ; d-3 ; e-5 ; f-6.
d.
a - 6; b- 2; c- 3; d- 4; e- 1; f-5.
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Chlorophyll pigment composition and carbohydrarte food reserves of some algal groups are given below:
**Pigments:** (i) chlorophyll a and b; (ii) chlorophyll a and c.
**Carbohydrate food reserve :** [a] paramylon; (b) starch; (c) Laminarin; (d) Leucosin
Identyfy the correct combination of the characters for the given groups.
a.
Euglenophyta- (i and a) ; Bacillariophyta -(ii and d); Phaeophyta-(ii and c); Chlorophyta -(i and b).
b.
Euglenophyta- (ii and a); Bacillariophyta -(ii and d); Phaeophyta-(i and c); Chlorophyta -(i and b).
c.
Euglenophyta- (i and a); Bacillariophyta -(ii and b); Phaeophyta-(i and c); Chlorophyta -(ii and d).
d.
Euglenophyta- (i and d); Bacillariophyta -(ii and a); Phaeophyta-(ii and c); Chlorophyta -(i and b).
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From among the five animals listed below, match the two attributes - amniotic egg and endothermy, with the correct animal(s):
(a) fish
(b) frog
(c) crocodile
(d) pigeon
(e) zebra
a.
Amniotic egg: b, c, d; Endothermy: d, e
b.
Amniotic egg: c, d, e; Endothermy: d, e
c.
Amniotic egg: a, b, c, d; Endothermy: c, d, e
d.
Amniotic egg: b, c, d; Endothermy: c, d, e
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During a field study, three insects with the following characteristics were observed:
A. elongate, membranous wings with netlike venation, long and slender abdomen, large compound eyes
B. small bodied, sucking mouth parts, narrow wings fringed with setae
C. sclerotized forewings, membranous hindwings, chewing mouth parts
They can be identified to their respective orders as
a.
A - Orthoptera; B-Hemiptera; C-Coleoptera
b.
A - Odonata; B-Coleoptera; C-Hemiptera
c.
A - Orthoptera; B - Odonata; C-Coleoptera
d.
A - Odonata; B-Thysanoptera; C-Coleoptera
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Several distinct time periods and different routes might explain the entrance of marsupials into Australia.
(i) Late Jurassic - early therians arrived in Antarctica - Australia where the marsupials subsequently evolved.
(ii) Early to middle Cretaceous - early marsupials arrived in Australia from northern regions and then radiated in isolation.
(iii) Paleocene - marsupials entered Australia from South-East Asia.
(iv) Eocene - chance dispersal of marsupials into Australia.
Which of the following is the correct combination?
a.
(i) (ii) (iii)
b.
(i) (iii) (iv)
c.
(ii) (iii) (iv)
d.
(i) (ii) (iv)
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Which of the following is NOT true for a critically endangered species ?
a.
Reduction of population breeding ability due to increased relatedness through the action of incompatibility mechanisms in plants or behavioural difficulties in animals.
b.
The individuals of the species which have declined to low numbers are still a genetically open system.
c.
Loss of some alleles from the species causing loss of genetic diversity with consequent inability to respond rapidly to selection
d.
Expression of deleterious alleles and increased homozygosity increases mortality of young and inbreeding depression leads to reduced offspring fitness.
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Autotrophs in the aquatic ecosystem, unlike their counterparts in the terrestrial ecosystem are mostly microscopic and very low in indigestible (to the herbivories) matter. This explains the fact that compared to the terrestrial ecosystem, in the aquatic ecosystem
a.
Productivity/Biomass ratios are higher and energy transfer rates to higher trophic levels are faster.
b.
Productivity/Biomass ratios are lower and the energy transfer rates to higher trophic levels are slower.
c.
Productivity/Biomass ratios are lower and the energy transfer rate to higher trophic levels are faster.
d.
Productivity/Biomass ratios are higher and the energy transfer rate to higher trophic levels are slower.
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In the global nitrogen cycle, the following microbial organisms are invloved in three importent process denitrification, nitrification and nitrogen fixation.
(i) Rhizobium
(ii) Nitrosomonas
(iii) Nitrobacter
(iv) Pseudonomas
(v) Azotobacter
Which of the following is correctly matched pair of process and its causative species ?
a.
Denitrification - (b); nitrogen fixation -(c) and (e); nitrification -(d)
b.
Denitrification - (d); nitrogen fixation -(a) and (e); nitrification -(c)
c.
Denitrification - (e); nitrogen fixation -(a) and (d); nitrification -(d)
d.
Denitrification - (b); nitrogen fixation -(a) and (d); nitrification -(c)
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Suppose you discovered a new species about which you know only two facts : it is small sized ($<10\text{ cm}$) and short lived ($<20\text{ days}$). Which of the following strategies is most likely to be true for this species?
a.
Breed early and more than once in life and produces large number of small sized offspring
b.
Breed late and only once in life and produces large number of small sized offspring
c.
Breed early and only once in life and produces large number of small sized offspring
d.
Breed early and only once in life and produces small number of large sized offspring
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The genetic relatedness (r) of an individual to his nephew is $0.25$. The alleles that cause uncles to care for nephews will spread, according to Hamilton's Rule, only if the fitness benefit is
a.
equal to the cost of care.
b.
more than the cost of care by $25\%$.
c.
double the cost of care.
d.
four times the cost of care.
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The frequencies of two alleles $p$ and $q$ for a gene locus in a population at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium are $0.3$ and $0.7$, respectively. After a few generations of inbreeding, the heterozygote frequency was found to be $0.28$. The inbreeding coefficient in this case is
a.
0.42.
b.
0.28.
c.
0.33.
d.
0.67.
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Number of trials required for rats to learn a task when they were exposed to various conditions were as follows:
\begin{tabular}{|l|l|}
\hline
\textbf{Experimental conditions} & \textbf{Observation} \\
\hline
A. Light:Dark cycle - $12\text{ h}:12\text{ h}$ & N-Trials \\
\hline
B. Bright light - $24\text{ h}$ & Significantly more trials than 'N' \\
\hline
C. Bright light - $24\text{ h} +$ continuous physical disturbances & Significantly more trials than 'N' \\
\hline
D. Dark light - $24\text{ h} +$ continuous physical disturbances & Significantly more trials than 'N' \\
\hline
\end{tabular}
Which of the following inferences is most appropriate?
a.
Continuous light enhanced learning
b.
Continuous darkness inhibited learning
c.
Physical acitivity inhibited learning
d.
Learning was reduced by slepp loss
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Assume a male sparrow (species X) is hatched and reared in isolation and allowed a critical imprinting period to hear the song of a male of another sparrow (species Y). Now after the isolation, what kind of behaviour will species X show?
a.
It will sing the song of species Y that it had heard in the critical period.
b.
It will sing the song of its own species X.
c.
It will not sing at all.
d.
It will sing a song not sung by either X or Y.
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Enzymes are nowadays used extensively in bio-processing industries.
Enzyme 1 is used for treatment of hides to provide a finer texture, in leather processing and manufacture of glue.
Enzyme 2 is used for clarification of fruit juices.
Identify Enzymes 1 and 2
a.
Enzyme 1: Amylase; Enzyme 2: Pectinase
b.
Enzyme 1: Protease; Enzyme 2: Amylase
c.
Enzyme 1: Protease; Enzyme 2: Pectinase
d.
Enzyme 1: Pectinase; Enzyme 2: Amylase
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In order to prevent tetanus in neonates, one of the following treatments can be adopted.
A. Treatment of the infant with anti-toxin and the toxoid.
B. Immunize the mother with the toxoid.
In case of A, the treatment can be given
a. immediately after birth
b. after the onset of the condition.
In case of B, the immunization has to be done
c. before pregnancy.
d. late in the pregnancy.
The correct combination is .
a.
A/a
b.
A/b
c.
B/c
d.
B/d
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Genomic DNA of transgenic plants (PI, P2 and P3) obtained by transforming with binary vector A whose map is depicted below, was digested with BamH I and Sal I and hybridized with a labelled fragment X
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Stem cell therapies are being used in regenerative medicine like forming new adult bone, which usually does not regrow to bridge wide gaps. Successful attempts have now been made in this area because the same paracrine and endocrine factors were found to be involved in both endochondral ossification and fracture repair. Few methods to achieve the above are given below:
A. Develop a collagen gel containing plasmids carrying the human parathyroid hormone gene and place in the gap between the ends of the broken leg.
B. Develop a gel matrix disc containing genetically modified stem cells to secrete BMP4 and VEGF-A and implant it at the site of the wound.
C. Make scaffolds of material that resemble normal extracellular matrix that could be molded to form the shape of a bone needed and seed them with bone marrow stem cell.
D. Develop a collagen gel containing plasmids carrying the human bone marrow cells and place them between the ends of the bones.
Which of the above methods would you employ to develop a new functional bone in patients with severely fractured bones.
a.
A and B
b.
A, B and C
c.
A and C
d.
C and D
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Cre/loxP system is used by phage P1 to remove terminally redundant sequences that arise during packaging of the phage DNA. Cre-lox system can be used to create targeted deletions, insertions and inversion in genomes of transgenic animals and plants. Consider a series of genetic markers A to K. How should the Lox P sites be positioned in order that Cre recombinase can create an inversion in the EFG segment relative to ABCD and HIJK?
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Figures A and B respectively represent the dideoxy sequencing gels obtained for partial sequences from 5' end of a bacterial gene and its mutant (with a point mutation).
What type of mutation has occurred in the gene?
a.
Nonsense
b.
Missense
c.
Frameshift
d.
Transversion
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T cell proliferation \textit{in vivo} is to be analyzed. The cells are labeled with CFSE (a fluorescent probe) and injected in CD86-deficient mice and BALB/c mice along with the required antigens. Three days later, the cells are recovered and analyzed by flow cytometry. Which one of the following is logically correct?
a.
(a)
b.
(b)
c.
(c)
d.
(d)
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The most important property of any microscope is its power of resolution, which is numerically equivalent to D; the minimum distance between two distinguishable objects. D depends on three parameters namely, the angular aperture, $\alpha$, the refractive index, N, and wavelength $\lambda$, of the incident light. Below are given few options to increase the resolution of the microscope.
A. Decrease the value of $\lambda$ or increase either N or $\alpha$ to improve resolution.
B. Moving the objective lens closer to the specimen will decrease $\sin \alpha$, and improve the resolution
C. Using a medium with high refraction index between specimen and the objective lens to improve the resolution.
D. Increase the wavelength of the incident light to improve resolution
Which of the following combinations of above statement are correct?
a.
A and C
b.
B and C
c.
A and D
d.
C and D
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In an animal experiment;
(i) Electrical stimulation of an area in the brain [A] increase a function (F) which was prevented by systemic injection of adrenergic antagonistic, prazosin.
(ii) Injection of carbachol [cholinergic agonist] into A also increased function F which was, however, not prevented by systemic injection of adrenergic antagonistic, prazosin.
The results are likely to be due to the stimulation of
a.
Noradrenergic and cholinoceptive neurons
b.
Cholinergic and nor-adrenoceptive neurons
c.
Adrenergic terminals in ‘A’
d.
both neurons and fibres passing through ‘A’
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In the following statement taken from a research paper, what does p in the parenthesis stands for?
“\textit{The mean temperature of this region now is significantly higher than the one 50years ago (p < 0.05, t-test)}”
a.
Ratio of the mean temperature of the two times periods tested
b.
Probability of the error of rejecting a true null hypothesis
c.
Probability of the error of accepting a false null hypothesis
d.
Probability of the t-test being effective in detecting significant difference in the mean annual temperatures of the two periods.
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